Cisco 640-802 Exam Certification Guide presents you with an organized test preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques. “Do I Know This Already?” quizzes open each chapter and allow you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section. Cisco 640-802 lists and Foundation Summary tables make referencing easy and give you a quick refresher whenever you need it. Challenging Cisco 640-802 review questions help you assess your knowledge and reinforce key concepts. Cisco 640-802 exercises help you think about exam objectives in real-world situations, thus increasing recall during exam time.
Exam A
QUESTION 1
The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950 Switch. Switch port port-security Switch port port-security mac-address sticky Switch port port-security maximum1
2950Switch (config-if)# switch port port-security 2950Switch (config-if)# switch port port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch (config-if)# switch port port-security maximum1
The Ethernent frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.Which two functions will occur when this frame rec two.)
Exhibit:
A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF FFFF FFFF.
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
D. All frame will arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forward.
F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb bbbb. the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forward.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Multiple Questions
Enter IOS commands on the Dubai router to verify network operation and answer for multiple-choice
questions.
This TASK DOES NOT REQUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.
Click on the Console PC to gain access to the console of the router. No console of enable passwords are
required.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before
selecting the Next button.
No console of enable passwords are required.
What destination Layer2 address will be used in the frame header containing a 172.30.0.4?
A.694
B.24
C.248
D.882
Which connection uses the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers?
A. The serial connection to the South branch office.
B. The serial connection to the North Coast branch office.
C. The serial connection to the North branch office.
D. The serial connection to the Multinational Core.
To access the multinle-choice question click on the numbered if required, what password shouldbe configured on the router in the North branch office to allow a connection to be established withthe Dubai router?
A. Console B.En8ble C.Scr8 D.T1net
E. No password is required
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to A static map to the C-AMERlocation is required. Which command should be used to create this map?
A. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3694 broadcast
B. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.324 broadcast
C. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3248 broadcast
D. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3882 broadcast
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
What destination Layer2 address will be used in the frame header containing a 172.30.0.4?
A.694
B.24
C.248
D.882
Answer: A
Which connection uses the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers?
A. The serial connection to the South branch office.
B. The serial connection to the North Coast branch office.
C. The serial connection to the North branch office.
D. The serial connection to the Multinational Core.
Answer: C
Click on the Consore PC to gain access to the cosore of the router. No console or enable password are required.
To access the multinle-choice question click on the numbered if required, what password shouldbe configured on the router in the North branch office to allow a connection to be established withthe Dubai router?
A. Console B.En8ble C.Scr8 D.T1net
E. No password is required
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Bomar (Config)#interface fa0/0 Bomar(Config-if)#ip nat inside Bomar(Config)#interface S0/0 Bomar(Config-if)#ip nat outside Bomar(Config-if)#exit Bomar(Config)#access-list 1 permit 192.168.16.33 0.0.0.15 Bomar(Config)#ip nat pool nat_test 198.18.237.225 198.18.237.230 prefix-length 29 Bomar(Config)#ip nat
inside source list 1 pool nat_test overload Bomar(Config)#end Bomar#ping 192.0.2.114
( The command ping must be successful) QUESTION 4
To configure the router (Gotha) click on the console host icon that is connected to a router by a serial console cable(shown in the diagram as a dashed black line). you can click on the buttons below to view the different windows. Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-].You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar. The “Tab”key and most commands that use the “Control” or “Escape” keys are not supported and are not necessary to complete this simulation. The help command does not display all commands of the help system. Central Florida Widgets recently installed a new router in their Gotha office. Complete the net work installation by performing the initial router configurations and configuring RIPv2 routing using the router command line interface(CLI) on the Gotha router. Configure the router per the following requirements: Name of the roter is Gotha Enable-secret password is mi222ke The password to access user EXEC mode using the console is G8tors1 The password to allow telnet accessto the router is dun63lap IPv4 addresses must be configured as follows: Ethernet network209.165.201.0/27-router has fourth assignable host address in subnet. Serial network is 192.0.2.176/28-router has last assignable host address in the subnet. Interfaces should be enabled. Routing protocol is RIPv2.
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Router>enable Router#config terminal Router(config)#hostname Gotha Gotha(config)#enable secret mi222ke Gotha (config) #line console 0 Gotha (config-line) #password G8tors1 Gotha (config-line) #exit Gotha (config) #line vty 04 Gotha(config-line)#password dun63lab Gotha(config-line)#login Gotha(config-line)#exit Gotha(config)#interface fa0/0 Gotha(config-if)#ip address 209.165.201.4 255.255.255.224 Gotha(config-if)# no shutdown Gotha(config)#interface s0/0/0 Gotha(config-if)#ip address 192.0.2.190 255.255.255.240 Gotha(config-if)#clock rate 56000 Gotha(config-if)#no shutdown Gotha(config-if)#exit Gotha(config)#router rip Gotha(config-router)#version 2 Gotha(config-router)#network 209.165.201.0 Gotha(config-router)#network 192.0.2.176 Gotha(config-router)#no auto-summary Gotha(config-router)#end Gotha#copy run start
QUESTION 5
After adding TIS2 router, no routing updates are being exchanged between TIS1 and the new location. All other inter connectivity and Internet access for the existing locations of the company are working properly. The task is to identify the fault(s) and correct the router configuration to provide full connectivity between the routers. Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host. All passwords on all routers are cisco. IP addresses are listed in the chart below.
Click on host-G, complete the configration of the router in the pop-up CLI
******************************************************************************************* TISA# show run interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 192.168.60.97 255.255.255.24
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
ip address 192.168.60.113 255.255.255.240
! interface Serial0/0 Ip address 192.168.36.14 255.255.255.252 Clockrate 64000 !
router eigrp 212
Network 192.168.36.0
Network 192.168.60.0
No auto-summary !
TISA# show ip route
192.168.36.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
C 192.168.36.12 is directly connected, Serial0/0
192.168.60.0/24 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 2 masks
C 192.168.60.96/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
C 192.168.60.112/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1
D 192.168.60.128/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.13, 00:00:57, Serial0/0
D 192.168.60.144/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.13, 00:00:57, Serial0/0
D 192.168.60.24/30 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.13, 00:00:57, Serial0/0
D* 198.0.18.0 [ 90/21024000 ] via 192.168.36.13, 00:00:57, Serial0/0 ******************************************************************************************* TIS2# show run ! ! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.77.34 255.255.255.252 ! interface FastEtherner0/1 ip address 192.168.60.65 255.255.255.240 ! interface FastEthernet1/0 ip address 192.168.60.81 255.255.255.240 ! ! router eigrp 22 network 192.168.60.0 network 192.168.77.0 no auto-summary
TIS2# show ip route 192.168.60.0/28 is subnetted, 2 subnets C 192.168.60.80 is directly connected, FastEthernet1/0 C 192.168.60.64 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 192.168.77.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 192.168.77.32 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 ******************************************************************************************* TISB# show run
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 192.168.60.129 255.255.255.240 ! interface FastEthernet0/1 ip address 192.168.60.145 255.255.255.240 ! interface Serial0/1
ip address 192.168.60.26 255.255.255.252
router eigrp 212
network 192.168.60.0
network 192.168.60.0
TISB# show ip route
192.168.60.0/24 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 2 masks
C 192.168.60.24/30 is directly connected, Serial0/1
C 192.168.60.128/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
C 192.168.60.144/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1
D 192.168.60.96/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.25, 00:00:57, Serial0/1
D 192.168.60.112/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.25, 00:00:57, Serial0/1
192.168.36.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 192.168.36.12 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.25, 00:00:57, Serial0/1
D* 198.0.18.0 [ 90/21024000 ] via 192.168.60.25, 00:00:57, Serial0/1 ********************************************************************************************************* TIS1# show run ! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.77.33 255.255.255.252 ! interface Serial1/0 ip address 198.0.18.6 255.255.255.0 ! interface Serial0/0 ip address 192.168.36.13 255.255.255.252 clockrate 64000 ! interface Serial0/1 ip address 192.168.60.25 255.255.255.252 clockrate 64000 ! ! router eigrp 212 network 192.168.36.0 network 192.168.60.0 network 192.168.85.0 network 198.0.18.0 no auto-summary ! ip classless ip default-network 198.0.18.0 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.0.18.5 ip http server
TIS1# sh ip route
192.168.36.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
C 192.168.36.12 is directly connected, Serial0/0
192.168.60.0/24 is variably subnetted, 5 subnets, 2 masks
C 192.168.60.24/30 is directly connected, Serial0/1
D 192.168.60.128/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.26, 00:00:57, Serial0/1 D 192.168.60.144/28
[ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.60.26, 00:00:57, Serial0/1
D 192.168.60.96/28 [ 90/21026560 ] via 192.168.36.14, 00:00:57, Serial0/0 192.168.77.0/30 is subnetted,
1 subnets
C 192.168.77.32 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
C 198.0.18.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0
*S 0.0.0.0 via 198.0.18.5
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Please input commands here: TIS2>enable TIS2#config t TIS2(config)#no router eigrp 22 TIS2(config)#router eigrp 212 TIS2(config-router)#network 192.16.60.0 TIS2(config-router)#network 192.16.77.0 TIS1>enable TIS1#config t TIS1(config)#router eigrp 212 TIS1(config-router)#network 192.16.77.0
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Complete this network diagram by dragging the correct device name of description name or description to the correct location. Not all the names or descriptions will be used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This volume is part of the Exam Certification Guide Series from Cisco 640-802. Cisco 640-802 in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help Cisco 640-802 Certification candidates identify weaknesses, concentrate their study efforts, and enhance their confidence as Cisco 640-802 exam day nears.
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: AD Section: A.) Objective Exams IExplanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the diagram. All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)
A. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192.
B. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128.
C. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
D. The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
E. The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
F. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.
Correct Answer: BCF Section: A.) Objective Exams I Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the diagram. Which three statements describe the router port configuration and the switch port configuration as shown in the topology? (Choose three.)
A. The Router1 WAN port is configured as a trunking port.
B. The Router1 port connected to Switch1 is configured using subinterfaces.
C. The Router1 port connected to Switch1 is configured as 10 Mbps.
D. The Switch1 port connected to Router1 is configured as a trunking port.
E. The Switch1 port connected to Host B is configured as an access port.
F. The Switch1 port connected to Hub1 is configured as full duplex.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: A.) Objective Exams I Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which routing protocols will support the following IP addressing scheme? (Choose three.) Network 1 –
192.168.10.0 /26 Network 2 – 192.168.10.64 /27 Network 3 – 192.168.10.96 /27 Network 4 – 192.168.10.128 /30 Network 5 – 192.168.10.132 /30
A. RIP version 1
B. RIP version 2
C. IGRP
D. EIGRP
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: BDE Section: A.) Objective Exams IExplanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the partial command output shown. Which two statements are correct regarding the router hardware? (Choose two.)
A. Total RAM size is 32 KB.
B. Total RAM size is 16384 KB (16 MB).
C. Total RAM size is 65536 KB (64 MB).
D. Flash size is 32 KB.
E. Flash size is 16384 KB (16 MB).
F. Flash size is 65536 KB (64 MB).
Correct Answer: CE Section: A.) Objective Exams I Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
The Ethernet networks connected to router R1 in the graphic have been summarized for router R2 as 192.1.144.0/20. Which of the following packet destination addresses will R2 forward to R1, according to this summary? (Choose two.)
A. 192.1.159.2
B. 192.1.160.11
C. 192.1.138.41
D. 192.1.151.254
E. 192.1.143.145
F. 192.1.1.144
Correct Answer: AD Section: A.) Objective Exams I Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7
The show interfaces serial 0/0 command resulted in the output shown in the graphic. What are possible causes for this interface status? (Choose three.)
A. The interface is shut down.
B. No keepalive messages are received.
C. The clockrate is not set.
D. No loopback address is set.
E. No cable is attached to the interface.
F. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: BCF Section: A.) Objective Exams I Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization
Correct Answer: BD Section: A.) Objective Exams I Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.
Correct Answer: BD Section: A.) Objective Exams IExplanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
A network associate is trying to understand the operation of the FLD Corporation by studying the network in the exhibit. The associate knows that the server in VLAN 4 provides the necessary resources to support the user hosts in the other VLANs. The associate needs to determine which interfaces are access ports. Which interfaces are access ports? (Choose three.)
A. Switch1 – Fa 0/2
B. Switch1 – Fa 0/9
C. Switch2 – Fa 0/3
D. Switch2 – Fa 0/4
E. Switch2 – Fa 0/8
F. Router – Fa 1/0
Correct Answer: ACD
Section: A.) Objective Exams IExplanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which destination addresses will Host A use to send data to Host B? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch1
B. the IP address of Router1 Fa0/0
C. the IP address of HostB
D. the MAC address of Switch1
E. the MAC address of Router1 Fa0/0
F. the MAC address of HostB
Correct Answer: CE Section: A.) Objective Exams I Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Exam A
QUESTION 1
According to the following exhibit, company 1 contains two autonomous systems (AS1 and AS2) connected via ISP A, which has an AS number of 100. Router B and Router C are advertising an aggregate of X.X.X.0/23 so that AS1 is able to reach the two server farms. The two links from AS2 are not being used efficiently.
How can AS2 use both of the links coming into it?
Exhibit:
A. advertise each X.X.X.0/24 independently from Router B and Router C
B. create another link between Router A in AS1 and ISP A
C. configure iBGP between Router B and Router C to load-share traffic once it reaches AS2
D. configure two static routes in Router A for X.X.X.0/23 pointing to Router B and Router C
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Study the topology provided in this exhibit. Which configuration change will maximize the efficiency of both the routing design and data forwarding plane?
Exhibit: A. Configure Router B with a static route for the aggregate to Null0
B. Configure Router A to advertise 10.0.0.0/8 instead of the default route to Router B
C. Configure Router B to advertise the more specific prefixes in addition to the aggregate
D. Configure Router B to advertise the more specific prefixes instead of the aggregate
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two reasons are valid for aggregating routing information within a network? (Choose two)
A. To reduce the amount of information any specific Router within the network must store and process
B. To isolate the impact of DDoS attacks
C. To improve optimal routing within the network
D. To reduce the impact of topology changes
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4
Which three statements are correct about OSPF route summarization? (Choose three.)
A. Route summarization can lead to a more stable network.
B. A flat addressing scheme is required in order to summarize OSPF routes.
C. OSPF type 5 external routes can be summarized only at the ASBRs.
D. OSPF internal routes can be summarized only at the ABRs.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 5
EIGRP performs route summarization at the interface level with the “ip summary-address” command. Which three statements correctly describe EIGRP route summarization? (Choose three)
A. By default, EIGRP automatically summarizes internal routes, but only each time a major network boundary is crossed.
B. EIGRP route summarization can reduce the query diameter to help prevent SIA problems.
C. Summary routes are inserted in the routing table with a next hop of null 0 and a high administrative distance, to prevent black holing of traffic.
D. The metric for each summarized route is inherited from the lowest metric of the component routes.
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 6
Why build link state flooding domain boundaries in large-scale networks running OSPF or IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. Doing so provides logical break points at which to troubleshoot individual parts of the network, rather than trying to troubleshoot the whole network at once.
B. Doing so limits the extent of SPF and allows the use of PRC for some best path calculations.
C. Flooding domain borders block the transmission of external routing information in the network, which improves scaling and convergence times.
D. Network administrators can quickly find specific destinations when detailed link state information is sorted by flooding domain in the link state database.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
Which two options are true about the impact flooding domain boundaries have when built in OSPF? (Choose two)
A. They decrease convergence time by reducing the complexity and size of the shortest path trees in the individual areas.
B. They isolate network failures within a domain.
C. They decrease convergence time by automatically summarizing reachability information transmitted through the network, thereby decreasing the number of routes that must be installed in each Router’s routing table.
D. They increase convergence time by adding the time required to run two full Shortest Path First computations on the area border Routers.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
Which two reasons are correct about building a flooding domain boundary in a link-state network? (Choose two.)
A. To provide an administrative boundary between portions of the network
B. To segregate complex and rapidly changing portions of the network from one another
C. To aggregate reachability information
D. To increase the size of the Shortest Path First tree
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
What are three reasons to summarize link state topology information? (Choose three)
A. To reduce the amount of routing information being advertised
B. To create boundaries for containing potential network changes and instabilities
C. To permit traffic engineering between areas
D. To hide detailed topology information
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?
A. Redundant servers at the access level
B. High port densities at the access level
C. Modular block design at the access level
D. Up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
There are two hub-and-spoke networks in the following exhibit. Each has about 60 branches spread over a wide area. Connect Routers E and F to two different frame providers. Problems with one provider have impacted branches connected to the other provider and reaching the data center.
Which is the best place to build flooding domain boundaries to isolate these WAN issues?
Exhibit:
A. At Routers D, E, and F, because this will provide good route aggregation and also separate complex topologies within the network from one another
B. At Routers B and C, because this will provide a good balance between separating the complex topologies behind Routers D, E, and F from the core and good route aggregation
C. At Routers B and F, because this will provide good route aggregation and prevent routing along suboptimal paths in the case of link failure
D. At Router A, because this will provide optimal route aggregation and prevent suboptimal routing in the case of link failure
Correct Answer: A
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the components below. Which data center design layer contains these components?
–
Cisco UCS 6100 Fabric Interconnect
–
Cisco Nexus 1000V
–
Cisco UCS 5100 Blade Chassis
A.
the Virtualization layer
B.
the Management layer
C.
the Compute layer
D.
the Services layer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which two options describe virtualized multi-tenancy? (Choose two.)
A. dedicated infrastructure for each tenant
B. shares a common infrastructure between tenants
C. agreement between tenants with rules about sharing DC resources
D. tenants using virtualization technologies to separate from each other
E. data centers using virtualization technologies to separate tenants
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3
Which three statements best describe the Cisco Unified Fabric solution for the data center? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches provide the capability to consolidate LAN and SAN traffic on a unified fabric over Ethernet.
B. The unified fabric is delivered through technologies such as FCoE and DCB.
C. FCoE allows transmission of Fibre Channel traffic over Ethernet by encapsulating native Fibre Channel frames into GRE and transporting them across the Ethernet network.
D. FCoE allows consolidating Fibre Channel traffic from multiple VSANs into the same Ethernet “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2 Cisco 351-080 Exam VLAN to be transported across the fabric. PFC ensures lossless transport of the FC traffic over Ethernet.
E. PFC allows user priorities to be defined on a single physical link, each of which can have its own logical lane that can be paused independently of the others.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 4
Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches are best positioned at which layer?
A. access layer, as an end-of-row switch for FCIP and iSCSI aggregation
B. distribution layer, with multiples of 10 Gb/s ports
C. access layer, as a top-of-rack switch for server I/O consolidation with FCoE
D. aggregation layer, supporting virtual security and application services
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which component of the Cisco Nexus 7010 architecture provides out-of-band management, an always-on microprocessor for disaster recovery, and remote restart capabilities?
A. central arbiter
B. Connectivity Management Processor
C. supervisor engine
D. dedicated service modules
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which two Cisco devices form the virtual access layer in the Cisco Data Center Architecture? (Choose two.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 351-080 Exam
A. Cisco Nexus 7000
B. Cisco Nexus 5000
C. Cisco Nexus 1010
D. Cisco Nexus 2000
E. Cisco Nexus 1000V
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Which three components does a data center network layer have? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco GSR
B. Cisco CRS-1
C. Cisco Nexus 7000
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. Cisco Nexus 2000
F. Cisco ASR 9000
G. Cisco Nexus 5000
Correct Answer: CEG
QUESTION 8
On a 32-port 10 Gigabit Ethernet module, each set of four ports can handle 10 Gb/s of bandwidth. What can you use the rate-mode parameter for?
A. to limit the speed on any port
B. to dedicate all the group bandwidth to the first port
C. to dedicate all the group bandwidth to the last port
D. to limit the speed on all ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4 Cisco 351-080 Exam On a Cisco Nexus 7000, a CoPP can be applied separately to each VDC.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
The persistent storage service (PSS) is used by which function?
A. storage of log files across reloads of the system
B. storage of license files in the backplane EEPROM
C. storage of the process-specific state for stateful process recovery
D. storage of core dump files from crashed processes
Correct Answer: C
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing. Which function is of NetFlow?
A. monitor configuration changes
B. monitor CPU utilization
C. monitor link utilization
D. generate traps for failure conditions
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
The P4S company is deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites needn??t to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a concern). How to configure OSPF for this topology in order to minimize the additional routing information injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum?
A. Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a neighbor.
B. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router.
C. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers.
D. Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF point-to-point.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
What is high availability?
A. redundant infrastructure
B. clustering of computer systems
C. reduced MTBF
D. continuous operation of computing systems
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What is the way that an OSPF ABR uses to prevent summary route information from being readvertised from an area into the network core (Area 0)?
A. It advertises only inter-area summaries to the backbone.
B. It uses poison reverse and split horizon.
C. It only sends locally originated summaries to the backbone.
D. It compares the area number on the summary LSA to the local area.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Connecting an IS-IS router to four links and redistributing 75 routes from RIP. How many LSPs will be originated by this router?
A. one LSP: containing the router information, internal routes, and external routes
B. six LSPs: one for each link, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
C. two LSPs: one containing router information and internal routes and one containing external routes
D. three LSPs: one containing all links, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
According to the network in this exhibit, traffic directed towards 10.1.5.1 arrives at P4S-R4. Which path will the traffic take from here?
A. It will take P4S-R2.
B. It will not take any path. P4S-R4 will drop the traffic.
C. It will take P4S-R3.
D. It will load share between P4S-R2 and P4S-R3.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You are the Cisco Network Designer in P4S. Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
The IGP next-hop reachability for a BGP route is lost but a default route is available. Assuming that BGP connectivity is maintained, what will happen to the BGP route?
A. It will be put in a hold-down state by BGP until the next hop has been updated.
B. It will be removed from the BGP table.
C. It will be considered a valid route.
D. It will be considered invalid for traffic forwarding.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the topology table at Router P4S-RC, you see only one path towards 10.1.1.0/24. Why Router P4S-RC only has one path in its topology table?
A. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to split horizon.
B. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC because Router P4S-RC is its feasible successor.
C. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to split horizon.
D. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC because Router P4S-RC is its feasible successor.
Correct Answer: C