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QUESTION 1 #

You have an ESXi cluster with VMware VMFS LUNs on an AFF A400 system. After troubleshooting performance
issues, you determine that timeout best practices are not set on the hosts.

In this scenario, which NetApp tool would apply the best practice settings?

A. SnapManager
B. SAN Host Utilities
C. SnapCenter Plug-in for VMware vSphere
D. Virtual Storage Console (VSC)

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/vapp-96/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.vsc-dsg%2FGUIDEAD6C97BA9E4-4C07-BAD8-790ACEE0897B.html

QUESTION 2

Which two statements are true about NVMe? (Choose two.)

A. NQNs are added to namespaces
B. LUNs are mapped to initiator groups
C. Namespaces are mapped to subsystems
D. NQNs are added to subsystems

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cmsanag%2FGUID52A6B6A1-61F8-4845-91CB-B13A1526CC30.html

QUESTION 3

You want to enable the internal ONTAP engine that quickly identifies the file and directory differences between two
Snapshot copies. In this scenario, which feature would accomplish this task?

A. SnapCenter
B. SnapDiff
C. SnapVault
D. SnapLock

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1196874/html/GUIDC2793E0D-0AB5-40FD-9F36324F3178FF6F.html

QUESTION 4

Your company has purchased two NetApp AFF A400 HA pairs. During deployment, how many root aggregates are
created?

A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 4

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/fr/media/13482-tr4375.pdf

QUESTION 5

You want to add SSDs to existing HDD aggregates.
Which NetApp tool helps you to validate how many SSDs would improve performance?

A. OnCommand Workflow Automation
B. Active IQ Unified Manager
C. ONTAP System Manager
D. Automated Workload Analyzer

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

Click the Exhibit button.

You have an ONTAP 9.8 cluster. After network maintenance, the LIF that is shown in the exhibit is not always on a
correct port and is unreachable by users until the LIFs are moved to port e0c or e0d on either storage node.
In this scenario, which action should you take to ensure that the LIF only fails over to the correct ports?

A. Change the LIF\\’s failover policy to sfo-partner-only
B. Split the broadcast domain
C. Create a DNS load balancing zone
D. Create an IPspace

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

A volume is set to use Adaptive QoS with the default policy.
In this scenario, which change would affect the QoS throughput ceiling?

A. The volume is resized
B. Disks are added to the volume\\’s aggregate
C. Data is added to the volume
D. More clients access the volume

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.flackbox.com/netapp-storage-qos-tutorial

QUESTION 8

You need to configure data-at-rest encryption for your NetApp ONTAP 9.8 cluster. Your company does not have Key
Management Interoperability Protocol (KMIP) services are available but must require a passphrase to be entered when a node is rebooted.

In this scenario, which two actions should be performed to satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Enable onboard key management
B. Enable common criteria mode
C. Configure an external key management server
D. Enable cluster-wide FIPS-compliant mode

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/topic/com.netapp.doc.pow-nve/Encryption%20of%20data%
20at%20rest.pdf

QUESTION 9

You are asked to deploy a 2-node ONTAP Select cluster. The physical hardware is located in two different locations and
you want the aggregates mirrored synchronously between the two data centers. You must ensure high availability and
automated switchover.

In this scenario, which two steps would you take to fulfill this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Use the ONTAP Mediator service to make sure that you have a quorum for the two nodes
B. Use ONTAP Select Deploy to install the nodes on the physical hardware
C. Ensure that the ONTAP Select Deploy VM resides at a third location other than the two data centers
D. Install the SnapMirror Sync license on the cluster

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10

Click the Exhibit button.

You are adding a NetApp AFF A400 system to an existing 4-node cluster and want to know which ports you would use
to expand your cluster.

Referring to the exhibit, which tool would you use to accomplish this task?

A. NetApp Interoperability Matrix (IMT)
B. NetApp Hardware Universe (HWU)
C. Active IQ Unified Manager
D. Active IQ Config Advisor

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Click the Exhibit button.

You are caching on-premises ONTAP volumes into the cloud with Cloud Volumes ONTAP as shown in the exhibit.
In this scenario, which two protocols are supported? (Choose two.)

A. NVMe
B. SMB
C. NFS
D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/occm/pdfs/sidebar/Manage_Cloud_Volumes_ONTAP.pdf

QUESTION 12

You are attempting to establish a SnapMirror relationship between your ONTAP cluster (AcmeClus01) and a partner
company\\’s ONTAP cluster (WidgetsClus01). The clusters are unable to establish a peering relationship. You perform a
packet capture on WidgetsClus01 and do not see any packets from AcmeClus01. You also discover that the IP subnet
that is used for WidgetsClus01\\’s intercluster LIFs overlaps with a local subnet at your company.

In this scenario, which feature would enable AcmeClus01 and WidgetsClus01 to peer with each other?

A. VLANs
B. broadcast domains
C. IPspaces
D. ONTAP subnets

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=andved=2ahUKEwj0166P
sY3yAhVKAWMBHbxDCkQFjAFegQIBBADandurl=https%3A%2F%2Fdownload.lenovo.com%2Fstorage%2Fsnapmirror_configuration_and_best_practices_guide_for_ontap_9.pdfandusg=AOvVaw19DXzCszrQCTXEWGtrbRQ7

QUESTION 13

You want to configure Active Directory domain controller access for NetApp ONTAP cluster administration.
In this scenario, which two actions would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Configure an authentication tunnel through an admin SVM
B. Use the server active-directory create command to create a computer account on the domain for a CIFS SVM
C. Configure an authentication tunnel through an existing CIFS SVM
D. Use the server active-directory create command to create a computer account on the domain for a non-CIFS SVM

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/topic/com.netapp.doc.pow-adm-auth-rbac/Administrator%
20authentication%20and%20RBAC.pdf

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QUESTION 1 #


Which of the following forms of DUID can be configured when DHCPv6 is configured in the VRP system? (multiple
choice)

A. DUID-LL
B. DUID-LLT
C. DUID-EN
D. DUID-LLC

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2 #

The STP switch sends BPDUs. The correct statement about BPDU is (). (multiple choice)

A. BPDU is a frame using the IEEE802.3 standard
B. BPDU is a frame using the Ethernet II standard
C. The Control field value of the BPDU frame is 3
D. The destination MAC address of the BPDU frame is the broadcast address

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3 #

What benefits does port aggregation yield? (Choose three)

A. Improves link bandwidth
B. Implements load sharing
C. Improves network reliability
D. Facilitates data copy for analysis

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4 #

A layer 2 LAN switch generates CAM table entries according to the ( ) of the received frame.

A. Source MAC address
B. Destination MAC address
C. Source IP address
D. Destination IP address

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5 #

The network administrator wishes to transmit data between two end stations. The network interface cards of both
devices operate at 100Mbps however one supports half-duplex while the other uses full-duplex
mode.

What will occur as a result?

A. The end stations cannot communicate.
B. The end stations can communicate, but data may be lost during the transmission of large amounts of traffic.
C. The end stations will operate normally
D. The end stations can communicate, but speed is different during the transmission of large amounts of traffic

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6 #

InARP resolves the protocol address of the remote device on each virtual circuit, including IP addresses and IPX
addresses.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7 #

Which of the following are routing protocols? (multiple choice)

A. IP
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. IPX

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8 #

Which of the following port status may exist on an STP-enabled switch?

A. Forwarding
B. Listening
C. Discarding
D. Disabled

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9 #

As shown in the figure, after the network administrator finishes the Telnet configuration on the router, it finds that the host cannot establish a connection with the router through Telnet. Which options can help solve this problem? (multiple choice)

A. Check if the host\’s ARP cache table overflows
B. Check if the switch is configured with the default gateway address.
C. Use ping to check the IP connectivity between the host and router G0/0/0 interface
D. Check if the Telnet configuration on the router is correct.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10 #

Which of the following protocols can be used on a Layer 2 network with redundant links to prevent loops?

A. UDP
B. VRRP
C. STP
D. ARP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11 #

Refer to the debug output. Following the configuration of R2, the administrator discovers that the behavior is not as
expected and performs debugging. Based on the output from the debug, what is the source of the problem?

A. R2 has configured an ACL to block the route to network 1.0.0.0
B. R2 has enabled split horizon.
C. R1 is using authentication, however, R2 is not.
D. R2 is operating using RIPv2, while R1 is using RIPv1.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12 #

Which of the following regarding Frame Relay DLCI is correct? (Choose three)

A. DLCI is locally significant
B. DLCI is allocated by DTE
C. The range of DLCI values that can be used is from 16-1007
D. The same DLCI can be configured on different physical interfaces

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13 #

SNMP packets are encapsulated in TCP packets.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

Which two statements about distributed automatic radio resource provisioning (DARRP) are correct? (Choose two.)

A. DARRP performs continuous spectrum analysis to detect sources of interference. It uses this information to allow the
AP to select the optimum channel.

B. DARRP performs measurements of the number of BSSIDs and their signal strength (RSSI). The controller then uses
this information to select the optimum channel for the AP.

C. DARRP measurements can be scheduled to occur at specific times.

D. DARRP requires that wireless intrusion detection (WIDS) be enabled to detect neighboring devices.

Correct Answer: AD

RRP (Distributed Automatic Radio Resource Provisioning) technology ensures the wireless infrastructure is always optimized to deliver maximum performance. Fortinet APs enabled with this advanced feature continuously monitor the RF environment for interference, noise, and signals from neighboring APs, enabling the FortiGate WLAN Controller to determine the optimal RF power levels for each AP on the network.

When a new AP is provisioned, DARRP also ensures that it chooses the optimal channel, without administrator intervention.

Reference: http://www.corex.at/Produktinfos/FortiOS_Wireless.pdf

QUESTION 2

As a network administrator, you are responsible for managing an enterprise secure wireless LAN. The controller is
based in the United States, and you have been asked to deploy a number of managed APs in a remote office in
Germany.

What is the correct way to ensure that the RF channels and transmission power limits are appropriately configured for
the remote APs?

A. Configure the APs individually by overriding the settings in Managed FortiAPs
B. Configure the controller for the correct country code for Germany
C. Clone a suitable FortiAP profile and change the county code settings on the profile
D. Create a new FortiAP profile and change the county code settings on the profile

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/69a8fa9c-1eaa-11e9b6f6-f8bc1258b856/fortigate-fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide-54.pdf

QUESTION 3

Which statement is correct about security profiles on FortiAP devices?

A. Security profiles on FortiAP devices can use FortiGate subscription to inspect the traffic
B. Only bridge mode SSIDs can apply the security profiles
C. Disable DTLS on FortiAP
D. FortiGate performs inspection the wireless traffic

Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiap/6.4.0/fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide/47321/ fortiap-sbridge-mode-security-profiles

QUESTION 4

Which two roles does FortiPresence analytics assist in generating presence reports? (Choose two.)

A. Gathering details about on site visitors
B. Predicting the number of guest users visiting on-site
C. Comparing current data with historical records
D. Reporting potential threats by guests on site

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A

Exhibit B

A wireless network has been created to support a group of users in a specific area of a building. The wireless network is
configured but users are unable to connect to it. The exhibits show the relevant controller configuration for the APs and the wireless network.

Which two configuration changes will resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A. For both interfaces in the wtp-profile, configure set vaps to be “Authors”
B. Disable intra-vap-privacy for the Authors vap-wireless network
C. For both interfaces in the wtp-profile, configure vap-all to be manual
D. Increase the transmission power of the AP radio interfaces

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6

Which administrative access method must be enabled on a FortiGate interface to allow APs to connect and function?

A. Security Fabric
B. SSH
C. HTTPS
D. FortiTelemetry

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.9/cookbook/788897/configuring-the-rootfortigate-anddownstream-fortigates

QUESTION 7

Six APs are located in a remotely based branch office and are managed by a centrally hosted FortiGate. Multiple
wireless users frequently connect and roam between the APs in the remote office.

The network they connect to, is secured with WPA2-PSK. As currently configured, the WAN connection between the
branch office and the centrally hosted FortiGate is unreliable.

Which configuration would enable the most reliable wireless connectivity for the remote clients?

A. Configure a tunnel mode wireless network and enable split tunneling to the local network
B. Configure a bridge mode wireless network and enable the Local standalone configuration option
C. Configure a bridge mode wireless network and enable the Local authentication configuration option
D. Install supported FortiAP and configure a bridge mode wireless network

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

How are wireless clients assigned to a dynamic VLAN configured for hash mode?

A. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the number of IPs available in the least busy
VLAN
B. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the number of clients allocated to each of the
VLANs
C. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the number of VLANs available in the pool
D. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the group the FortiAP is a member of

Correct Answer: C
VLAN from the VLAN pool based on a hash of the current number of SSID clients and the number of entries in the VLAN pool.
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiap/7.0.1/fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide/376326/ configuringdynamic-user-vlan-assignment

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A.

Exhibit B.

Exhibit C.

NSE6_FWF-6.4-exam-questions-q9-3

A wireless network has been installed in a small office building and is being used by a business to connect its wireless
clients. The network is used for multiple purposes, including corporate access, guest access, and connecting point-ofsale and Io? devices.

Users connecting to the guest network located in the reception area are reporting slow performance. The network
administrator is reviewing the information shown in the exhibits as part of the ongoing investigation of the problem. They show the profile used for the AP and the controller RF analysis output together with a screenshot of the GUI showing a summary of the AP and its neighboring APs.

To improve performance for the users connecting to the guest network in this area, which configuration change is most
likely to improve performance?

A. Increase the transmission power of the AP radios
B. Enable frequency handoff on the AP to band steer clients
C. Reduce the number of wireless networks being broadcast by the AP
D. Install another AP in the reception area to improve available bandwidth

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Where in the controller interface can you find a wireless client\’s upstream and downstream link rates?

A. On the AP CLI, using the cw_diag ksta command
B. On the controller CLI, using the diag wireless-controller wlac -d sta command
C. On the AP CLI, using the cw_diag -d sta command
D. On the controller CLI, using the WiFi Client monitor

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A Exhibit B

The exhibits show the diagnose debug log of a station connection taken on the controller CLI. Which security mode is
used by the wireless connection?

A. WPA2 Enterprise
B. WPA3 Enterprise
C. WPA2 Personal and radius MAC filtering
D. Open, with radius MAC filtering

Correct Answer: A
Best security option is WPA2-AES.
Reference: https://www.esecurityplanet.com/trends/the-best-security-for-wireless-networks/

QUESTION 12

As standard best practice, which configuration should be performed before configuring FortiAPs using a FortiGate
wireless controller?

A. Create wireless LAN specific policies
B. Preauthorize APs
C. Create a custom AP profile
D. Set the wireless controller country setting

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiap/6.4.1/fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide/547298/ complexwireless-network-example

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit.

If the signal is set to -68 dB on the FortiPlanner site survey reading, which statement is correct regarding the coverage
area?

A. Areas with the signal strength equal to -68 dB are zoomed in to provide better visibility
B. Areas with the signal strength weaker than -68 dB are cut out of the map
C. Areas with the signal strength equal or stronger than -68 dB are highlighted in multicolor
D. Areas with the signal strength weaker than -68 dB are highlighted in orange and red to indicate that no signal was
propagated by the APs.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1 #

After the Vault administrator configures Syslog integration on the Vault, the Vault will be able to.

A. forward ITALOG records to Security Information and Event Management (SIEM).
B. send out Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) traps.
C. forward audit records to Security Information and Event Management (SIEM).
D. forward emails to SIEM.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2 #

What are the chief benefits of PSM? Choose all that apply

A. Privileged Session Isolation
B. Automatic Password Management
C. Privileged Session Recording
D. A and C

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3 #

When working with the CyberArk Cluster, which service is considered Optional (i.e., failure of the service does not
mandate a failover)?

A. PrivateArk Server
B. PrivateArk Database
C. Event Notification Engine
D. Logic Container

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4 #

PSM requires the Remote Desktop Gateway role service.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5 #

Which Master Policy?

A. Password Expiration Time
B. Enabling and Disabling of the Connection Through the PSM
C. Password Complexity
D. The use of “One-Time-Passwords”

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6 #

Using the SSH Key Manager it is possible to allow CPM to manage SSH Keys similarly to passwords.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7 #

Which file is used to integrate the Vault with your Radius server?

A. radius.ini
B. parent in
C. ENEConf.ini
D. dbparm.ini

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8 #

A Logon Account can be specified in the Master Policy
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9 #

Which file does the Vault administrator need to edit in order to configure the integration of the Vault with the radius
server?

A. radius.ini
B. PARagent.ini
C. ENEConf.ini
D. dbparm.ini

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.cyberark.com/Product-Doc/OnlineHelp/PAS/Latest/en/Content/PAS%20INST/RADIUSAuthentication.htm

QUESTION 10 #

Which of the following are prerequisites for installing PVWA Check all that Apply

A. Web Services Role
B. NET 4.5.1 Framework Feature
C. Remote Desktop Services Role
D. Windows BitLocker

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11 #

What is the proper way to allow the Vault to resolve hostnames?

A. Define a DNS server
B. Define a WINS server
C. Defining the local host’s file
D. The Vault cannot resolve hostnames due to security standards

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12 #

In Accounts Discovery, you can configure a Windows discovery to scan______________.

A. as many OUs as you wish
B. up to three OUs.
C. only one OU.
D. a number of OUs determined by the OUstoScan setting under the Accounts Feed section in the Administration tab

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13 #

It is impossible to override Master Policy settings for a Platform

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

Your users require both NFS and SMB file services. You do not want to manage the storage ONTAP System Manager
or the command-line interface.

In this scenario, which two products would satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon S3 Glacier
B. Azure Blob Storage
C. Azure NetApp Files
D. Cloud Volumes Service

QUESTION 2

Which two protocols are supported with an E-Series system? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. FC
D. SMB

QUESTION 3

Which two tools would you use to manage your NetApp SolidFire SDS storage cluster? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp Active IQ Unified Manager
B. NetApp Element UI
C. NetApp Element Plug-in for VMware vCenter Server
D. NetApp Cloud Manager

QUESTION 4

When creating a StorageGRID solution with two sites, how many storage nodes are rewired?

A. at least three nodes per site
B. at least one node per site
C. at least two nodes per site
D. at least four nodes in total

QUESTION 5

Which three benefits of using NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP for AWS? (Choose three.)

A. automatic tiering to Amazon S3 for cost reduction
B. automatic replication to Cloud Volumes Service with SnapMirror
C. ONTAP thin provisioning for space efficiency and over-provisioning
D. NetApp Aggregate Encryption (NAE) with Onboard Key Manager
E. ONTAP data reduction mechanisms with compression and deduplication

QUESTION 6

You are asked to create and manage working environments in NetApp Cloud Manager. In this scenario, which user role
would enable you to perform this assignment?

A. Cluster Admin
B. Compliance Viewer
C. Storage Admin
D. Account Admin

QUESTION 7

Cloud Manager would be used to manage which two NetApp storage resources? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp StorageGRID
B. NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP
C. NetApp All Flash FAS (AFF)
D. NetApp E-Series

QUESTION 8

Which two enable you to tier data that is stored in an ONTAP system to an object store? (Choose two.)

A. FlexGroup
B. CloudSync
C. FabricPool
D. Cloud Tiering

QUESTION 9

What provides dynamic storage orchestration services for Kubernetes workloads?

A. Ansible
B. SANtricity OS
C. Trident
D. ONTAP software

QUESTION 10

Which software references NetApp ONTAP Snapshot metadata to create writable, point-in-time copies of a volume?

A. SnapVault
B. FlexClone
C. SnapLock
D. FlexCache

QUESTION 11

Which two NetApp features encrypt the storage data? (Choose two.)

A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
B. Encrypted File System (EFS)
C. NetApp Volume Encryption
D. NetApp Storage Encryption

QUESTION 12

Which attribute of a host is used to route packs to a non-local subnet?

A. VLAN trunk
B. default gateway
C. NTP server
D. DNS server

QUESTION 13

You want your developers to be able to request storage on private and public cloud locations using a single API
endpoint.

In this scenario, which NetApp service provides this capability?

A. Cloud Manager
B. Cloud Sync
C. Cloud Volumes ONTAP
D. Cloud Volumes Services

The answer is at the end of the article. It is better to practice and learn independently without looking at the answer. When you are done, check the answer and analysis.

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Correct Answer!

Q1,Q2, Q3, Q4,Q5,Q6,Q7,Q8,Q9,Q10,Q11,Q12,Q13
CD,AC,AB, A,ABE, D,CD,CD,C,B,CD,D,A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-netapp-files/azure-netapp-files-faqs
https://www.netapp.com/knowledge-center/what-is-cloud-volumes/
Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/sgws-111/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.sgadmin%2FGUID4982C9E3-7D7B-460C-83E1-8514BD12C1A9.html
Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/occm38/pdfs/sidebar/Get_started_with_Cloud_Manager.pdf (page 6)Reference: https://cloud.netapp.com/hubfs/OnCommand_Cloud_Manager_solution_brief-1.pdfReference: https://thinksystem.lenovofiles.com/storage/help/topic/
managing_storage_tiers_by_using_fabricpool/M_EB611646-616F-4943-9A83-C6CBD5FFB684_.pdf
Reference: https://netapp.io/persistent-storage-provisioner-for-kubernetes/Reference: https://netapp.io/persistent-storage-provisioner-for-kubernetes/