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Practice for the Oracle 1z0-952 exam questions 1-5
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QUESTION 1
Your customer, Alpha Corp, wants to collect data from their global brand website (alpha-corp.com, m.alpha-corp.com),
their marketing subdomains (go.alpha-corp.com, products.alpha-corp.com), and their mobile app (available on Android
and iOS).
How many domains do they have?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which two are attributes of third-party data? (Choose two.)
A. Can be confirmed from multiple outside sources
B. Often billed directly by the media partner
C. Offered on a private marketplace, via direct sales to marketers
D. Free to use for activation, targeting, and analytics
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3
You are working with a client to help guide their seat governance structure. After discussing their company policies and
procedures, you discover that each region follows its own protocols, operations are for the most part independent and
they might benefit from discretionary data-sharing between regions.
Based on what you have learned, which seat governance option should you recommend?
A. Horizontal regional empowerment
B. Global DMP nerve center
C. Global template with local nuances
D. Full agency control
E. A single seat shared by all regions
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
Identify the dependencies and data sources for a local campaign.
A. Dependency: Custom audiences pixel, Data Sources: 1st party offline data
B. Dependency: Execution partner must accept mobile and IDs, Data Sources: 2nd party data
C. Dependency: Ensure the Blue Kai tag is on the site, Data Sources: 1st and 3rd party unbranded data
D. Dependency: Signed Data Usage Agreement for 3rd party data, Data Sources: 1st and 3rd party data
E. Dependency: Submit reporting for use of 3rd party data, Data Sources: 2nd and 3rd party data
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5
What is the CPS pricing model?
A. This model allows clients to purchase data each time the campaign wins a unique customer attribute.
B. This model allows clients to purchase data based on the overall win rate of the campaign.
C. This model allows clients to purchase data on a cost per category agreement.
D. This model allows clients to purchase data on a cost per 1,000 impressions basis.
E. This model allows clients to purchase data according to the specific terms in their contract for acquiring third-party
data from a particular App Partner.
Correct Answer: D
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Practice for the Oracle 1z0-1004 exam questions 1-5
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QUESTION 1
Encumbrance accounting is enabled for your ledger. An encumbrance journal dated 3/15/16 was recorded for a
purchase order. The invoice was entered on 5/5/16, but the invoice accounting date was 4/20/16. The encumbrance
journal for
liquidating the purchase order encumbrance is dated 5/5/16.
What is causing this?
A. The actual accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
B. The current transaction accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
C. The subledger accounting option is set to system date
D. The system date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
E. The prior related transaction accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You want to automatically post journal batches imported form subledger sources to prevent accidental edits or deletions
of the subledger sources journals, which could cause an out-of-balance situation between your subledgers and general
ledger. Which two aspects should you consider when defining your AutoPost Criteria? (Choose two.)
A. Use the All option for category and accounting period to reduce maintenance and ensure that all imported journals
are included in the posting process
B. Create your AutoPost criteria using minimal sources and categories
C. Include all of your subledger sources in the AutoPost Criteria. Divide up criteria sets by subledger source only if you
need to schedule different posting times
D. Schedule your AutoPost Criteria set to run during off-peak hours only
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
When working with Essbase, versions of the tree hierarchy as defined in the General Ledger Cloud are not available in
the Essbase balances cube. What should you do to correct this situation?
A. Make sure to flatten the rows of the tree version
B. Make sure the tree is active
C. Make sure the tree version was published successfully
D. Redeploy the chart of accounts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Before implementing Financials Cloud, your customer used to manually reconcile their intercompany payables and
receivables accounts. What is a more automated approach to do this?
A. Use Oracle Hyperion Close Manager to automatically reconcile intercompany account balances
B. In Financials Cloud, you must manually reconcile your intercompany account balances
C. Run the BI Publisher reports called Intercompany Transaction Summary and Account Details to automatically
reconcile intercompany balances
D. Run the Intercompany Reconciliation report, which shows pairs of intercompany receivables and payables accounts
that are out of balance
E. Create a query using Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) that will match the intercompany payables
and receivables balances
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Your customer is implementing budgetary control with encumbrance accounting. Your customer has businesses in
Australia, New Zealand, and Singapore with a ledger in each country with a Corporate chart of account instance that
has four segments. Which three statements are true regarding the creation of a control budget? (Choose three.)
A. The control budget structure has all the chart of account segments as budget segments
B. Control budgets are always absolute to generate encumbrance accounting
C. A control budget is associated with a ledger and creates three control budgets for Australia, New Zealand, and
Singapore
D. A control budget can allow override rules only if the control level is absolute
E. A control budget can be associated with a different calendar than the accounting calendar
Correct Answer: BDE
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Practice for the Oracle 1z0-1046 exam questions 1-5
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QUESTION 1
As an implementation consultant, you are required to define a legal entity. Which three options are correct about a legal
entity? (Choose three.)
A. A legal entity must comply with regulations and local jurisdictions.
B. A legal entity can be identified as a legal employer in Human Capital Management.
C. Legal entities are not responsible for payment of social insurance.
D. A legal entity may act as a virtual organization.
E. A legal entity can own assets, record sales, pay taxes, and perform transactions.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 2
A client requires that promotion approvals should go to a static set of three users in a sequential manner, with the
approval process continuing to the next user if the prior approver is not available. What setup is required to meet this
requirement?
A. While configuring Approval Group List Builder, select “Allow empty groups” as True.
B. While configuring Approval Group List Builder, select “Allow empty groups” as False.
C. All approves must be present in the system; else, the promotion transaction fails.
D. The default functionality is that if any approver is not present, then the transaction gets auto-approved.
E. Enable a descriptive flex field to capture the approvers in the required sequence and create Approval Group List
Builder.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
An HR representative enters employee details in the application as part of the hiring process. On the Review page, the
HR representative notices that Person Number does not show any number, but indicates “Generated Automatically”
Identify the option that relates to this intended behavior.
A. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
B. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic after final save.
C. Worker Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
D. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic before submission.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
You are an HR specialist and want to add new values to a lookup. You have access to the specific work area, but are
unable to perform the activity.
Identify the correct statement about this.
A. You cannot add new lookup codes and meanings to the existing lookup types.
B. You can access the task for profile options from the Setup and Maintenance menu.
C. The system administrator must enable the lookup before it is modified in the work area.
D. Oracle applications contain certain predefined system lookups that are locked for editing.
E. You can create new lookup types but cannot modify the existing ones.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which Approval Types are supported while configuring the Managing Approval Rules: Promote transaction?
A. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Representative, Self Auto Approve,
User
B. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto
Approve
C. Enterprise Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto Approve
D. Data Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Self Auto Approve, User
Correct Answer: A
Youtu.be: Oracle 1z0-1046 exam questions
Practice for the Oracle 1z0-1047 exam questions 1-5
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QUESTION 1
A customer set up the certification requirement for art absence. After scheduling the absence for a subordinate, the line
manager wants to add a certification requirement as an action item, but is unable to do it.
What is the reason for this?
A. You can add the certification requirement to appear as an action item only during the manual absence enrollment
process.
B. Line managers can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they approve the absence;
C. Only HR Specialists can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they schedule an
absence.
D. Only workers can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they schedule an absence.
E. Line managers can configure the certification requirement to appear as an action item after completion of the
absence.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
When setting the expiration details for a Compensatory Plan, which of the following is a valid option?
A. Employee Termination
B. Worked Period
C. Ongoing
D. End of Acquisition Week
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which three are true statements about Absence and Payroll integration? (Choose three.)
A. The options available for configuration vary depending on the legislation chosen when creating absence plans.
B. The setup required in payroll may vary depending on payroll localization.
C. The Absence Element Template creates all of the attributes required to process absences through payroll.
D. The options available for configuration are the same for all the legislations when creating absence plans.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
Your client has a requirement that the employee will not get enrolled into the plan for first six months of hire. Enrollment
and accruals will start after the completion of six months. The plan needs to be Front-Loaded.
How will you configure this in the system?
A. Create a plan having Vesting Period with UOM as Months and duration as 6.
B. Create a rule in Accrual Matrix where you will check the length of service of an employee and if the Length of Service
is less than six months then accrual value should be 0.
C. Write partial period fast formula that enrolls the employee only after six months from hire date.
D. Create a plan having a Waiting Period with UOM as Months and duration as 6.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
After running the calculate accrual process, you notice that 100 employees\\’ balances have not been updated despite
the process running to a successful status. Your customer has requested that the process should fail if any employees
are in error.
What absence batch parameter should you decrease to achieve this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Thread Count
B. Errors
C. Chunk Size
D. Maximum Errors
E. Minimum Errors
F. Thread Size
G. Total Threads
Correct Answer: ACF
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