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QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?

A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with value of 45.
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 41

Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host to host?

A. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0
i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0
i L1 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0
i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
i L2 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1

B. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L2 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1
C. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1
D. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 7 subnets, 3 masks i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i su 10.1.2.0/23 [115/10] via 0.0.0.0, Null0 C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1 i L2 10.1.0.0/23 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
E. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L1 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L1 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging
routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise
any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task?

Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and Recipient B are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which statement is true?

A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
E. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
F. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host B and Host F are
sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which statement is true?

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
Refer to the network of Layer 3 switches in the exhibit. The RPI Multicast Server only multicasts to
hosts connected to multilayer switches 5 and 6. The CMU Multicast Server multicasts to hosts on multilayer switches 1-6. Given the number of configuration steps involved, what is the most efficient way to configure the network while meeting the requirements for multicast data flow?

A. Configure each switch with PIM dense mode.
B. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode.
C. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Leave each multicast server as the root of its own multicast tree.
D. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Allow the switches to elect their own root for each multicast tree.
E. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Specify switch 1 as the root for the RPI Multicast Server. Specify switch 2 as the root for the CMU Multicast Server.
F. Configure each switch with PIM sparse-dense mode. Configure switch 3 as a rendezvous point for the RPI multicast stream.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
A router is running BGP and receives more than one route for a particular prefix. Assume all the routes
for this prefix have the same attributes. Which three path features would be reasons be for the router to
ignore some of the routes and not consider them as candidates for the best path? (Choose three.)
A. paths that are marked as synchronized in the show ip bgp output
B. paths that are marked as not synchronized in the show ip bgp output
C. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is accessible
D. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is inaccessible
E. paths from an external BGP (eBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
F. paths from an internal BGP (iBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 was configured with the ipv6 ospf 1 area 1 command.
B. OSPF version 2 has been enabled to support IPv6.
C. The IP address of the backup designated router (BDR) is FE80::205:5FFF:FED3:5808.
D. The output was generated by the show ip interface command.
E. The router was configured with the commands: router ospf 1 network 172.16.6.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
F. This is the designated router (DR) on the FastEthernet 0/0 link.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
Which three route filtering statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. After the router rip and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0 interface will not send any RIP updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
B. After the router eigrp 10 and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0 interface will not send any EIGRP updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
C. After the router ospf 10 and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued , the s0/0 interface will not send any OSPF updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
D. When you use the passive-interface command with RIPv2, multicasts are sent out the specified interface.
E. When you use the passive-interface command with EIGRP, hello messages are not sent out the specified interface.
F. When you use the passive-interface command with OSPF, hello messages are not sent out the specified interface.
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
Which two statements are true about IS-IS routing? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS is more efficient than OSPF in the use of CPU resources.
B. Based on the default timers, OSPF detects a failure faster than IS-IS does.
C. OSPF default timers permit more tuning than IS-IS does.
D. OSPF is more scalable than IS-IS because of its ability to identify normal, stub, and NSSA areas.
E. IS-IS and OSPF are both Open Standard, link-state routing protocols which support VLSM.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam D QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF has been configured on all routers in the network and Area 1 has been configured as a NSSA. Which statement is true about the NSSA Area 1?

A. Redistributed RIP and IGRP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 5 LSAs.
B. Only redistributed RIP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 7 LSAs.
C. Only redistributed IGRP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 7 LSAs.
D. No redistributed routes can appear in Area 1, only summary routes.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. All routers have Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled interfaces. On the basis of the configuration provided on routers R1 and R2, which router will take on the function of rendezvous point (RP) for the multicast network?

A. router R1
B. router R2
C. both routers R1 and R2
D. none of the routers since they are not configured with static RP
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network? (Choose two.)
A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM DM).
B. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM SM).
C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse-dense mode (PIM-SDM).
D. The multicast sources must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree.
E. The multicast receivers must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree.
F. To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join the RP.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast for group address 224.1.1.1 has been enabled on all routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However, hosts on Network B do not. On the basis of outputs provided, what could be the cause of the problem?

A. Router R2 does not have an RP configured on the multicast network.
B. Router R2 does not see the upstream router R1 as a PIM neighbor.
C. Because of RPF failure, Router R2 does not forward multicast packets to Network B.
D. The multicast packets are sourced from a server with an unspecified IP address.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
If no metric is specified for the routes being redistributed into IS-IS, what metric value is assigned to the routes?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 20
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about where trust boundaries should be established in a network?

A. Endpoint 1 is the only acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
B. Endpoint 1 is the optimal place to establish a trust boundary.Endpoints 2 and 3 are acceptable places to establish a trust boundary.
C. Endpoint 2 is the only acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
D. Endpoint 2 is the optimal place to establish a trust boundary.Endpoints 1 and 3 are acceptable places to establish a trust boundary.
E. Endpoints 1 and 2 are optimal places to establish a trust boundary. Endpoint 3 is an acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
F. Endpoints 2 and 3 are optimal places to establish a trust boundary. Endpoint 1 is an acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. The command spanning-tree guard root is configured on interface Gi0/0 on both switch S2 and S5. The global configuration command spanning-tree uplinkfast has been configured on both switch S2 and S5. The link between switch S4 and S5 fails. Will Host A be able to reach Host B?

A. Yes. Traffic can pass either from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1, or, from switch S6 to S5 to S2 to S1.
B. No. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end at interface Gi 0/0.
C. No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switch S5 and S2.
D. Yes. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1.
E. No. Traffic will either pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end, or traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 and dead-end.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D

QUESTION 8
Refer to exhibit. BGP is configured on all routers, synchronization is turned off, and none of the default attributes have been changed except the local preference attribute on R4. Which path will be preferred by R2 to reach the network 100.100.100.0/24?

A. R2 R3 R4 R5 because it has a lower admin distance
B. R2 R3 R4 R5 because it has a higher local preference
C. R2 R1 because it has the shortest AS-path
D. R2 R1 because it has a lower local preference
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information that is presented, what condition exists?

A. authenticating with AP
B. poor link status with AP
C. no valid radio for ADU
D. no association to AP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C QUESTION 10
What is the effect of enabling a voice VLAN on a Catalyst switch port?
A. PortFast is disabled on the port.
B. Untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
C. Port security is automatically enabled on a voice VLAN port.
D. The CoS is trusted for 802.1P or 802.1Q tagged traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 11

A. Devices connected to interfaces FastEthernet3/1 and FastEthernet3/2 are sending BPDUs with a superior root bridge parameter and no traffic is forwarded across the ports. Once the inaccurate BPDUs have been stopped, the interfaces will need to be administratively shut down, and brought back up, to resume normal operation.
B. Devices connected to interfaces FastEthernet3/1 and FastEthernet3/2 are sending BPDUs with a superior root bridge parameter,but traffic is still forwarded across the ports.
C. Devices connected to interfaces FastEthernet3/1 and FastEthernet3/2 are sending BPDUs with a superior root bridge parameter and no traffic is forwarded across the ports. Once the inaccurate BPDUs have been stopped, the interfaces automatically recover and resume normal operation.
D. Interfaces FastEthernet3/1 and FastEthernet3/2 are candidates for becoming the STP root port, but neither can realize that role until BPDUs with a superior root bridge parameter are no longer received on at least one of the interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about the operation of voice VLANs on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A. Enabling voice VLANs enables the switch to create multiple queues for traffic that is entering a port.
B. Enabling voice VLANs enables the switch to forward frames with a specific 802.1P marking.
C. Voice VLANs are configured to enable the switch to forward frames marked with the proper CoS values over separate physical links.
D. When voice VLANs are configured on a trunk link, UplinkFast must also be enabled.
E. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BE

QUESTION 13
What is one method that can be used to prevent VLAN hopping?
A. Configure ACLs.
B. Enforce username/password combinations.
C. Configure all frames with two 802.1Q headers.
D. Explicitly turn off Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) on all unused ports.
E. Configure VACLs.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Static WEP keys have been configured on all devices in the wireless LAN. What will happen if the access point receives packets sent by the wireless client adapter that are not encrypted with the appropriate key?

A. The wireless client adapter will be authenticated by the authentication server and the access point will deliver the packets to the intended receiver.
B. The wireless client adapter will not be authenticated by the authentication server, but the access point will deliver the packets to the intended receiver.
C. The access point will discard the packets and never deliver them to the intended receiver.
D. The wireless client adapter will not be able to send any packets to the access point.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C

QUESTION 15
What three statements are true for networks that are enabled for voice as well as data traffic? (Choose three.)
A. An uptime of 99.999 percent is achieved using a 4-hour service response contract for system problems.
B. Auxiliary VLANs provide the ability to apply QoS to voice traffic without affecting the flow of data from the client PC.
C. Redundant hardware, redundant links, UPS, and proactive network management are data network standards that do not apply to voice networks.
D. The increased costs of voice enabled networks are offset by increased worker productivity.
E. For ease of implementation, most VoIP phones use in-line power to get power through the same cable on which data is sent.
F. High availability networks must be created to avoid network congestion and overcome a lack of redundancy and poor engineering.
Correct Answer: BEF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:BEF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the required switch configurations to support a

A. CDP must be disabled on the switch port to prevent interference between CDP messages and voice traffic.
B. CDP must be enabled on the switch port to allow configuration information to be passed to the IP phone.
C. Static secure MAC addresses should be configured on voice vlan ports to prevent access by devices other than IP phones.
D. Portfast must be enabled on the switch port.
E. 802.1x authentication cannot be configured on a port configured for a voice vlan.
F. Port security cannot be configured on a port that is configured for a voice vlan.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD

QUESTION 17
When an attacker is using switch spoofing to perform VLAN hopping, how is the attacker able to gather information?
A. The attacking station uses DTP to negotiate trunking with a switch port and captures all traffic that is allowed on the trunk
B. The attacking station tags itself with all usable VLANs to capture data that is passed through the switch, regardless of the VLAN to which the data belongs.
C. The attacking station will generate frames with two 802.1Q headers to cause the switch to forward the frames to a VLAN that would be inaccessible to the attacker through legitimate means.
D. The attacking station uses VTP to collect VLAN information that is sent out and then tags itself with the domain information in order to capture the data.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the information that is given, how will voice traffic from the phone and data traffic from the PC be handled by SW_1?

A. The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress voice and data traffic that comes into the switch port.
B. The switch port will perform marking for the ingress voice and data traffic by using the default CoS value at the switch port.
C. The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress voice traffic. Data traffic will be marked at the switch port with the default CoS value.
D. The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress data traffic. Voice traffic will be marked at the switch port with the default CoS value.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A

QUESTION 19
A router has two paths to reach another network in a different autonomous system. Neither route was generated by the local router and both routes have the same default weight and local preference values. Which statement is true about how BGP would select the best path?
A. If the command bgp always-compare-med has been given, then the router will prefer the route with the highest MED.
B. The router will prefer the route with the lower MED.
C. The router will prefer the shortest autonomous system path.
D. To influence one route to be preferred, its default local preference value will be changed via the use of the command bgp default local-preference 50.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C

QUESTION 20
Which two statements about 6to4 tunneling are accurate? (Choose two.)
A. Prepending a reserved IPv6 code to the hexadecimal representation of 192.168.0.1 facilitates 6to4 tunneling.
B. Each 6to4 site receives a /48 prefix in a 6to4 tunnel.
C. 2002::/48 is the address range specifically assigned to 6to4.
D. Prepending 0x2002 with the IPv4 address creates an IPv6 address that is used in 6to4 tunneling.
E. 6to4 is a manual tunnel method.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, how would the BGP updates that

A. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent to routers R3 and R4. Routers R3 and R4 will then forward those BGP updates to router R5.
B. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will not be sent to routers R3 and R4.
C. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent directly to router R5.
D. None of the BGP updates that are received on router R2 will ever be received by router R5. Testinside
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:D

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. Router RTR is attempting to establish BGP neighbor relationships with routers RT1 and RT3. On the basis of the information that is presented in the exhibit, which two statements are true?

A. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.1 does not.
B. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.5 does not.
C. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.1 has an incorrect password set.
D. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.5 has an incorrect password set.
E. Neighbor 10.0.0.1 has a BGP password set but RTR does not.
F. Neighbor 10.0.0.5 has a BGP password set but RTR does not.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AD

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 and router RT-2 both advertise network 131.25.0.0/16 to router RT-3 via internal BGP. What is the reason that router RT-3 chose router RT-1 as its best path to network 131.25.0.0/16.

A. It advertises the best AS-path.
B. It advertises the best origin code.
C. It advertises the best MED.
D. It advertises the best local preference.
E. It has a better router ID.
F. It advertises a lower autonomous system.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: E

QUESTION 24
Which three of the following are features of the IS-IS routing protocol? (Choose three)
A. link-state routing protocol
B. inefficient use of bandwidth not appropriate for an ISP
C. supports VLSM
D. uses spanning tree algorithm for fast convergence
E. supports two routing levels within an autonomous system
F. operation is similar to BGP
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ACE

QUESTION 25
What is the MAC address that would be derived from the multicast address 239.255.0.1?
A. 01-00-5e-7f-00-01
B. 00-00-00-7f-00-01
C. 10-00-5e-7f-00-01
D. 10-00-ef-ff-00-01
E. 01-01-ef-ff-00-01
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct regarding the operation of NAT-PT between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks shown?

A. The router will determine the IPv4 destination address.
B. The source IPv6 host can use DNS to determine the IPv6-to-IPv4 address mapping.
C. The host is statically configured with the IPv6-to-IPv4 address mapping.
D. ICMP can be used to determine the IPv6-to-IPv4 address mapping.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. Which interoperability technique implemented on the router would allow Host-1 to communicate with Host-2?

A. Dual Stack
B. NAT-PT
C. 6to4 tunnel
D. GRE tunnel
E. ISATAP tunnel
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct regarding the routes to be redistributed into

A. The network 192.168.1.0 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 100.
B. The network 192.168.1.0 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
C. All networks except 10.0.0.0/8 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
D. The network 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
E. The network 10.0.10.0/24 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AD

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. This switch is the STP root bridge.
B. This switch is not the STP root bridge.
C. A spanning-tree loop exists in this network.
D. The default STP timers have been changed.
E. Port Fa0/11 is facing the root bridge.
F. Port Fa0/11 is facing away from the root bridge.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BE

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What additional commands should be used to configure OSPF area 5 as a T otally Stubby area?

QUESTION 31
A hacker is interested in seeing traffic from all switch ports on the switch that he is connected to, including the ports belonging to other VLANs. What type of attack is he likely to implement?
A. MAC address flooding
B. ARP attack
C. spoofing attack
D. DHCP attack
E. VLAN hopping
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A QUESTION 32

Which statement is true about OSPF Network LSAs?
A. They are originated by every router in the OPSF network. They include all routers on the link, interfaces, the cost of the link, and any known neighbor on the link.
B. They are originated by the DR on every multi-access network. They include all attached routers including the DR itself.
C. They are originated by Area Border Routers and are sent into a single area to advertise destinations outside that area.
D. They are originated by Area Border Router and are sent into a single area to advertise an Autonomous System Border Router.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on all routers in the network. Area 5 is configured as an NSSA area. The RIPv2 routes are redistributed into the OSPF domain on router R5. What two types of LSAs will

QUESTION 34
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three conditions must exist on TEST1 to cause this network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP .
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:CEF

QUESTION 35
What is a characteristic of a static VLAN membership assignment?
A. VMPS server lookup
B. easy to configure
C. ease of adds, moves, and changes
D. based on MAC address of the connected device
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B

QUESTION 36
Given the network diagram, which address would successfully summarize only the networks seen?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.8.0/20
C. 192.168.8.0/21
D. 192.168.12.0/20
E. 192.168.16.0/21
F. These networks cannot be summarized.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 37
Given the network diagram, which routers currently make up the IS-IS backbone?

A. R3,R4,R6
B. R3,R4,R5,R6
C. R2,R3,R6,R7
D. R2,R3,R4,R6,R7
E. R1 through R8
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D

QUESTION 38
Which statement is correct about 802.1Q trunking?
A. Both switches must be in the same VTP domain.
B. The encapsulation type on both ends of the trunk does not have to match.
C. The native VLAN on both ends of the trunk must be VLAN 1.
D. 802.1Q trunking can only be configured on a Layer 2 port.
E. In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: E QUESTION 39
Given the above diagram and assuming that STP is enabled on all switch devices, which two

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AD

QUESTION 40
Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.)
A. STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
B. A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C. To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay, max age) must be the same.
D. If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
E. On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
F. The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ABD QUESTION 41

Which command lists the system IDs of all known IS-IS routers?
A. show clns neighbors
B. show isis database
C. show isis topology
D. show clns neighbors detail
E. show is-is neighbors detail
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C

QUESTION 42
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R2, R3, R4, and R5 have OSPF enabled. What should be configured on the routers in area 1 to ensure that all default summary routes and redistributed EIGRP routes will be forwarded from R6 to area 1, and only a default route for all other OSPF routes will be forwarded from R5 to area 1.

QUESTION 43
Which two are characteristics of the IS-IS protocol but not OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. provides for network scalability by allowing the network to be separated into areas
B. provides routing support for multiple network layer protocols
C. three layers of hierarchical routing
D. utilizes SPF algorithm
E. forms adjacencies with all neighbors
F. supports demand circuit routing
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BE

QUESTION 44
Which three are benefits of IS-IS over OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. supports more routers in an area
B. does not require Hello packets to establish neighbor relationships
C. produces fewer link state advertisements for a given network
D. supports route tags
E. supports network layer protocols other than IP
F. requires fewer neighbor relationships in a broadcast multiaccess network
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ACE

QUESTION 45
Which two conditions can cause BGP neighbor establishment to fail? (Choose two.)
A. There is an access list blocking all TCP traffic between the two BGP neighbors.
B. The IBGP neighbor is not directly connected.
C. BGP synchronization is enabled in a transit autonomous system with fully-meshed IBGP neighbors.
D. The BGP update interval is different between the two BGP neighbors.
E. The BGP neighbor is referencing an incorrect autonomous system number in its neighbor statement.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AE

QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. All network links are FastEthernet. Although there is complete connectivity throughout the network, Front Line users have been complaining that they experience slower network performance when accessing the server farm than the Reception office experiences. Based on the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 4096 would improve network performance.
B. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 36864 would improve network performance.
C. Changing the bridge priority of S2 to 36864 would improve network performance.
D. Changing the bridge priority of S3 to 4096 would improve network performance.
E. Disabling the Spanning Tree Protocol would improve network performance.
F. Upgrading the link between S2 and S3 to Gigabit Ethernet would improve performance.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD

QUESTION 47
What is the effect of configuring the following command on a switch? Switch(config) # spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
A. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, then PortFast is disabled and the BPDUs are processed normally.
B. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, they are ignored and none are sent.
C. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for Portfast, the port will transition to forwarding state.
D. The command will enable BPDU filtering on all ports regardless of whether they are configured for BPDU filtering at the interface level.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A QUESTION 48

Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 228.10.10.7
B. 228.10.10.8
C. 228.10.138.7
D. 229.11.10.7
E. 229.138.10.7
F. 229.138.10.8
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AE

QUESTION 49
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit. What does the command channel-group 1 mode desirable do?

A. enables LACP unconditionally
B. enables PAgPonly if a PAgPdevice is detected
C. enables PAgPunconditionally
D. enables Etherchannel only
E. enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C

QUESTION 51
Which two statements about multicast addressing are true? (Choose two.)
A. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 24 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
B. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 1.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
E. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
F. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD

QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D

QUESTION 53
Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. In the IS-IS routing domain, routers may have adjacencies with other routers on multipoint links.
B. IS-IS metrics are based on delay, bandwidth, reliability,load, and MTU.
C. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the areas that the routers are connected to.
D. Level 2 routers are equivalent to ABRs in OSPF and learn about paths both within and between areas.
E. Level 1 and Level 2 routing is a function of ES-IS.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AC

QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit. Autonomous systems 200 and 300 have EBGP sessions established with their directly connected routers in autonomous system 100. IGP has been configured on all routers in autonomous system 100 and they successfully exchange routing updates. Traffic originated in autonomous system 200 cannot reach the destination autonomous system 300. What configuration should be done on the routers in autonomous system 100 in order for the traffic coming from autonomous system 200 to be forwarded to autonomous system 300?

A. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 and R3, and the synchronization must be turned on.
B. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 and R3, and the synchronization must be turned off.
C. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 R2 and R2 R3, and the synchronization must be turned on.
D. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 R2 and R2 R3, and the synchronization must be turned off.
E. IBGP speakers within autonomous 100 must be fully meshed, and the synchronization must be turned on.
F. IBGP speakers within autonomous 100 must be fully meshed, and the synchronization must be turned off.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: F

QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are IPv6 BGP peers that have been configured to support a neighbor relationship over an IPv4 internetwork. Which three neighbor IP addresses are valid choices to use in the highlighted section of the exhibit? (Choose three.)

A. ::0A43:0002
B. 0A43:0002::
C. ::10.67.0.2
D. 10.67.0.2::
E. 0:0:0:0:0:0:10.67.0.2
F. 10.67.0.2:0:0:0:0:0:0
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ACE

QUESTION 56
An IPv6 overlay tunnel is required to communicate with isolated IPv6 networks across an IPv4 infrastructure. There are currently five IPv6 overlay tunnel types. Which three IPv6 overlay tunnel statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Overlay tunnels can only be configured between border routers capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
B. Overlay tunnels can be configured between border routers or between a border router and a host capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
C. Cisco IOS supports manual, generic routing encapsulation (GRE), IPv6-compatible, 4to6, and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) overlay tunneling mechanisms.
D. Cisco IOS supports manual, generic routing encapsulation (GRE), IPv4-compatible, 6to4, and Intra-Site Automatic TunnelAddressing Protocol (ISATAP)overlay tunneling mechanisms.
E. A manual overlay tunnel supports point-to-multipoint tunnels capable of carrying IPv6 and Connectionless Network Service (CLNS) packets.
F. Overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv6 packets in IPv4 packets for delivery across an IPv4 infrastructure.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:Answer:BDF

QUESTION 57
Which statement describes the difference between a manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel versus an automatic 6to4 tunnel?
A. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations.
B. An automatic 6to4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations.
C. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel endpoints.
D. An automatic 6to4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel endpoints.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B

QUESTION 58
Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS is capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
B. IS-IS is only capable of supporting IPv4 and CLNS.
C. IS-IS routers use ES-IS hellos (ESH) to establish and to maintain neighbor relationships.
D. IS-IS routers run the Bellman-Ford algorithm against their LSDBs to pick the best paths.
E. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the area of which they are a part.
F. Level 2 routers learn about paths both within areas and between areas.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AE

Exam E QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?

Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp
command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided.
(Choose two.)

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are limited scoped addresses that have been reserved for OSPF.
E. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses 224.0.1.1 and 238.1.1.1 could not be used together.
E. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
F. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.)
A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Which two multicast protocol statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
B. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
C. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
E. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11

Which command enables OSPF for IPv6?
A. router ospf process-id
B. ipv6 ospf process-id
C. ipv6 router ospf process-id
D. router ospf ipv6 process-id
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a voice VLAN?

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust
cos on the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?

A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect when the switchport priority extend cos 3 command is configured
on the switch port interface connected to the IP phone?

QUESTION 15
Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP.
D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
E. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point.
F. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose
three.)
A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
E. PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured.
F. The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
In what three ways is QoS applied in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. No traffic marking occurs at the core layer. Layer 2/3 QoS tags are trusted from distribution layer switches and used to prioritize and queue the traffic as it traverses the core.
B. IP precedence, DSCP, QoS group, IP address, and ingress interface are Layer 2 characteristics that are set by the access layer as it passes traffic to the distribution layer. The distribution layer, once it has made a switching decision to the core layer, strips these off.
C. MAC address, Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS), the ATM cell loss priority (CLP) bit, the Frame Relay discard eligible (DE) bit, and ingress interface are established by the voice submodule (distribution layer) as traffic passes to the core layer.
D. The distribution layer inspects a frame to see if it has exceeded a predefined rate of traffic within a certain time frame, which is typically a fixed number internal to the switch. If a frame is determined to be in excess of the predefined rate limit, the CoS value can be marked up in a way that results in the packet being dropped.
E. The access layer is the initial point at which traffic enters the network. Traffic is marked (or remarked) at Layers 2 and 3 by the access switch as it enters the network, or is “trusted” that it is entering the network with the appropriate tag.
F. Traffic inbound from the access layer to the distribution layer can be trusted or reset depending upon the ability of the access layer switches. Priority access into the core is provided based on Layer 3 QoS tags.
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19

Which two Aironet enterprise solution statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A Cisco Aironet AP handles the transmission of beacon frames and also handles responses to probe-request frames from clients.
B. A Cisco Aironet solution includes intelligent Cisco Aironet access points (APs) and Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. In the Cisco Aironet solution, each AP is locally configured by the use of either a web interface or the command line interface.
D. The Cisco Aironet AP handles real-time portions of the LWAPP protocol, and the WLAN controller handles those items which are not time sensitive.
E. Virtual MAC architecture allows the splitting of the 802.11 protocol between the Cisco Aironet AP and a LAN switch.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) is true?
A. LWAPP encrypts control traffic between the AP and the controller.
B. LWAPP encrypts user traffic with a x.509 certificate using AES-CCMP.
C. LWAPP encrypts both control traffic and user data.
D. When set to Layer 3, LWAPP uses a proprietary protocol to communicate with the Cisco Aironet APs.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements accurately describe this GLBP topology? (Choose three.)

A. Router A is responsible for answering ARP requests sent to the virtual IP address.
B. If Router A becomes unavailable, Router B will forward packets sent to the virtual MAC address of Router A.
C. If another router were added to this GLBP group, there would be two backup AVGs.
D. Router B is in GLBP listen state.
E. Router A alternately responds to ARP requests with different virtual MAC addresses.
F. Router B will transition from blocking state to forwarding state when it becomes the AVG.

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. Which Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) statement is true about the
roles of the master virtual router and the backup virtual router?

A. Router A is the master virtual router, and Router B is the backup virtual router. When Router A fails, Router B will become the master virtual router. When Router A recovers, Router B will maintain the role of master virtual router.
B. Router A is the master virtual router, and Router B is the backup virtual router. When Router A fails, Router B will become the master virtual router. When Router A recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.
C. Router B is the master virtual router, and Router A is the backup virtual router. When Router B fails, Router A will become the master virtual router. When Router B recovers, Router A will maintain the role of master virtual router.
D. Router B is the master virtual router, and Router A is the backup virtual router. When Router B fails, Router A will become the master virtual router. When Router B recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
Which issue or set of issues does the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) address?
A. reduction of processing in wireless controllers
B. distributed approach to authentication, encryption, and policy enforcement
C. provides security by blocking communication between access points and wireless clients
D. access point discovery, information exchange, and configuration
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)
Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about trust boundaries in the campus network? (Choose three.)

A. A device is trusted if it correctly classifies packets.
B. A device is trusted if it correctly declassifies packets.
C. The outermost trusted devices represent the trust boundary.
D. Classification and marking occur using 802.1ab QoS bits before reaching the trust boundary.
E. Network trust boundaries are automatically configured in IOS version 12.3 and later.
F. For scalability, classification should be done as close to the edge as possible.
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. The command spanning-tree bpdufilter enable is configured on interface Fa0/1 on

A. Fifty percent of the traffic will successfully reach Host B, and fifty percent will dead-end at switch S3 because of a partial spanning-tree loop.
B. No. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S2 and dead-end at S2.
C. No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switch S6 and Host A.
D. No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switches S2 and S3.
E. Yes. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S2 to S1.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Client Adapter has been installed and configured through the ADU on the PC. The Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) has been enabled during the installation and the icon appears in the system tray area in the lower right of the desktop. What is the significance of the icon?

A. It indicates that the radio of the client adapter is disabled.
B. It indicates that the client adapter is not associated to an access point or another client.
C. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, but the user is not EAP authenticated.
D. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is excellent or good.
E. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is fair.
F. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is poor.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
What are three required steps to configure DHCP snooping on a switch? (Choose three.)
A. Configure DHCP snooping globally.
B. Configure DHCP snooping on an interface.
C. Configure DHCP snooping on a VLAN or range of VLANs.
D. Configure the switch as a DHCP server.
E. Configure all interfaces as DHCP snooping trusted interfaces.
F. Configure the switch to insert and remove DHCP relay information (option-82 field) in forwarded DHCP request messages.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
A client is searching for an access point (AP). What is the correct process order that the client and
access point go through to create a connection?
A. probe request/response, authentication request/response, association request/response
B. association request/response, authentication request/response, probe request/response
C. probe request/response, association request/response, authentication request/response
D. association request/response, probe request/response, authentication request/response
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Which two statements are true about voice VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. Voice VLANs are only used when connecting an IP phone and a host to distinct switch ports.
B. Access ports that are configured with voice VLANs will always trust the CoS that is received from IP phones.
C. Access ports that are configured with voice VLANs may or may not override the CoS value that is received from an IP phone.
D. Voice VLANs are configured using the switchport voice vlan vlan-ID interface configuration command.
E. Voice VLANs provide a trunking interface between an IP phone and an access port on a switch to allow traffic from multiple devices that are connected to the port.
F. Enabling Voice VLAN on a switch port will automatically configure the port to trust the incoming CoS markings.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Which two types of activities does the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) define? (Choose
two.)
A. access point certification and software control
B. compression and Layer 3 address mapping
C. Layer 3 addressing and distribution
D. packet encapsulation, fragmentation, and formatting
E. SNMP monitoring services

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) protocol is true?
A. The processing of 802.11 data and management protocols and access point capabilities is distributed between a lightweight access point and a centralized WLAN controller.
B. LWAPP aggregates radio management forward information and sends it to a wireless LAN solution engine.
C. LWAPP authenticates all access points in the subnet and establishes a secure communication channel with each of them.
D. LWAPP advertises its WDS capability and participates in electing the best WDS device for the wireless LAN.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Which statement describes the function of a trust boundary?
A. Trust boundaries determine whether certain types of traffic can pass.
B. Trust boundaries are a point in the network where decisions about CoS markings on incoming packets are made.
C. Trust boundaries are a point in the network where QoS functionality begins and ends.
D. Trust boundaries are points in the network where Layer 2 CoS markings are converted to Layer 3 DSCP or IP precedence markings.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
Which two statements about voice VLANs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Voice VLANs eliminate the need for QoS configuration.
B. Voice VLANs are used on trunk links to eliminate the need for QoS CoS markings.
C. Voice VLANs are mainly used to reduce the number of access switch ports that are used in the network.
D. Voice VLANs can be configured to forward existing CoS priorities or override them.
E. Voice VLANs are mainly used between access layer switches and distribution layer switches.
F. Voice VLANs can be configured on Layer 2 ports only.
Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch interface configuration command would automatically configure
quality of service (QoS) for voice over IP (VoIP) within a QoS domain?

A. auto qos voip cisco-phone
B. mls qos trust
C. switchport priority extend cos 7
D. switchport priority extend trust

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. Which Catalyst switch interface command would be used to cause the switch to instruct the phone to override the incoming CoS from the PC before forwarding the packet to the switch?

A. switchport priority extend trust
B. switchport priority extend cos 2
C. switchport priority extend cos 11
D. mls qos cos 2
E. mls qos cos 2 override
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is enabled on switch SW_A only. Both Host_A and
Host_B acquire their IP addresses from the DHCP server connected to switch SW_A. What would the
outcome be if Host_B initiated an ARP spoof attack toward Host_A ?

A. The spoof packets will be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be permitted.
B. The spoof packets will be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be dropped.
C. The spoof packets will not be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be permitted.
D. The spoof packets will not be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be dropped.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
On an Aironet card, LED 0 and LED 1 are blinking alternately. What does this indicate?
A. The Aironet card is in power save mode.
B. The Aironet card is looking for a network association.
C. The Aironet card is joined to a network, but there is no network activity.
D. The Aironet card is joined to a network, and there is network activity.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. Which two Lightweight Access Point statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. An AP that has been upgraded from an autonomous AP to lightweight AP will only function in conjunction with a Cisco Wireless LAN controller.
B. Autonomous APs receive control and configuration information from a WLAN controller.
C. LWAPP increases the amount of processing within the APs, enabling them to support filtering and policy enforcement features.
D. Real time events such as authentication, security management, and mobility are handled by the lightweight AP.
E. Lightweight APs require local configurations using local management.
F. WLAN controllers provide a single point of management.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
Which two WLAN client utility statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. In a Windows XP environment, a client adapter can only be configured and managed with the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to enable or disable the adapter radio and to configure LEAP authentication with dynamic WEP.
C. The Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can both be enabled at the same time to setup WLAN client cards.
D. The Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be configured to display the Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) icon in the Windows system tray.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is being used as a relay device for autoconfiguration of switch S1. Which configuration will accomplish this?

A. S1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 S1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.0.0.2
B. S1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 S1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
C. R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.2 R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.3

R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.4 R1(config-if)# exit R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.0.0.1
D. R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1 R2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1 R3(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R3(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1 R4(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R4(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
E. S1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 S1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.0.0.2 R2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1 R3(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R3(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
R4(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R4(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
Which statement is true about Layer 2 security threats?
A. MAC spoofing, in conjunction with ARP snooping, is the most effective counter-measure against reconnaissance attacks that use dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) to determine vulnerable attack points.
B. DHCP snooping sends unauthorized replies to DHCP queries.
C. ARP spoofing can be used to redirect traffic to counter dynamic ARP inspection.
D. Dynamic ARP inspection in conjunction with ARP spoofing can be used to counter DHCP snooping attacks.
E. MAC spoofing attacks allow an attacking device to receive frames intended for a different network host.
F. Port scanners are the most effective defense against dynamic ARP inspection.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Adapter CB21AG is inserted into a PC cardbus slot. Both the green
status LED and the amber activity LED are blinking slowly. What is the condition of the adapter?
A. The adapter is not receiving power.
B. The adapter is in power save mode.
C. The adapter is scanning for the wireless network for which it is configured.
D. The adapter is associated to an access point or another client.
E. The adapter is transmitting or receiving data while associated to an access point or another client.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
What does the global configuration command ip arp inspection vlan 10-12,15 accomplish?
A. validates outgoing ARP requests for interfaces configured on VLAN 10, 11, 12, or 15
B. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports
C. intercepts, logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings
D. discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings on trusted ports
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit. The wireless user is moving from right to left towards AP2. What are three reasons that the wireless client would initiate roaming? (Choose three.)

A. The client has missed too many beacons from AP1.
B. The client has received too many beacons from AP2.
C. The client data rate from AP1 has been reduced.
D. The client data rate from AP2 has been increased.
E. The maximum data retry count from AP1 is exceeded.
F. The minimum data retry count from AP1 is exceeded.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
Which two statements about WLAN components are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Aironet autonomous access points cannot be supported by the Cisco Unified Wireless Network.
B. Cisco Aironet lightweight access points cannot be supported by the Cisco Unified Wireless Network.
C. In the autonomous access point solution, control is provided by the Wireless Domain Services (WDS).
D. In the autonomous access point solution, control is provided by the WLAN controller.
E. In the lightweight access point solution, WLAN management is provided by the WLAN Solution Engine (WLSE).
F. In the lightweight access point solution, WLAN management is provided by the WLAN Control System (WCS).
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
Which two statements about voice traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. Voice packets are typically around 60 to 120 bytes.
B. Voice packets are typically around 600 to 1200 bytes.
C. Voice packets are typically around 60 to 120 KB.
D. For voice quality, packet loss should be less than 1 percent and delay should be no more than 150 ms.
E. For voice quality, packet loss should be less than 2 percent and delay should be no more than 250 ms.
F. A typical voice call requires 17 kbps to 106 kbps of guaranteed priority bandwidth plus an additional 15 kbps per call for voice-control traffic.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
What are three characteristics of the wireless repeater topology? (Choose three.)
A. Lightweight access points are required.
B. Autonomous access points are required.
C. The recommended overlap of the access point on the wired LAN and the wireless repeater is 50%.
D. The recommended overlap of the access point on the wired LAN and the wireless repeater is 25%.
E. The SSID of the root access point must be configured on the repeater access point.
F. The SSID of the root access point must be distinct from that of the repeater access point.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. What radio button option on the Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) Security tab includes
the option of Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) and Extensible Authentication Protocol-Flexible
Authentication via Secure Tunneling?

A. WPA/WPA2/CCKM
B. WPA/WPA2 Passphrase
C. 802.1x
D. Pre-Shared Key (Static WEP)

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
What are two methods of mitigating MAC address flooding attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Place unused ports in a common VLAN.
B. Implement private VLANs.
C. Implement DHCP snooping.
D. Implement port security.
E. Implement VLAN access maps.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam F

QUESTION 1 lab Answer:AB

A. ALswitch#conf t ALswitch(config)#vtp mode client ALswitch(config)#vtp domain CISCO ALswitch(config)#end ALswitch#copy run start DLswitch#conf t DLswitch(config)#vtp mode server DLswitch(config)#vtp domain CISCO DLswitch(config)#vlan 20 DLswitch(config-vlan)#vlan 21 DLswitch(config-vlan)#exit DLswitch(config)#int vlan 20 DLswitch(config-if)#ip add 172.64.200.1 255.255.255.0 DLswitch(config-if)#int vlan 21
B. DLswitch(config-if)#ip add 192.162.39.1 255.255.255.0 DLswitch(config-if)#exit DLswitch(config)#ip routing DLswitch(config)#end DLswitch#copy run start
C.
D.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:AB
QUESTION 2

A. ALswitch#conf t ALswitch(config)#vtp mode client ALswitch(config)#vtp domain CISCO ALswitch(config)#end ALswitch#copy run start DLswitch#conf t DLswitch(config)#vtp mode server DLswitch(config)#vtp domain CISCO DLswitch(config)#vlan 20 DLswitch(config-vlan)#vlan 21 DLswitch(config-vlan)#exit DLswitch(config)#int vlan 20
DLswitch(config-if)#ip add 172.64.200.1 255.255.255.0 DLswitch(config-if)#int vlan 21
DLswitch(config-if)#ip add 192.162.39.1 255.255.255.0
DLswitch(config-if)#exit DLswitch(config)#ip routing DLswitch(config)#end DLswitch#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3

A. ASW1#conf t ASW1(config)#aaa new-model ASW1(config)#radius-server host 172.120.39.46 key rad123 ASW1(config)#aaa authentication dot1x default group radius ASW1(config)#dot1x system-auth-control ASW1(config)#int f0/1 ASW1(config-if)#switchport mode access ASW1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 ASW1(config-if)#dot1x port-control auto ASW1(config-if)#end
ASW1#copy run start DSW1#conf t DSW1(config)#ip access-list standard 10 DSW1(config-std-nacl)#permit 172.120.40.0 0.0.0.255 DSW1(config-std-nacl)#exit
DSW1(config)#vlan access-map PASS 10
DSW1(config-access-map)#match ip address 10 DSW1(config-access-map)#action forward DSW1(config-access-map)#exit DSW1(config)#vlan access-map PASS 20 DSW1(config-access-map)#action drop DSW1(config-access-map)#exit DSW1(config)#vlan filter PASS vlan-list 20 DSW1(config)#end DSW1#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4

A. R2(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1 R2(config-router)#area 11 virtual-link 3.3.3.3 R2(config-router)#end R2#copy run start R3(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1 R3(config-router)#area 11 virtual-link 2.2.2.2 R3(config-router)#no area 54 virtual-link 4.4.4.4
R3(config-router)#end R3#copy run start R4(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1 R4(config-router)#no area 54 virtual-link 3.3.3.3 R4(config-router)#end
R4#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5

A. DSW1#conf t DSW1(config)#spanning-tree vlan 20 priority 61440 DSW1(config)#int g1/0/5 DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree vlan 40 cost 1 DSW1(config-if)#exit DSW1(config)#int g1/0/6 DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree vlan 30 port-priority 64 DSW1(config-if)#end DSW1#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6

A. R3#conf t R3(config)#router eigrp 123 R3(config-router)#no eigrp stub receive-only R3(config-router)#eigrp stub R3(config-router)#end
R3#copy run start R4#conf t R4(config)#int s0/0 R4(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp 123 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0
R4(config-if)#no shut R4(config-if)#end R4#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7

A. Blockade#conf t
Blockade(config)#router isis Blockade(config-router)#redistribut eigrp 100 level-1 metric 50 Blockade(config-router)#router eigrp 100 Blockade(config-router)#redistribut isis level-1 metric 512 10 255 1 1500 Blockade(config-router)#redistribut connected Blockade(config-router)#end Blockade#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)
Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
LAB1:

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
LAB2:

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
LAB3:

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
LAB4:

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
LAB5:

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
LAB6

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
LAB7:

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15

A. ASW1#conf t
ASW1(config)#aaa new-model ASW1(config)#radius-server host 172.120.39.46 key rad123 ASW1(config)#aaa authentication dot1x default group radius ASW1(config)#dot1x system-auth-control ASW1(config)#int f0/1
ASW1(config-if)#switchport mode access ASW1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 ASW1(config-if)#dot1x port-control auto ASW1(config-if)#end ASW1#copy run start DSW1#conf t DSW1(config)#ip access-list standard 10 DSW1(config-std-nacl)#permit 172.120.40.0 0.0.0.255 DSW1(config-std-nacl)#exit DSW1(config)#vlan access-map PASS 10 DSW1(config-access-map)#match ip address 10 DSW1(config-access-map)#action forward DSW1(config-access-map)#exit DSW1(config)#vlan access-map PASS 20 DSW1(config-access-map)#action drop DSW1(config-access-map)#exit DSW1(config)#vlan filter PASS vlan-list 20 DSW1(config)#end DSW1#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16

A. R2(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1 R2(config-router)#area 11 virtual-link 3.3.3.3 R2(config-router)#end R2#copy run start R3(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1 R3(config-router)#area 11 virtual-link 2.2.2.2 R3(config-router)#no area 54 virtual-link 4.4.4.4 R3(config-router)#end R3#copy run start R4(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1
R4(config-router)#no area 54 virtual-link 3.3.3.3 R4(config-router)#end R4#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17

Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18

A. R3#conf t R3(config)#router eigrp 123 R3(config-router)#no eigrp stub receive-only R3(config-router)#eigrp stub R3(config-router)#end R3#copy run start R4#conf t R4(config)#int s0/0 R4(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp 123 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 R4(config-if)#no shut R4(config-if)#end R4#copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam G QUESTION 1
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam H

QUESTION 1
-DS1( Distribute switch 1)is the primary device for Vlan 101, 102, 105 -DS2 ( Distribute switch 2)is the primary device for Vlan 103 and 104

During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shutdown G1/0/1 on DS1. All otherinterface were up. During this time, DS1 remained the active device for Vlan 102’s HSRP group. You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track command in Vlan 102’s HSRP group. What need to be done to make the group function properly ?
A. The DS1’s decrement value should be configured with a value from 5 to 15
B. The DS1’s decrement value should be configured with a value from9 to 15
C. The DS1’s decrement value should be configured with a value from11 to 18
D. The DS1’s decrement value should be configured with a value from 195 to less than 205
E. The DS1’s decrement value should be configured with a value from200 to less than 205

F. The DS1’s decrement value should be greater than190 and less200
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

Use “show run” command to show. The left Vlan102 is console1of DS1. Priority value is 200, we should decrement value in the track command from 11 to 18. Because 200 – 11 = 189 < 190 ( priority of Vlan102 on DS2 ).

QUESTION 2 During routine maintenance, G1/0/1 on DS1 was shutdown. All otherinterface were up. DS2 became the active HSRP device for Vlan101 as desired. However, after G1/0/1 on DS1 was reactivated. DS1 did notbecome the active HSRP device as desired. What need to be done to make the group for Vlan101 function properly ?

A.    Enable preempt on DS1’s Vlan101 HSRP group
B.    Disable preempt on DS1’s Vlan101 HSRP group
C.    Decrease DS1’s priority value for Vlan101 HSRP group to a value that is less than priority value configured onDS2’s HSRP group for Vlan101

D. Decrease the decrement in the track command for DS1’s Vlan 101 HSRP group to a value less than the value in the track command for DS2’s Vlan 101 HSRP group.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

A is correct. All other answers is incorrect. Because Vlan101 on DS1 ( left ) disable preempt. We need enable preempt to after it reactive , it will be active device. If not this command, it never become active device.
QUESTION 3 DS2 has not become the active device for Vlan103’s HSRP group even though allinterfaces are active. As related to Vlan103’s HSRP group. What can be done to make the group function properly ?

A.    On DS1, disable preempt
B.    On DS1, decrease the priority value to a value less than 190 and greater than 150
C.    On DS2, increase the priority value to a value greater 241 andless than 249

D. On DS2, increase the decrement value in the track command to a value greater than 10 and less than50.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
( update soon ….)
QUESTION 4

If G1/0/1 on DS1 is shutdown, what will be the current priority value of the Vlan105’s group on DS1 ?
A. 95

B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

Priority is configured 150, Track is 55. So, if shutdown interface G1/0/1 –> 150 – 55 = 95.
QUESTION 5

What is the configured priority value of the Vlan105’s group on DS2 ?
A. 50

B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

Use “show stantby brieft” command on console2 . Very easy to see priority of Vlan105 is 100.
QUESTION 6

During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shutdown G1/0/1 on DS1 and DS2. All otherinterface were up.During this time, DS1 became the active device for Vlan104’s HSRP group. As related to Vlan104’s HSRP group. What can be done to make the group function properly ?
A. On DS1, disable preempt
B. On DS2, decrease the priority value to a value less than 150
C. On DS1, increase the decrement value in the track command to a value greater than 6

D. On DS1, disable track command.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

We should NOT disable preempt on DS1. By do that, you will make Vlan104’s HSRP group fail function. Example: if we are disable preempt on DS1. It can not become active device when G1/0/1 on DS2 fail. In this question, G0/1/0 on DS1 & DS2is shutdown. Vlan104 (left) : 150 – 1 = 149. Vlan104 (right) : 200 – 155 = 145.Result is priority 149 > 145 ( Vlan104 on DS1 is active). If increase the decrement in the track value to a value greater than 6 ( > or= 6). Vlan104 (left) : 150 – 6 = 144. Result is priority 144 < 145 ( vlan104 on DS2 is active).

QUESTION 7 Which statement is correct about the use of the virtual interface on a WLC :

A. Used to relay DHCP messages
B. Used to communicate with LAPs
C. Used to bring up LWAPP tunnels
D. Used to extend into the wireless client VLAN
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam I

QUESTION 1
The company and the company network have both been growing rapidly. Multiple adds, moves and changes have been applied to the network. Your boss at Certkiller .com, Miss Certkiller, has asked you to troubleshoot a recent OSPF synchronization problem that has arisen. There have been synchronization problems at separate locations in the OSPF area 0. There have been reported link failures during the rapid growth of the company network. You are required to resolve the OSPF problem. OSPF must be able to converge when the network changes. Refer to the information above to answer the following 4 questions:

Examine the following excerpt from the “show ip ospf” command on Certkiller A:
Area BACKBONE (0)
Number of interfaces in the this area is 1 Area has no authentication SPF algorithm last executed 00:00:31.280 ago SPF algorithm executed 5 times Area ranges are Number of LSA 13. Checksum Sum 0x16F0FD Number of opaque link LSA 0. Checksum Sum 0x000000 Number of DCbitless LSA 0 Number of indication LSA 0 Number of DoNotAge LSA 0 Flood list length 0

Area 16
Number of interfaces in this area is 2 Area has message digest authentication SPF algorithm last executed 00:00:34.928 ago SPF algorithm executed 7 times Area ranges are Number of LSA 5. Checksum Sum 0x02FCD3 Number of opaque link LSA 0. Checksum Sum 0x000000 Number of DCbitless LSA 0 Number of indication LSA 0 Number of DoNotAge LSA 0 Flood list length 0

Based on the information shown above, what is most likely causing the different missing routes throughout the network?
A. Area 16 is configured with authentication.
B. Area 16 has been configured to use the same interfaces as Area 0.
C. Area 0 and Area 32 have been configured with mismatched LSA numbers.
D. Area 16 has been configured as a total stub network
E. Area 16 has been configured as a stub network
F. Area 0 is discontiguous.
G. None of the above

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
In this example, Certkiller1 shows that it only has 1 interface in area 0, while the network diagram shows that there should be two. This means that the Fa0/1 link is most likely gone down, creating a discontiguous backbone area. The link needs to be restored, or a virtual link needs to be created to fix this.
QUESTION 2

configuration command on Certkiller1 (with a similar command on Certkiller 2) will provide an immediate solution to the missing route problem?
A. no area 16 stub
B. no area 16 authentication message-digest
C. area 16 virtual-link 8.187.175.82
D. area 16 virtual-link 172.16.4.2
E. no area 16 stub no-summary
F. network 172.16.0.0.0.0.255.255 area 16
G. None of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
A virtual link to an IP address (the loopback IP address in this case) on device Certkiller2 needs to be created. Similarly,Certkiller2 needs to also have this configured so that a virtual link to area 0 from area 16 can be created

QUESTION 3 The log of Certkiller1 reports the following:

%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to down %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to down %OSPF-5-ADJCHG: Process 1, Nbr 8.187.175.82/32 on FasstEthernet0/1 from FULL to DOWN, Neighbor Down: Interface down or detached This event was anticipated due to maintenance; however, it resulted in excessive lost routes. Which route should be the only one removed from the routing tables of the routers?
A. 8.187.175.82/32
B. 10.138.43.0/30
C. 10.206.180.0/30
D. 4.249.113.59/32
E. 10.201.0.0/30
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The FastEthernet 0/1 link was the only physical link that went down, so in this case the network administrator had meant to only remove the 10.201.1.10/30 route associated with that link. However, the loopback IP address of Certkiller2 is 8.187.175.82/32, which means that the neighbor relationship is down. When the FE 0/1 interface goes down, area 0 will effectively be cut in half creating a discontiguous backbone area.
QUESTION 4 The Certkiller 2 Router has lost connectivity to Certkiller 1. The following is Certkiller 1’s current route table:

172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 3 subnets, 2 masks O IA 172.16.240.0/24 [110/11] via 10.218.67.1, 00:00:03, FastEthernet0/0 O IA 172.16.209.0/24 [110/12] via 10.218.67.1, 00:00:03, FastEthernet0/0 O IA 172.16.4.0/30 [110/2] via 10.218.67.1, 00:00:03, FastEthernet0/0 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 10.218.67.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

Which expected route is missing from Certkiller 1’s route table based on the topology during the maintenance period?’
A. o 172.16.0.0 [110/2] via 10.218.67.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
B. o IA 9.152.105.122 [110/3] via 10.218.67.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
C. o IA 10.138.0.0 [110/3] via 10.218.67.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
D. o IA 10.249.0.0 [110/2] via 10.218.67.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
E. o IA 4.249.113.59 [110/2] via 10.218.67.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
F. o 8.187.175.82 [110/3] via 10.218.67.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
In this case, the missing route is the route to the loopback IP address of Certkiller 2. This loopback IP address was used for the virtual link, which was needed when the backbone area became discontiguous. If this route was missing, the virtual link would then go down and cause the additional routes to be missing.
Exam J QUESTION 1

You study the network topology carefully, see exhibit. Then you connect to theSW-c ; issue the show spanning tree command. Please refer to the exhibit for the output. You are then required to answer the scenario questions using the information that is available.

Which spanning Tree Protocol has been implemented on SW-B?
A. STP/IEEE 802.1D
B. MSTP/IEEE 802.1s
C. PVST+
D. PVRST
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
802.1D has not been implemented since this is CST (Common Spanning Tree) which only allows one instance to be run at a time per Network. In this scenario there are multiple instances. It must be PVST+ since each instance only contains one VLAN.
QUESTION 2

Which bridge ID belongs to SW-B?
A. 32928 000d bd33 029b
B. 24623 000f 34f5 039b
C. 32928 000d bd03 029b
D. 32768 000d bd33 029b
E. 32769 000d 65db 01dd
F. 32815 000d bd03 029b

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Root ports are ports that point to the Root Bridge. In the exhibit, under VLAN 47 we see that fa0/2 is a root port for VLAN 47. Since we assume that all paths have equal cost we can gather that the root ports destination is the root bridge itself. In this case the Root Bridge for VLAN 47 isSW-B and according the exhibit the MAC address is 24623 000f 34f5 039b
QUESTION 3

Which port role has interface Fa0/2 ofSW-A adopted for VLAN 47?
A. Root port
B. Nondesigned port
C. Designated port
D. Backup port
E. Alternate port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Refer to Explanation for previous question. So far we know thatSW-B is the Root Bridge for VLAN 47. We also see thatSW-C is using fa0/2 as its root port. ThereforeSW-A will use fa0/1 for its Root port and fa0/2 will be designated since fa0/1 onSW-C is blocking. Note: If one segment of SPT is in blocking statusthe distantend port is not. Otherwise BPDUs could not be transmitted and would negate the redundancy.
QUESTION 4

Which port state is interface Fa0/2 ofSW-B in for VLANs 1 and 160?
A. Listening
B. Learning
C. Disabled
D. Blocking
E. Forwarding
F. Discarding

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
For VLAN 1 and 160 we can conclude that the Root Bridge is SW-A. With this in mindSW-B will use fa0/1 for its root port and block the other since the Cost will be lower. In this case it will block fa0/2 for both VLANs (and most likely fa0/3 also sinceSW-D is using fa0/1 as its root port).
QUESTION 5

Which bridge ID belongs to SW-A?
A. 32928 000d bd33 029b
B. 24623 000f 34f5 039b
C. 32928 000d bd03 029b
D. 32768 000d bd33 029b
E. 32769 000d 65db 01dd
F. 32815 000d bd03 029b

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
We see that in VLAN 1 and VLAN 160 that fa0/1 is the root port on SW-C. Aspreviously discussed we know that root ports point to the root bridge and assuming equal cost from switch to root and the fact that no other port is root for either VLAN thatSW-A is the Root Bridge and we can gleen the information for the exhibit which list the Bridge’s VLAN.
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QUESTION 85
Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true about the IS-IS configuration? (Choose two.)

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. The router is in area 49.0001.0002.
B. The router has a system ID of 0003.0004.
C. The router acts as a Level 1-2 router.
D. The network service access point selector (NSEL) byte has a value of 0. E. CLNS routing is enabled for the router.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the IS-IS configurations of router R1 and router R2 are correct? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. The IS-IS Level 2 metric that is assigned on the serial interface of router R2 is over three times the default value.
B. Router R1 sends only Level 1 hellos out the interface that is connected to R2.
C. Router R2 sends only Level 2 hellos out the interface that is connected to R1.
D. Router R1 is configured as a Level 1-2 router.
E. Router R2 has the same metric value assigned for Level 1 and Level 2 on the serial interface.
F. The network entity titles (NETs) that are configured on L1 and L2 are incompatible.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, what two conclusions can be reached? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Three physical interfaces are taking part in integrated IS-IS.
B. Address summarization is configured.
C. There are two neighboring routers sending IS-IS routing information.
D. The default administrative distance has been changed.
E. IS-IS is not redistributing any other routing protocols.
F. IS-IS is not enabled.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which three options are supported as address allocation mechanisms for DHCP on Cisco routers? (Choose three.)
A. The IP address can be automatically assigned to a host.
B. The IP address can be assigned as a random hash value of the burned-in-address of the lowest-numbered LAN interface on the router.
C. The network administrator can assign a specific IP address to a specific host MAC address.
D. The IP address can be assigned from configured pools in a reverse lexicographical order.
E. The IP address can be assigned to a host for a limited time or until the host explicitly releases the address. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
F. The IP address can be assigned to a host until the host usurps the assigned value using its own dynamic override mechanism.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be made based on the DHCP configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The second DNS server configured will never be queried.
B. The first IP address assigned by DHCP is 172.16.0.1.
C. The IP address of the default router is used for DHCP relay.
D. The DHCP clients learn the excluded address ranges that area configured.
E. The configured domain name is propagated to the DHCP clients.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the configuration?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Hosts will receive IP settings from pool 1 until the addresses run out, and then hosts will receive the settings from pool 2.
B. Hosts belonging to DHCP pool 1 and pool 2 will retain their IP settings for 30 hours before they must renew.
C. Hosts in the 10.10.20.0/24 subnet will use 10.10.20.50 as its DNS server.
D. DHCP pool 0 needs to have the ip dhcp excluded-address command to exclude the default router and DNS servers.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is reflected in the output that is displayed in the exhibit?

A. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco in ! access-list 66 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set local-preference 90 PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco out ! access-list 66 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set metric 90
C. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco out ! access-list 66 permit 10.30.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set metric 90
D. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco in ! PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892 access-list 66 permit 10.30.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set local-preference 90

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 chooses one path to network 198.133.219.0/24. Indicate the reason Router RT-1 chooses this “best” path.

A. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the origin code.
B. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the BGP MED values.
C. IP address 128.107.2.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
D. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 prefers the IGP metrics.
E. RT-1 prefers internal BGP routes.
F. IP address 128.107.254.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
What technique should be used on BGP edge routers to prevent a multi-homed autonomous system from becoming a transit system?
A. Advertise with a high MED value all networks that are discovered via external BGP.
B. Remove the AS-Path information on all routes in the BGP table prior to advertising externally.
C. Only advertise networks externally if they have been discovered via internal BGP.
D. Use an outgoing distribution list to filter all networks not originating from inside the autonomous system.
E. Set the no-export community attribute on all networks that are advertised externally.
F. Set the origin code to incomplete for all networks that are discovered via external BGP.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 94
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the router configuration that is shown? PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Additional DHCP options will be imported from another DHCP server.
B. The DHCP server pools need to be bound to an interface to operate.
C. This configuration will provide IP configuration information to two different subnets.
D. Additional DCHP option information needs to be imported from another DHCP server.
E. If the router hands out all the addresses in pool 1, then it will supply addresses from pool 2.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the router with ID 10.64.0.1?

A. It is the BDR for the local segment.
B. It is the DR for the local segment.
C. It is not running OSPF.
D. It has an OSPF priority of 1 on the attached interface.
E. It has a loopback that is configured.
F. It is not the DR or BDR for the local segment.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which statement is true about Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast routing?
A. PIM DM supports shared distribution trees.
B. If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
C. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
D. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
The show ip route command generated routes flagged as O N2 and O N1. Which option best describes how these routes were created?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. Summarization was performed on an ASBR connected to a totally stubby area.
B. Static routes were redistributed into an ASBR.
C. Redistribution was performed into a totally stubby area.
D. Redistribution was performed into an NSSA area.
E. Summarization was performed on an ASBR connected to a NSSA area.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
How is the configuration of a totally stubby area different from that of a stub area?
A. The totally stubby area requires the no-summary command on the ABR.
B. The totally stubby area requires the totally stubby command on the ABR.
C. The no-summary command should be included on all routers within the totally stubby area.
D. The totally stubby command should be included on all routers within the totally stubby area.
E. The totally stubby area requires the no-summary command on the ASBR.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. Which one statement is true?

A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.
B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the 10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but users on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit. RTR-38 has two possible paths to reach the indicated networks but only chooses next hop 172.20.72.1. Which two options would cause RTR-38 to choose next hop 172.20.73.1 for network
192.168.101.0 but still use next hop 172.20.72.1 for the remaining networks? (Choose two)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. On RTR-38 apply a route map to neighbor 172.20.73.1 incoming that changes the local-preference to 200 for network 192.168.101.0.
B. On RTR-38 apply a route map to neighbor 172.20.73.1 incoming that changes the local-preference to 200 for all networks accept 192.168.101.0.
C. On RTR-38 apply the command neighbor 172.20.73.1 weight 200.
D. On RTR-38 apply the command neighbor 172.20.72.1 weight 200.
E. On BGP neighbor router 172.20.73.1 apply a route map that advertises a MED of 200 for network
192.168.101.0 to RTR-38.
F. On BGP neighbor router 172.20.72.1 apply a route map that advertises a MED of 200 for network
192.168.101.0 to RTR-38.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
During BGP configuration on a router that has peered with other BGP speakers, the BGP command aggregate-address 172.32.0.0 255.255.252.0 is issued. However, the peers do not receive this aggregate network in BGP advertisements. Also, the router does not have this aggregate network in its BGP table. Which option indicates a possible reason this command did not cause the router to advertise the aggregate network to its peers?
A. Interface NULL 0 is likely shutdown.
B. The BGP command no synchronization is missing.
C. The BGP command no auto-summary is missing.
D. Subnets of 172.32.0.0/22 do not exist in the BGP table.
E. The IGP running on this router does not have network 172.32.0.0/22 installed.
F. The next hop IP address must be a loopback address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
What are the two effects of the IP multicast global configuration command ip pim send-rp-announce loopback0 scope 31 group-list 5 issued on multicast router RTA? (Choose two.)
A. RTA will drop all RP announcements it receives if the TTL field is greater than 31.
B. RTA will forward RP announcements provided they are within the scope of 31.
C. RTA will originate RP announcements with TTL set to 31.
D. RTA will forward RP announcements from any neighbor router with a source IP address that matches access-list 5.
E. RTA will originate RP announcements for multicast groups that match access-list 5.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show command on RT1 which statement is true?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. OSPFv3 uses global IPv6 addresses to establish neighbor adjacencies.
B. RT1 has a subnet mask of 64 bits.
C. RT1 has FastEthernet0/0 set as a DR for network type broadcast.
D. OSPFv3 uses Link-local addresses to establish neighbor adjacencies.
E. RT1 does not have a global IPv6 address set on FastEthernet0/0.
F. OSPFv3 uses IPv4 addresses to establish neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Refer to the exhibit. In the show ipv6 route output, what would the metric be for a summary route that summarizes all three OSPFv3 routes displayed?

A. 20
B. 40
C. 100
D. 120
E. 140
F. 160

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
QUESTION 105
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct regarding the partial configuration shown?

A. The router’s fa0/0 interface will be assigned the reserved address of 20.0.0.2.
B. The router will import its DHCP options from a configuration file on a TFTP server.
C. The router’s fa0/0 interface will be assigned any address from the 20.0.0.0/8 network except 20.0.0.2.
D. The router will add the DHCP option parameters it learns from another server into its DHCP server database.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
Refer to the exhibit. It is desired to set up a BGP neighbor relationship between routers R1 and R4. BGP packets between them could travel through R2 or R3. What is the simplest configuration that will allow for failover?

A. Configure BGP neighbor relationships between all interfaces on R1 and R4.
B. Install a direct connection between R1 and R4.
C. Configure loopback interfaces on R1 and R4 to provide the update source address for BGP packets.
D. Configure only one neighbor relationship between R1’s 192.168.1.2 interface and R4’s 172.16.10.2 interface.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
QUESTION 107
Refer to the exhibit. Routing updates for the 192.168.1.0 network are being received from all three neighbors. Which statement is correct regarding the result of the configuration shown?

A. The router will prefer the next hop of 172.16.1.1 for packets destined for the 192.168.1.0 network.
B. The router will prefer the next hop of 172.26.1.1 for packets destined for the 192.168.1.0 network.
C. The router will advertise the 192.168.1.0 network only to 172.30.1.1.
D. The router will advertise the 192.168.1.0 network only to 172.26.1.1.
E. The router will prefer the next hop of 172.26.1.1 for packets except those destined for the 192.168.1.0 network.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Refer to the exhibit. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200 BGP configuration command has been configured on router A. What will be the result of this configuration?

A. Router A will prefer the path through router B for network 172.20.0.0. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. Router A will prefer the path through router C for network 172.20.0.0.
C. Packets from router D will prefer the path through router B for networks advertised by router A.
D. Packets from router D will prefer the path through router C for networks advertised by router A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
Which spanning-tree command would cause a PortFast-enabled interface to lose its PortFast-operational status and disable BPDU filtering if it receives BPDUs?
A. spanning-tree guard root
B. spanning-tree bpduguard enable
C. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
D. spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
E. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which spanning-tree command would essentially disable spanning tree on an interface and make that interface susceptible to spanning-tree loops?
A. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
B. spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
C. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
D. spanning-tree bpduguard enable
E. spanning-tree guard root

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Which statement correctly describes the results of the Ethernet switch global configuration command spanning-tree loopguard default?
A. When any port receives a BPDU, it is put it in the error-disabled state.
B. An interface is moved directly to the spanning-tree forwarding state without waiting for the standard forward-time delay.
C. Prevents interfaces that are in a PortFast-operational state from sending or receiving BPDUs.
D. Detects indirect link failures and starts the spanning-tree reconfiguration sooner.
E. Prevents alternate or root ports from becoming designated ports because of a failure that leads to a unidirectional link.
F. Provides fast convergence after a direct link failure where a root port transitions to the forwarding state immediately without going through the listening and learning states.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Which optional feature of an Ethernet switch disables a port on a point-to-point link if the port does not receive traffic while Layer 1 status is up?
A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Loop Guard
D. UDLD aggressive mode
E. Fast Link Pulse bursts
F. Link Control Word

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Which three statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose three)
A. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces.
B. A routed port will take an IP address assignment.
C. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols.
D. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
E. A routed port is only associated with one VLAN.
F. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which three statements are true about CEF? (Choose three.)
A. The FIB table is derived from the IP routing table.
B. The adjacency table is derived from the ARP table.
C. CEF IP destination prefixes are stored in the TCAM table, from the least specific to the most specific entry.
D. When the CEF TCAM table is full, packets are dropped.
E. When the adjacency table is full, a CEF TCAM table entry points to the Layer 3 engine to redirect the adjacency.
F. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 3 destination address prefix (shortest match).

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Refer to the exhibit. Why are users from VLAN 100 unable to ping users on VLAN 200?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Encapsulation on the switch is wrong.
B. Trunking needs to be enabled on Fa0/1.
C. The native VLAN is wrong.
D. VLAN 1 needs the no shutdown command.
E. IP routing needs to be enabled on the switch.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
Refer to the exhibit. What problem is preventing users on VLAN 100 from pinging addresses on VLAN 200?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

Correct Answer: F Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. bursty
B. greedy
C. drop sensitive
D. delay sensitive
E. UDP priority
F. TCP retransmits

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. TCP retransmits
B. benign
C. greedy
D. drop sensitive
E. smooth
F. delay insensitive

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on all routers in the network. On the basis of the show ip ospf PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
neighbor output, what prevents R1 from establishing a full adjacency with R2?

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Which two statements are true about voice VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. Voice VLANs allow IP phones to be moved around without worrying about subnets.
B. Voice VLANs allow voice and data packets to be logically combined.
C. Implementing voice VLANs causes network administrators to change their existing IP topology.
D. Using voice VLANs makes it easier for network administrators to identify and troubleshoot network problems.
E. Voice VLANs are available on all Cisco switches.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Which two statements are true about trust boundaries? (Choose two.)
A. Classifying and marking traffic should be done as close to the traffic source as possible.
B. Classifying and marking traffic should be done at the distribution layer.
C. Traffic is classified and marked as it travels through the network.
D. If untrusted traffic enters a switch, it can be marked with a new QoS value appropriate for the policy in place.
E. The trust boundary moves depending on the type of traffic entering the network.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What problem is preventing users on VLAN 100 from pinging addresses on VLAN 200?

A. No default route on DLS1.
B. Encapsulation mismatch between switches.
C. Native VLAN mismatch.
D. Subinterfaces should be created on Fa0/7 and Fa0/8 on DLS1.
E. Trunking needs to be enabled.
F. The ip routing command is missing on DLS1.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: F
QUESTION 2
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. bursty
B. greedy
C. drop sensitive
D. delay sensitive
E. UDP priority
F. TCP retransmits
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:CDE
QUESTION 3
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. TCP retransmits
B. benign
C. greedy
D. drop sensitive
E. smooth
F. delay insensitive
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BDE
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. What additional commands should be used to configure OSPF area 5 as a T otally Stubby area?

A. area 0 stub on routers R4 and R5
B. area 5 stub on routers R4 and R5
C. area 5 stub no-summary on routers R4 and R5
D. area 0 stub no-summary on router R4 and area 5 stub no-summary on router R5
E. area 5 stub no-summary on router R4 and area 5 stub on router R5
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: E
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on all routers in the network. On the basis of the show ip ospf neighbor output, what prevents R1 from establishing a full adjacency with R2?

A. Router R1 will only establish full adjacency with the DR and BDR on broadcast multiaccess networks.
B. Router R2 has been elected as a DR for the broadcast multiaccess network in OSPF area 1.
C. Routers R1 and R2 are configured as stub routers for OSPF area 1 and OSPF area 2.
D. Router R1 and R2 are configured for a virtual link between OSPF area 1 and OSPF area 2.
E. The Hello parameters on routers R1 and R2 do not match.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 6
In the event that two devices need access to a common server,but they cannot communicate with each other, which security feature should be configured to mitigate attacks between these devices?
A. port security
B. dynamic ARP inspection
C. DHCP snooping
D. private VLANs E. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 7
A hacker is interested in seeing traffic from all switch ports on the switch that he is connected to, including the ports belonging to other VLANs. What type of attack is he likely to implement?
A. MAC address flooding
B. ARP attack
C. spoofing attack
D. DHCP attack
E. VLAN hopping
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 8
Which statement best summarizes how DHCP snooping works?
A. DHCP snooping validates the header information of all DHCP replies and only allows the reply through if it has a matching request in the DSRT .
B. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port sent a DHCP request in the last 5 seconds.
C. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port specifically sent a DHCP request.
D. DHCP snooping determines which switch ports are trusted and can source all DHCP messages.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration provided, how are the Hello packets sent by R2 handled by R5 in OSPF area 5?

A. The Hello packets will be exchanged and adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5.
B. The Hello packets will be exchanged but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors only.
C. The Hello packets will be dropped and no adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5.
D. The Hello packets will be dropped but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 10
Which statement is true about OSPF Network LSAs?
A. They are originated by every router in the OPSF network. They include all routers on the link, interfaces, the cost of the link, and any known neighbor on the link.
B. They are originated by the DR on every multi-access network. They include all attached routers including the DR itself.
C. They are originated by Area Border Routers and are sent into a single area to advertise destinations outside that area.
D. They are originated by Area Border Router and are sent into a single area to advertise an Autonomous System Border Router.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on all routers in the network. Area 5 is configured as an NSSA area. The RIPv2 routes are redistributed into the OSPF domain on router R5. What two types of LSAs will be originated by router R5? (Choose two.)

A. type 1 Router LSA
B. type 2 Network LSA
C. type 3 Network Summary LSA
D. type 4 ASBR Summary LSA
E. type 5 AS External LSA
F. type 7 NSSA External LSA
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AF
QUESTION 12
A network administrator would like to configure 802.1x port-based authentication, however, the client workstation is not 802.1x compliant. What is the only supported authentication server that can be used?
A. TACACSwith LEAP extensions
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with EAP extensions
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 13
A switch has been configured with PVLANs. With what type of PVLAN port should the default gateway be configured?
A. Isolated
B. Promiscuous
C. Community
D. Primary
E. Trunk
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. The lightweight wireless architecture splits the processing of the 802.11 data and management protocols and the access point functionality between the access point and the WLAN controller using split MAC approach. Which three functionalities are handled by the WLAN controller?

A. the transmission of beacon frames
B. the portions of the protocol that have real-time requirements
C. the response to Probe Request frames from clients
D. 802.11 authentication
E. 802.11 association and re-association (mobility)
F. 802.11 frame translation and bridging
Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:DEF
QUESTION 15
What is the function of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) in the wireless LAN?
A. The SSID should be configured on the client site only and provides data-privacy functions and authentication to the access point.
B. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point. The SSID is advertised in plain-text in the access point beacon messages.
C. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides encryption keys for authentication to the access point.
D. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides MAC Address Authentication to authenticate the client to the access point.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 16
What are two differences between the Autonomous WLAN solution and the Lightweight WLAN solution?
(Choose two.)
A. TACACS+can only be used for authentication with the Cisco Lightweight WLAN solution.
B. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Autonomous WLAN Solution.
C. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Lightweight WLAN Solution.
D. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Lightweight WLAN solution.
E. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Autonomous WLAN solution.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD
QUESTION 17
Which routing protocol will continue to receive and process routing updates from neighbors after the passive-interface router configuration command is entered?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 18
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 19
Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’?
A. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
B. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 20
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three conditions must exist on TEST1 to cause this network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP .
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:CEF
QUESTION 21
Given the following partial configuration for Router A: interface serial 0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 encapsulation frame-relay ip ospf network point-to-multipoint router ospf 7 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. DR/BDR elections do not take place.
B. The router is restricted to a hub and spoke topology.
C. The area 0 NBMA cloud is configured as more than one subnet.
D. OSPF neighbor statements are not necessary.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AD
QUESTION 22
Which command displays the number of times that the OSPF Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm has been executed?
A. show ip protocol
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ip ospf
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 23
Which two methods advertise internal networks to external ISPs via BGP? (Choose two.)
A. using aggregate routes
B. disabling synchronization
C. forcing the next-hop address
D. defining routes via the network statement
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AD
QUESTION 24
Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)
A. forwarding information base
B. adjacency tables
C. neighbor tables
D. caching tables
E. route tables
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AB
QUESTION 25
What is a characteristic of a static VLAN membership assignment?
A. VMPS server lookup
B. easy to configure
C. ease of adds, moves, and changes
D. based on MAC address of the connected device
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 26
A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?
A. 01.00.5e.7F .08.05
B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
D. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 27
For the accompanying router output, which of the following statements describes the state that neighbor 172.16.254.3 is in?
A. The router will not accept connections from the peer.
B. The router has sent out an active TCP connection request to the peer.
C. The router is listening on its server port for connection requests from the peer.
D. BGP can exchange routing information in this state.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 28
Above is the output from show ip bgp neighbors command. What is line 21 stating about the BGP connection?

A. the number of consecutive TCP connections to the specified remote neighbor
B. the number of times the router has established a TCP connection
C. the number of total TCP connections that the router has
D. the number of neighbors that the router has
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 29
Given the network diagram, which address would successfully summarize only the networks seen?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.8.0/20
C. 192.168.8.0/21
D. 192.168.12.0/20
E. 192.168.16.0/21
F. These networks cannot be summarized.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 30
A. R3,R4,R6
B. R3,R4,R5,R6
C. R2,R3,R6,R7
D. R2,R3,R4,R6,R7
E. R1 through R8
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 31
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:Answer:B
QUESTION 32
Which statement is correct about 802.1Q trunking?
A. Both switches must be in the same VTP domain.
B. The encapsulation type on both ends of the trunk does not have to match.
C. The native VLAN on both ends of the trunk must be VLAN 1.
D. 802.1Q trunking can only be configured on a Layer 2 port.
E. In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: E
QUESTION 33
Why should iBGP sessions be fully meshed within a TransitAS?
A. BGP requires redundant TCP sessions between iBGP peers.
B. A full mesh allows for optimal routing within the TransitAS.
C. Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other eBGP peers.
D. Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
E. Routes learned via eBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 34
The 192.168.0.0 network is not being propagated throughout the network. Observe the BGP configuration commands from the advertising router. What is the reason the 192.168.0.0 route is not being advertised? router bgp 65111 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65111 neighbor 172.16.2.1 remote-as 65112 network 192.168.0.0 network 10.0.0.0 ! ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 null0
A. The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.255.0.0
B. The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.0.255.255.
C. The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.0.0.0.
D. The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.255.255.255.
E. The auto-summary configuration is missing.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 35
What are the basic configuration steps to enable IS-IS?
A. Configure the net system-id command under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
B. Configure the network net-id command(s) under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
C. Configure the network net-id command(s) and the is-type level-1-2 command under router isis.
D. Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis.
E. Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 36
Which three characteristics apply to IS-IS but not to OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. encapsulates PDUs directly into a data-link frame
B. uses a DIS and a backup DIS to present the pseudo-node on the LAN
C. uses stubby areas to improve network scalability
D. uses a default IOS metric of 10 on each interface
E. runs PRC (Partial Route Calculations) to calculate IP reachability information
F. uses an on-demand circuit to reduce the hello and LSA flooding across switched WAN links, such as ISDN
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ADE
QUESTION 37
A network administrator has enabled OSPF across an NBMA network and has issued the command ip ospf network nonbroadcast. Given those facts, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. DR and BDR elections will occur.
B. DR and BDR elections will not occur.
C. All routers must be configured in a fully meshed topology with all other routers.
D. The neighbor command is required to build adjacencies.
E. Interfaces will automatically detect and build adjacencies with neighbor routers.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AD
QUESTION 38
Which three statements are correct about the differences in IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. IS-IS LSP contains TLV fields and OSPF LSU contains the LSAs.
B. New additions to the protocol are easily implemented in OSPF but not with IS-IS.
C. For greater fine tuning there are more IS-IS timers.
D. OSPF has more area types than does IS-IS.
E. IS-IS is more CPU-intensive than is OSPF .
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ACD
QUESTION 39
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 40
Given the above diagram and assuming that STP is enabled on all switch devices, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. DSW11will be elected the root bridge.
B. DSW12 will be elected the root bridge.
C. ASW13 will be elected the root bridge.
D. P3/1 will be elected the nondesignated port.
E. P2/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
F. P3/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AD
QUESTION 41
Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.)
A. STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
B. A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C. To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay, max age) must be the same.
D. If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
E. On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
F. The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ABD
QUESTION 42
Which configuration commands will enable RTA to advertise all local interfaces over OSPF?
A. RTA(config)#router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)#default-information originate
B. RTA(config)#router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)#network 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255
C. RTA(config)#router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0
D. RTA(config)#router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
E. RTA(config)#router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)#redistribute static
F. RTA(config)#router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)#redistribute connected
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: F
QUESTION 43
Which command lists the system IDs of all known IS-IS routers?
A. show clns neighbors
B. show isis database
C. show isis topology
D. show clns neighbors detail
E. show is-is neighbors detail
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 44
Observe the diagram. RTC is the hub router and RTA and RTB are the spokes. There are no virtual circuits between the spoke locations. What is needed to successfully route traffic to the 11.11.11.0/24 network from RTA?

A. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTA.
B. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTB.
C. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTC.
D. Nothing is required. This is the default behavior on this topology.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit diagram and configuration. RTB is summarizing its networks from AS 64100 with the aggregate-address command. However, the show ip route command on RTA reveals the RTB individual networks as well as its summary route. Which option would ensure that only the summary route would appear in the routing table of RTA?

A. Delete the four network statements and leave only the aggregate-address statement in the BGP configuration.
B. Add the keyword summary-only to the aggregate-address command.
C. Add a static route with a prefix of 192.168.24.0 255.255.252.0 pointing to the null0 interface.
D. Create a route map permitting only the summary address.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on router RTA to summarize all routes from area 0 to area 1?

A. area 0 range 172.16.96.0 255.255.224.0
B. area 0 range 172.16.96.0 255.255.255.0
C. area 1 range 172.16.96.0 255.255.224.0
D. area 1 range 172.16.96.0 255.255.0.0
E. summary-address 172.16.96.0 255.255.224.0
F. summary-address 172.16.96.0 0.0.63.255
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 47
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:DE
QUESTION 48
What is the maximum Ethernet frame size on a trunk link configured using IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation?
A. 1496 Bytes
B. 1500 Bytes
C. 1518 Bytes
D. 1522 Bytes
E. 1548 Bytes
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 49
What are two Cisco IOS commands that can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two.)
A. show ip ospf database
B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show ip ospf protocols
D. show ip ospf interfaces
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD
QUESTION 50
Which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A. L1 IS
B. L1 ES
C. L2 IS
D. L2 ES
E. L1/L2 IS

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AE Exam D
QUESTION 1
The lack of which two prevents VTP information from propagating between switches? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN 1
B. a trunk port
C. VTP priority
D. a root VTP server
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AB
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R2, R3, R4, and R5 have OSPF enabled. What should be configured on the routers in area 1 to ensure that all default summary routes and redistributed EIGRP routes will be forwarded from R6 to area 1, and only a default route for all other OSPF routes will be forwarded from R5 to area 1.

A. R5(config-router)# area 1 stub R6(config-router)# area 1 stub
B. R5(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary R6(config-router)# area 1 stub
C. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssa R6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
D. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssa no-summary R6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about EBGP?
A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.
B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. EBGP requires a full mesh.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 4
Which two are characteristics of the IS-IS protocol but not OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. provides for network scalability by allowing the network to be separated into areas
B. provides routing support for multiple network layer protocols
C. three layers of hierarchical routing
D. utilizes SPF algorithm
E. forms adjacencies with all neighbors
F. supports demand circuit routing
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BE
QUESTION 5
Which three are benefits of IS-IS over OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. supports more routers in an area
B. does not require Hello packets to establish neighbor relationships
C. produces fewer link state advertisements for a given network
D. supports route tags
E. supports network layer protocols other than IP
F. requires fewer neighbor relationships in a broadcast multiaccess network
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ACE
QUESTION 6
Which two conditions can cause BGP neighbor establishment to fail? (Choose two.)
A. There is an access list blocking all TCP traffic between the two BGP neighbors.
B. The IBGP neighbor is not directly connected.
C. BGP synchronization is enabled in a transit autonomous system with fully-meshed IBGP neighbors.
D. The BGP update interval is different between the two BGP neighbors.
E. The BGP neighbor is referencing an incorrect autonomous system number in its neighbor statement.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:AE
QUESTION 7

A. The BGP session to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor is established.
B. The BGP session to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor is established.
C. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established.
D. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
E. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established, but the router has not received any BGP routing updates from the 10.3.3.3 neighbor.
F. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.2.2.2 neighbor.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AF
QUESTION 8
OSPF is configured over a Frame Relay network as shown in the exhibit. All PVCs are active. However,
R1 and R3 fail to see all OSPF routes in their routing tables. The show ip ospf neighbor command
executed
on R2 shows the state of the neighbors. What should be done to fix the problem?
A. The ip ospf network non-broadcast command should be configured on each Frame Relay interface.
B. The ip ospf network broadcast command should be configured on each Frame Relay interface.
C. The neighbor command should be configured under the OSPF routing process on all routers.
D. The ip ospf priority value on the hub router should be set to 0.
E. The ip ospf priority value on the spoke routers should be set to 0.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. All network links are FastEthernet. Although there is complete connectivity throughout the network, Front Line users have been complaining that they experience slower network performance when accessing the server farm than the Reception office experiences. Based on the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?

A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone.
B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone.
C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4.
E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 12
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F. process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 13
163. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands, which

A. There is a valid CEF entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ADE
QUESTION 14
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BC
QUESTION 15
What is the effect of configuring the following command on a switch? Switch(config) # spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
A. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, then PortFast is disabled and the BPDUs are processed normally.
B. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, they are ignored and none are sent.
C. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for Portfast, the port will transition to forwarding state.
D. The command will enable BPDU filtering on all ports regardless of whether they are configured for BPDU filtering at the interface level.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 16
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP .
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BCE
QUESTION 17
Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously on a switch.
B. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help Layer 3 switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own.
C. IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded only to hosts that sent an IGMP message toward the router.
D. IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches.
E. IGMP snooping is enabled with the ip multicast-routing global configuration command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:CD
QUESTION 18
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 228.10.10.7
B. 228.10.10.8
C. 228.10.138.7
D. 229.11.10.7
E. 229.138.10.7
F. 229.138.10.8
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AE
QUESTION 19
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence would correct the problem?

A. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# no shut
B. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
C. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10
D. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# no shut
E. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# state active
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 21
Which two statements are true about IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors.
B. A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system.
C. IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
D. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via EBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
E. The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BE
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. Routers RTA and RTB are running BGP but the session is active. What command needs to be added to establish the BGP session?

A. ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/0 ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/1
B. network 10.10.10.0
C. neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self
D. no synchronization
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Given the exhibited router output, which command sequence can be added to R1 to generate a default route into the OSPF domain?

A. default-router
B. ip default-network
C. default-information originate always
D. ip default-gateway
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. What does the command channel-group 1 mode desirable do?

A. enables LACP unconditionally
B. enables PAgPonly if a PAgPdevice is detected
C. enables PAgPunconditionally
D. enables Etherchannel only
E. enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 25
Which three statements are true about IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
B. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
C. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.
E. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
F. PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BCE
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?

A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: F
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the
exhibit, which statement is true?

A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. Switch P1S1 is not applying VLAN updates from switch P2S1. What are three reasons why this is not occurring? (Choose three.)

A. Switch P2S1 is in server mode.
B. Switch P1S1 is in transparent mode.
C. The MD5 digests do not match.
D. The passwords do not match.
E. The VTP domains are different.
F. VTP trap generation is disabled on both switches.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BDE
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2,what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 30
Which two statements about multicast addressing are true? (Choose two.)
A. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 24 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
B. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 1.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
E. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
F. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on

A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 32
Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.)

A. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs.
B. This interface is configured for access mode.
C. This interface is a member of VLAN1.
D. This interface is a member of VLAN7.
E. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 34
Which three interface commands will configure the switch port to support a connected Cisco phone and to trust the CoS values received on the port if CDP discovers that a Cisco phone is attached? (Choose three.)
A. mls qos trust override cos
B. mls qos trust cos
C. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
D. switchport priority extend cos_value
E. switchport voice vlan vlan-id
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BCE
QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. How will interface FastEthernnet0/1 respond when an 802.1x-enabled client connects to the port?

A. The switch port will enable 802.1x port-based authentication and begin relaying authentication messages between the client and the authentication server.
B. The switch port will disable 802.1x port-based authentication and cause the port to transition to the authorized state without any further authentication exchange.
C. The switch will cause the port to remain in the unauthorized state, ignoring all attempts by the client to authenticate.
D. The switch will uniquely authorize the client by using the client MAC address.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true when voice traffic is forwarded on the same VLAN used by the data traffic?

A. Quality of service cannot be applied for the voice traffic.
B. The voice traffic cannot be forwarded to the distribution layer.
C. Port security cannot be enabled on the switch that is attached to the IP phone.
D. The voice traffic cannot use 802.1p priority tagging.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 37
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
A. Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.
B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 38
Which two statements are true about recommended practices in VLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing should always be performed at the distribution layer.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be localized to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?

A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 40
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host to host?

A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful.
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 42
A. R2# show ip route <output omitted>
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks
i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0
i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0
i L1 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0
i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
i L2 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task?

A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 44
Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. In the IS-IS routing domain, routers may have adjacencies with other routers on multipoint links.
B. IS-IS metrics are based on delay, bandwidth, reliability,load, and MTU.
C. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the areas that the routers are connected to.
D. Level 2 routers are equivalent to ABRs in OSPF and learn about paths both within and between areas.
E. Level 1 and Level 2 routing is a function of ES-IS.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:AC
QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and Recipient B

A. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
B. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree.
E. Switch 1 is the rendezvous of the multicast tree.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 47
A router is running BGP and receives more than one route for a particular prefix. Assume all the routes for this prefix have the same attributes. Which three path features would be reasons be for the router to ignore some of the routes and not consider them as candidates for the best path? (Choose three.)
A. paths that are marked as synchronized in the show ip bgp output
B. paths that are marked as not synchronized in the show ip bgp output
C. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is accessible
D. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is inaccessible
E. paths from an external BGP (eBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
F. paths from an internal BGP (iBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:Answer:BDE
QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. Autonomous systems 200 and 300 have EBGP sessions established with their directly connected routers in autonomous system 100. IGP has been configured on all routers in autonomous system 100 and they successfully exchange routing updates. Traffic originated in autonomous system 200 cannot reach the destination autonomous system 300. What configuration should be done on the routers in autonomous system 100 in order for the traffic coming from autonomous system 200 to be

A. ::0A43:0002
B. 0A43:0002::
C. ::10.67.0.2
D. 10.67.0.2::
E. 0:0:0:0:0:0:10.67.0.2
F. 10.67.0.2:0:0:0:0:0:0
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ACE
QUESTION 50
An IPv6 overlay tunnel is required to communicate with isolated IPv6 networks across an IPv4 infrastructure. There are currently five IPv6 overlay tunnel types. Which three IPv6 overlay tunnel statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Overlay tunnels can only be configured between border routers capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
B. Overlay tunnels can be configured between border routers or between a border router and a host capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
C. Cisco IOS supports manual, generic routing encapsulation (GRE), IPv6-compatible, 4to6, and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) overlay tunneling mechanisms.
D. Cisco IOS supports manual, generic routing encapsulation (GRE), IPv4-compatible, 6to4, and Intra-Site Automatic TunnelAddressing Protocol (ISATAP)overlay tunneling mechanisms.
E. A manual overlay tunnel supports point-to-multipoint tunnels capable of carrying IPv6 and Connectionless Network Service (CLNS) packets.
F. Overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv6 packets in IPv4 packets for delivery across an IPv4 infrastructure.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BDF
QUESTION 51
Which three route filtering statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. After the router rip and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0 interface will not send any RIP updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
B. After the router eigrp 10 and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0 interface will not send any EIGRP updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
C. After the router ospf 10 and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued , the s0/0 interface will not send any OSPF updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
D. When you use the passive-interface command with RIPv2, multicasts are sent out the specified interface.
E. When you use the passive-interface command with EIGRP , hello messages are not sent out the specified interface.
F. When you use the passive-interface command with OSPF, hello messages are not sent out the specified interface.

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AEF
QUESTION 52
Which statement describes the difference between a manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel versus an automatic 6to4 tunnel?
A. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations.
B. An automatic 6to4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations.
C. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel endpoints.
D. An automatic 6to4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel endpoints.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 53
Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS is capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
B. IS-IS is only capable of supporting IPv4 and CLNS.
C. IS-IS routers use ES-IS hellos (ESH) to establish and to maintain neighbor relationships.
D. IS-IS routers run the Bellman-Ford algorithm against their LSDBs to pick the best paths.
E. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the area of which they are a part.
F. Level 2 routers learn about paths both within areas and between areas.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AE
QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF has been configured on all routers in the network and Area 1 has been configured as a NSSA. Which statement is true about the NSSA Area 1?

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 55
Which two statements are true about the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network? (Choose two.)
A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM DM).
B. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM SM).
C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse-dense mode (PIM-SDM).
D. The multicast sources must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree.
E. The multicast receivers must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree.
F. To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join the RP.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BF

QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast for group address 224.1.1.1 has been enabled on all routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However,hosts on Network B do not. On the basis of outputs provided, what could be the cause of the problem?

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C Exam E
QUESTION 1 lab Answer:AB

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:AB
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?

A. If another path advertises the 6.6.6.0/24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more preferred.
B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor 10.10.23.3.
C. The route 10.10.23.3 is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors.
D. Route 6.6.6.0/24 is learned by an IBGP peer.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)

A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are limited scoped addresses that have been reserved for OSPF.
E. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses 224.0.1.1 and 238.1.1.1 could not be used together.
E. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
F. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.)
A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two multicast protocol statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
B. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
C. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
E. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which command enables OSPF for IPv6?
A. router ospf process-id PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. ipv6 ospf process-id
C. ipv6 router ospf process-id
D. router ospf ipv6 process-id
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the output. What IOS command produces this output?

A. show ip ospf
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ipv6 ospf interface
D. show ipv6 ospf

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a voice VLAN?

A. Physically the voice network and the data network are separate.
B. The voice traffic will normally be on a different IP subnet than will the data traffic.
C. End user intervention is necessary to place the phone into the proper VLAN.
D. The same security policy should be implemented for both voice and data traffic.
E. The data VLAN must be configured as the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos on the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Effectively, the trust boundary has been moved to the PC attached to the IP phone.
B. The computer is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The IP phone is enabled to override with a CoS value of 3 the existing CoS marking of the PC attached to the IP phone.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will extend the trust boundary to the distribution layer switch.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP. D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
D. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point.
E. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose three.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
E. PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured. F. The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
In what three ways is QoS applied in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. No traffic marking occurs at the core layer. Layer 2/3 QoS tags are trusted from distribution layer switches and used to prioritize and queue the traffic as it traverses the core.
B. IP precedence, DSCP, QoS group, IP address, and ingress interface are Layer 2 characteristics that are set by the access layer as it passes traffic to the distribution layer. The distribution layer, once it has made a switching decision to the core layer, strips these off.
C. MAC address, Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS), the ATM cell loss priority (CLP) bit, the Frame Relay discard eligible (DE) bit, and ingress interface are established by the voice submodule (distribution layer) as traffic passes to the core layer.
D. The distribution layer inspects a frame to see if it has exceeded a predefined rate of traffic within a certain time frame, which is typically a fixed number internal to the switch. If a frame is determined to be in excess of the predefined rate limit, the CoS value can be marked up in a way that results in the packet being dropped.
E. The access layer is the initial point at which traffic enters the network. Traffic is marked (or remarked) at Layers 2 and 3 by the access switch as it enters the network, or is “trusted” that it is entering the network with the appropriate tag.
F. Traffic inbound from the access layer to the distribution layer can be trusted or reset depending upon the ability of the access layer switches. Priority access into the core is provided based on Layer 3 QoS tags.
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What does the command clear ipv6 ospf process accomplish?
A. The OSPF adjacencies are cleared and initiated again.
B. The route table is cleared. Then the OSPF neighbors are reformed.
C. The shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed on the LSA database.
D. The OSPF database is repopulated. Then the shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7 accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been
assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is
able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the
exhibit, which statement is true?

A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?

A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of interface
FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command
sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?

A. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
B. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
C. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
E. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
An administrator types in the command router ospf 1 and receives the error message: “OSPF process
1 cannot start.” (Output is omitted.) What should be done to correctly set up OSPF?
A. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address.
B. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address and is up.
C. Ensure that IP classless is enabled.
D. Ensure that the interfaces can ping their directly connected neighbors.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands,
which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 7 LSAs into type 5 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
B. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 7 LSAs throughout the backbone.
C. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 5 LSAs throughout the backbone.
D. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 5 LSAs into type 7 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
E. RTA will not redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What are two Cisco IOS commands that can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two.)
A. show ip ospf database
B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show ip ospf protocols
D. show ip ospf interfaces
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is the default metric used on IS-IS routers for each interface?
A. The cost is set to 10 for all interfaces.
B. The cost is set to 10 for LAN interfaces and 20 for WAN interfaces.
C. The cost is based on the speed of the interface.
D. The cost is based on a composite of bandwidth and delay of the interface.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What does IS-IS use to establish and maintain neighbor relationships between IS’s?
A. IIH
B. LSP
C. CLNS
D. CLNP
E. ISH
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is periodically sent by a DIS on a LAN to ensure that all adjacent neighbors’ IS-IS link-state databases are synchronized?
A. complete SNP (CSNP)
B. partial SNP (PSNP)
C. database query
D. database description packet (DDP)
E. link-state summary
F. hello
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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