Free Study Guide For Cisco 640-911 Exam With New Added Answers Ensure 100% PassFree Study Guide For Cisco 640-911 Exam With New Added Answers Ensure 100% Pass
Cisco 640-911 contains a powerful new testing engine that allows you to focus on individual topic areas or take complete, timed exams from Cisco 640-911.The assessment engine also tracks your performance and presents feedback on a module-by-module basis, providing question-by-question Cisco 640-911 to the text and laying out a complete study plan for review.Cisco 640-911 also includes a wealth of hands-on practice exercises and a copy of the Cisco 640-911 network simulation software that allows you to practice your Cisco 640-911 hands-on skills in a virtual lab environment.The Cisco 640-911 supporting website keeps you fully informed of any exam changes
Exam A QUESTION 1
1
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 2
2
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 3
3
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 4
4
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
5
At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
6
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
7
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. datagram
B. routing
C. network
D. data link
E. transport
F. transmission
G. session
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
8
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs
B. bits
C. sequences
D. segments
E. packets
F. frames
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 9
9
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
10
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
11
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
12
Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet frame?
A. start of frame
B. EtherType
C. frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
13
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. reliable transmission
B. operate at OSI Layer 2
C. operate at OSI Layer 3
D. create multiple broadcast domains
E. create multiple collision domains
F. flood input packets to all ports
G. drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 14
14
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 15
15
What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown?
A. discard frame
B. send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. flood packet on all ports
D. compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
16
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
17
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
18
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 19
19
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
20
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
21
Which three statements are true concerning RFC 1918 IP addresses? (Choose three.)
A. They are globally routable.
B. They are not globally routable.
C. They must not be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
E. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/16, and 192.168.1.0/24.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/21, and 192.168.0.0/16.
Correct Answer: BDF QUESTION 22
22
Which two statements describe the purpose of RFC 1918? (Choose two.)
A. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of multicast video.
B. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of peer-to-peer file-sharing applications.
C. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to use on internal networks.
D. Establish a range of IP addresses to address the shrinking pool of globally routable addresses.
E. Delay the transition to IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 23
23
What are three reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every person on earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 24
24
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 25
25
Which two options describe services that are provided by UDP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. segmentation
C. connection-oriented
D. reliable packet delivery
E. best-effort packet delivery Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 26
26
Which two options represent a subnet mask that allows for a maximum of 14 available host addresses on a subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.192.0
E. /14
F. /21
G. /26
H. /28
Correct Answer: AH
QUESTION 27
27
What is the binary value of the hexadecimal number 0x511?
A. 10100011001
B. 10101010101
C. 10110010001
D. 10100010001
E. 10100110011
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
28
What is the binary value of the decimal number 1263?
A. 11011101101
B. 10011101111
C. 10011101011
D. 11010001111
E. 10111101111
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
29
Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. ARP
D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
31
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
32
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
33
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
34
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. information about changed routes
B. information about new routes
C. the entire routing table
D. information about deleted routes
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?
A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?
A. port routed
B. no switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. port switching off
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. vlan (vlan_id)
C. feature svi
D. interface routed
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
40
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10 nexus(config-if)#switchport
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
41
Which version of Cisco Nexus Operating System became a common operating system for Cisco Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches?
A. 2.7
B. 3.3
C. 3.9
D. 4.1
E. 5.01GD
F. 6.2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
42
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3
B. RMON
C. System Manager
D. PSS
E. VRF
F. TRILL
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 43
43
What is the acronym expansion of the UDLD feature of Cisco Nexus Operating System?
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Unified Data Link Distribution
C. Unified Data Loss Detection
D. Unified Directional Link Distribution
E. Unidirectional Data Loss Detection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
44
What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
C. CoPP
D. port security
E. PIM
F. SSL VPN
G. IPsec VPN
H. ACLs
Correct Answer: ACDH