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QUESTION 1
Which of the following would be a reason for implementing rewrites?
A. Page has been moved to a new URL B. Page has been moved to a new IP address C. Replace vulnerable functions. D. Send connection to secure channel
QUESTION 2
What can an administrator do if a client has been incorrectly Period Blocked?
A. Disconnect the client from the network B. Manually release the IP from the temporary Blacklist C. Nothing, it is not possible to override a Period Block D. Force a new IP address to the client.
QUESTION 3
How does an ADOM differ from a VDOM?
A. ADOMs do not have virtual networking B. ADOMs improve performance by offloading some functions. C. ADOMs only affect specific functions and do not provide full separation as VDOMs do. D. Allows you to have 1 administrator for multiple tenants
QUESTION 4
What capability can FortiWeb add to your Web App that your Web App may or may not already have?
A. Automatic backup and recovery B. High Availability C. HTTP/HTML Form Authentication D. SSL Inspection
QUESTION 5
You are deploying FortiWeb 6.0 in an Amazon Web Services cloud. Which 2 lines of this initial setup via CLI are incorrect? (Choose two.)
A. 6 B. 9 C. 3 D. 2
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is true about Local User Accounts?
A. Must be assigned regardless of any other authentication B. Can be used for Single Sign-On C. Can be used for site publishing D. Best suited for large environments with many users
QUESTION 7
What other considerations must you take into account when configuring Defacement protection
A. Use FortiWeb to block SQL Injections and keep regular backups of the Database B. Also incorporate a FortiADC into your network C. None. FortiWeb completely secures the site against defacement attacks D. Configure the FortiGate to perform Anti-Defacement as well
QUESTION 8
A client is trying to start a session from a page that should normally be accessible only after they have logged in. When a start page rule detects invalid session access, what can FortiWeb do? (Choose three.)
A. Reply with a “403 Forbidden” HTTP error B. Allow the page access but log the violation C. Automatically redirect the client to the login page D. Display an access policy message, then allow the client to continue, redirecting them to their requested page E. Prompt the client to authenticate
QUESTION 9
When generating a protection configuration from an auto-learning report what critical step must you do before generating the final protection configuration?
A. Restart the FortiWeb to clear the caches B. Drill down in the report to correct any false positives. C. Activate the report to create t profile D. Take the FortiWeb offline to apply the profile
QUESTION 10
In Reverse proxy mode, how does FortiWeb handle the traffic that does not match any defined policies?
A. Non-matching traffic is allowed B. non-Matching traffic is held in the buffer C. Non-matching traffic is Denied D. Non-matching traffic is rerouted to FortiGate
QUESTION 11
Under what circumstances would you want to use the temporary uncompress feature of FortiWeb?
A. In the case of compression being done on the FortiWeb, to inspect the content of the compressed file B. In the case of the file being a .MP3 music file C. In the case of compression is done on the webserver, inspect the content of the compressed file. D. In the case of the file being an .MP4 video
QUESTION 12
Which of the following FortiWeb features is part of the mitigation tools against OWASP A4 threats?
A. Sensitive info masking B. Poison Cookie detection C. Session Management D. Brute Force blocking
QUESTION 13
When the FortiWeb is configured in Reverse Proxy mode and the FortiGate is configured as a SNAT device, what IP address will the FortiGate\’s Real Server configuration point at?
A. Virtual Server IP on the FortiGate B. Server\’s real IP C. FortiWeb\’s real IP D. IP Address of the Virtual Server on the FortiWeb
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QUESTION 1 #
You have an ESXi cluster with VMware VMFS LUNs on an AFF A400 system. After troubleshooting performance issues, you determine that timeout best practices are not set on the hosts.
In this scenario, which NetApp tool would apply the best practice settings?
A. SnapManager B. SAN Host Utilities C. SnapCenter Plug-in for VMware vSphere D. Virtual Storage Console (VSC)
You want to enable the internal ONTAP engine that quickly identifies the file and directory differences between two Snapshot copies. In this scenario, which feature would accomplish this task?
A. SnapCenter B. SnapDiff C. SnapVault D. SnapLock
You want to add SSDs to existing HDD aggregates. Which NetApp tool helps you to validate how many SSDs would improve performance?
A. OnCommand Workflow Automation B. Active IQ Unified Manager C. ONTAP System Manager D. Automated Workload Analyzer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button.
You have an ONTAP 9.8 cluster. After network maintenance, the LIF that is shown in the exhibit is not always on a correct port and is unreachable by users until the LIFs are moved to port e0c or e0d on either storage node. In this scenario, which action should you take to ensure that the LIF only fails over to the correct ports?
A. Change the LIF\\’s failover policy to sfo-partner-only B. Split the broadcast domain C. Create a DNS load balancing zone D. Create an IPspace
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
A volume is set to use Adaptive QoS with the default policy. In this scenario, which change would affect the QoS throughput ceiling?
A. The volume is resized B. Disks are added to the volume\\’s aggregate C. Data is added to the volume D. More clients access the volume
You need to configure data-at-rest encryption for your NetApp ONTAP 9.8 cluster. Your company does not have Key Management Interoperability Protocol (KMIP) services are available but must require a passphrase to be entered when a node is rebooted.
In this scenario, which two actions should be performed to satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Enable onboard key management B. Enable common criteria mode C. Configure an external key management server D. Enable cluster-wide FIPS-compliant mode
You are asked to deploy a 2-node ONTAP Select cluster. The physical hardware is located in two different locations and you want the aggregates mirrored synchronously between the two data centers. You must ensure high availability and automated switchover.
In this scenario, which two steps would you take to fulfill this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Use the ONTAP Mediator service to make sure that you have a quorum for the two nodes B. Use ONTAP Select Deploy to install the nodes on the physical hardware C. Ensure that the ONTAP Select Deploy VM resides at a third location other than the two data centers D. Install the SnapMirror Sync license on the cluster
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
Click the Exhibit button.
You are adding a NetApp AFF A400 system to an existing 4-node cluster and want to know which ports you would use to expand your cluster.
Referring to the exhibit, which tool would you use to accomplish this task?
A. NetApp Interoperability Matrix (IMT) B. NetApp Hardware Universe (HWU) C. Active IQ Unified Manager D. Active IQ Config Advisor
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Click the Exhibit button.
You are caching on-premises ONTAP volumes into the cloud with Cloud Volumes ONTAP as shown in the exhibit. In this scenario, which two protocols are supported? (Choose two.)
You are attempting to establish a SnapMirror relationship between your ONTAP cluster (AcmeClus01) and a partner company\\’s ONTAP cluster (WidgetsClus01). The clusters are unable to establish a peering relationship. You perform a packet capture on WidgetsClus01 and do not see any packets from AcmeClus01. You also discover that the IP subnet that is used for WidgetsClus01\\’s intercluster LIFs overlaps with a local subnet at your company.
In this scenario, which feature would enable AcmeClus01 and WidgetsClus01 to peer with each other?
A. VLANs B. broadcast domains C. IPspaces D. ONTAP subnets
You want to configure Active Directory domain controller access for NetApp ONTAP cluster administration. In this scenario, which two actions would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Configure an authentication tunnel through an admin SVM B. Use the server active-directory create command to create a computer account on the domain for a CIFS SVM C. Configure an authentication tunnel through an existing CIFS SVM D. Use the server active-directory create command to create a computer account on the domain for a non-CIFS SVM
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QUESTION 1 #
Which of the following forms of DUID can be configured when DHCPv6 is configured in the VRP system? (multiple choice)
A. DUID-LL B. DUID-LLT C. DUID-EN D. DUID-LLC
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 #
The STP switch sends BPDUs. The correct statement about BPDU is (). (multiple choice)
A. BPDU is a frame using the IEEE802.3 standard B. BPDU is a frame using the Ethernet II standard C. The Control field value of the BPDU frame is 3 D. The destination MAC address of the BPDU frame is the broadcast address
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3 #
What benefits does port aggregation yield? (Choose three)
A. Improves link bandwidth B. Implements load sharing C. Improves network reliability D. Facilitates data copy for analysis
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4 #
A layer 2 LAN switch generates CAM table entries according to the ( ) of the received frame.
A. Source MAC address B. Destination MAC address C. Source IP address D. Destination IP address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 #
The network administrator wishes to transmit data between two end stations. The network interface cards of both devices operate at 100Mbps however one supports half-duplex while the other uses full-duplex mode.
What will occur as a result?
A. The end stations cannot communicate. B. The end stations can communicate, but data may be lost during the transmission of large amounts of traffic. C. The end stations will operate normally D. The end stations can communicate, but speed is different during the transmission of large amounts of traffic
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 #
InARP resolves the protocol address of the remote device on each virtual circuit, including IP addresses and IPX addresses.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 #
Which of the following are routing protocols? (multiple choice)
A. IP B. OSPF C. BGP D. IPX
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8 #
Which of the following port status may exist on an STP-enabled switch?
A. Forwarding B. Listening C. Discarding D. Disabled
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9 #
As shown in the figure, after the network administrator finishes the Telnet configuration on the router, it finds that the host cannot establish a connection with the router through Telnet. Which options can help solve this problem? (multiple choice)
A. Check if the host\’s ARP cache table overflows B. Check if the switch is configured with the default gateway address. C. Use ping to check the IP connectivity between the host and router G0/0/0 interface D. Check if the Telnet configuration on the router is correct.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 10 #
Which of the following protocols can be used on a Layer 2 network with redundant links to prevent loops?
A. UDP B. VRRP C. STP D. ARP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 #
Refer to the debug output. Following the configuration of R2, the administrator discovers that the behavior is not as expected and performs debugging. Based on the output from the debug, what is the source of the problem?
A. R2 has configured an ACL to block the route to network 1.0.0.0 B. R2 has enabled split horizon. C. R1 is using authentication, however, R2 is not. D. R2 is operating using RIPv2, while R1 is using RIPv1.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 #
Which of the following regarding Frame Relay DLCI is correct? (Choose three)
A. DLCI is locally significant B. DLCI is allocated by DTE C. The range of DLCI values that can be used is from 16-1007 D. The same DLCI can be configured on different physical interfaces
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13 #
SNMP packets are encapsulated in TCP packets.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about distributed automatic radio resource provisioning (DARRP) are correct? (Choose two.)
A. DARRP performs continuous spectrum analysis to detect sources of interference. It uses this information to allow the AP to select the optimum channel.
B. DARRP performs measurements of the number of BSSIDs and their signal strength (RSSI). The controller then uses this information to select the optimum channel for the AP.
C. DARRP measurements can be scheduled to occur at specific times.
D. DARRP requires that wireless intrusion detection (WIDS) be enabled to detect neighboring devices.
Correct Answer: AD
RRP (Distributed Automatic Radio Resource Provisioning) technology ensures the wireless infrastructure is always optimized to deliver maximum performance. Fortinet APs enabled with this advanced feature continuously monitor the RF environment for interference, noise, and signals from neighboring APs, enabling the FortiGate WLAN Controller to determine the optimal RF power levels for each AP on the network.
When a new AP is provisioned, DARRP also ensures that it chooses the optimal channel, without administrator intervention.
As a network administrator, you are responsible for managing an enterprise secure wireless LAN. The controller is based in the United States, and you have been asked to deploy a number of managed APs in a remote office in Germany.
What is the correct way to ensure that the RF channels and transmission power limits are appropriately configured for the remote APs?
A. Configure the APs individually by overriding the settings in Managed FortiAPs B. Configure the controller for the correct country code for Germany C. Clone a suitable FortiAP profile and change the county code settings on the profile D. Create a new FortiAP profile and change the county code settings on the profile
Which statement is correct about security profiles on FortiAP devices?
A. Security profiles on FortiAP devices can use FortiGate subscription to inspect the traffic B. Only bridge mode SSIDs can apply the security profiles C. Disable DTLS on FortiAP D. FortiGate performs inspection the wireless traffic
Which two roles does FortiPresence analytics assist in generating presence reports? (Choose two.)
A. Gathering details about on site visitors B. Predicting the number of guest users visiting on-site C. Comparing current data with historical records D. Reporting potential threats by guests on site
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibits. Exhibit A
Exhibit B
A wireless network has been created to support a group of users in a specific area of a building. The wireless network is configured but users are unable to connect to it. The exhibits show the relevant controller configuration for the APs and the wireless network.
Which two configuration changes will resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. For both interfaces in the wtp-profile, configure set vaps to be “Authors” B. Disable intra-vap-privacy for the Authors vap-wireless network C. For both interfaces in the wtp-profile, configure vap-all to be manual D. Increase the transmission power of the AP radio interfaces
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6
Which administrative access method must be enabled on a FortiGate interface to allow APs to connect and function?
A. Security Fabric B. SSH C. HTTPS D. FortiTelemetry
Six APs are located in a remotely based branch office and are managed by a centrally hosted FortiGate. Multiple wireless users frequently connect and roam between the APs in the remote office.
The network they connect to, is secured with WPA2-PSK. As currently configured, the WAN connection between the branch office and the centrally hosted FortiGate is unreliable.
Which configuration would enable the most reliable wireless connectivity for the remote clients?
A. Configure a tunnel mode wireless network and enable split tunneling to the local network B. Configure a bridge mode wireless network and enable the Local standalone configuration option C. Configure a bridge mode wireless network and enable the Local authentication configuration option D. Install supported FortiAP and configure a bridge mode wireless network
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
How are wireless clients assigned to a dynamic VLAN configured for hash mode?
A. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the number of IPs available in the least busy VLAN B. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the number of clients allocated to each of the VLANs C. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the number of VLANs available in the pool D. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the group the FortiAP is a member of
A wireless network has been installed in a small office building and is being used by a business to connect its wireless clients. The network is used for multiple purposes, including corporate access, guest access, and connecting point-ofsale and Io? devices.
Users connecting to the guest network located in the reception area are reporting slow performance. The network administrator is reviewing the information shown in the exhibits as part of the ongoing investigation of the problem. They show the profile used for the AP and the controller RF analysis output together with a screenshot of the GUI showing a summary of the AP and its neighboring APs.
To improve performance for the users connecting to the guest network in this area, which configuration change is most likely to improve performance?
A. Increase the transmission power of the AP radios B. Enable frequency handoff on the AP to band steer clients C. Reduce the number of wireless networks being broadcast by the AP D. Install another AP in the reception area to improve available bandwidth
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Where in the controller interface can you find a wireless client\’s upstream and downstream link rates?
A. On the AP CLI, using the cw_diag ksta command B. On the controller CLI, using the diag wireless-controller wlac -d sta command C. On the AP CLI, using the cw_diag -d sta command D. On the controller CLI, using the WiFi Client monitor
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibits. Exhibit A Exhibit B
The exhibits show the diagnose debug log of a station connection taken on the controller CLI. Which security mode is used by the wireless connection?
A. WPA2 Enterprise B. WPA3 Enterprise C. WPA2 Personal and radius MAC filtering D. Open, with radius MAC filtering
If the signal is set to -68 dB on the FortiPlanner site survey reading, which statement is correct regarding the coverage area?
A. Areas with the signal strength equal to -68 dB are zoomed in to provide better visibility B. Areas with the signal strength weaker than -68 dB are cut out of the map C. Areas with the signal strength equal or stronger than -68 dB are highlighted in multicolor D. Areas with the signal strength weaker than -68 dB are highlighted in orange and red to indicate that no signal was propagated by the APs.
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 #
After the Vault administrator configures Syslog integration on the Vault, the Vault will be able to.
A. forward ITALOG records to Security Information and Event Management (SIEM). B. send out Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) traps. C. forward audit records to Security Information and Event Management (SIEM). D. forward emails to SIEM.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 #
What are the chief benefits of PSM? Choose all that apply
A. Privileged Session Isolation B. Automatic Password Management C. Privileged Session Recording D. A and C
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 #
When working with the CyberArk Cluster, which service is considered Optional (i.e., failure of the service does not mandate a failover)?
A. PrivateArk Server B. PrivateArk Database C. Event Notification Engine D. Logic Container
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 #
PSM requires the Remote Desktop Gateway role service.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 #
Which Master Policy?
A. Password Expiration Time B. Enabling and Disabling of the Connection Through the PSM C. Password Complexity D. The use of “One-Time-Passwords”
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 #
Using the SSH Key Manager it is possible to allow CPM to manage SSH Keys similarly to passwords.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 #
Which file is used to integrate the Vault with your Radius server?
A. radius.ini B. parent in C. ENEConf.ini D. dbparm.ini
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 #
A Logon Account can be specified in the Master Policy A. TRUE B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 #
Which file does the Vault administrator need to edit in order to configure the integration of the Vault with the radius server?
A. radius.ini B. PARagent.ini C. ENEConf.ini D. dbparm.ini
Which of the following are prerequisites for installing PVWA Check all that Apply
A. Web Services Role B. NET 4.5.1 Framework Feature C. Remote Desktop Services Role D. Windows BitLocker
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 #
What is the proper way to allow the Vault to resolve hostnames?
A. Define a DNS server B. Define a WINS server C. Defining the local host’s file D. The Vault cannot resolve hostnames due to security standards
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 #
In Accounts Discovery, you can configure a Windows discovery to scan______________.
A. as many OUs as you wish B. up to three OUs. C. only one OU. D. a number of OUs determined by the OUstoScan setting under the Accounts Feed section in the Administration tab
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 #
It is impossible to override Master Policy settings for a Platform
