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Exam A QUESTION 1
1
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 2
2
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 3
3
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 4
4
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
5
At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
6
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
7
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. datagram
B. routing
C. network
D. data link
E. transport
F. transmission
G. session
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
8
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs
B. bits
C. sequences
D. segments
E. packets
F. frames
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 9
9
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
10
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
11
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
12
Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet frame?
A. start of frame
B. EtherType
C. frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
13
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. reliable transmission
B. operate at OSI Layer 2
C. operate at OSI Layer 3
D. create multiple broadcast domains
E. create multiple collision domains
F. flood input packets to all ports
G. drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 14
14
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 15
15
What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown?
A. discard frame
B. send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. flood packet on all ports
D. compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
16
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
17
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
18
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 19
19
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
20
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
21
Which three statements are true concerning RFC 1918 IP addresses? (Choose three.)
A. They are globally routable.
B. They are not globally routable.
C. They must not be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
E. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/16, and 192.168.1.0/24.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/21, and 192.168.0.0/16.
Correct Answer: BDF QUESTION 22
22
Which two statements describe the purpose of RFC 1918? (Choose two.)
A. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of multicast video.
B. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of peer-to-peer file-sharing applications.
C. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to use on internal networks.
D. Establish a range of IP addresses to address the shrinking pool of globally routable addresses.
E. Delay the transition to IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 23
23
What are three reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every person on earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 24
24
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 25
25
Which two options describe services that are provided by UDP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. segmentation
C. connection-oriented
D. reliable packet delivery
E. best-effort packet delivery Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 26
26
Which two options represent a subnet mask that allows for a maximum of 14 available host addresses on a subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.192.0
E. /14
F. /21
G. /26
H. /28
Correct Answer: AH
QUESTION 27
27
What is the binary value of the hexadecimal number 0x511?
A. 10100011001
B. 10101010101
C. 10110010001
D. 10100010001
E. 10100110011
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
28
What is the binary value of the decimal number 1263?
A. 11011101101
B. 10011101111
C. 10011101011
D. 11010001111
E. 10111101111
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
29
Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. ARP
D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
31
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
32
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
33
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
34
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. information about changed routes
B. information about new routes
C. the entire routing table
D. information about deleted routes
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?
A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?
A. port routed
B. no switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. port switching off
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. vlan (vlan_id)
C. feature svi
D. interface routed
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
40
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10 nexus(config-if)#switchport
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
41
Which version of Cisco Nexus Operating System became a common operating system for Cisco Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches?
A. 2.7
B. 3.3
C. 3.9
D. 4.1
E. 5.01GD
F. 6.2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
42
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3
B. RMON
C. System Manager
D. PSS
E. VRF
F. TRILL
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 43
43
What is the acronym expansion of the UDLD feature of Cisco Nexus Operating System?
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Unified Data Link Distribution
C. Unified Data Loss Detection
D. Unified Directional Link Distribution
E. Unidirectional Data Loss Detection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
44
What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
C. CoPP
D. port security
E. PIM
F. SSL VPN
G. IPsec VPN
H. ACLs
Correct Answer: ACDH
The Cisco 640-822 certification can make you a competent person. It may enable a technician to know about the Cisco 640-822 configurations, get information about the Cisco 640-822 data center products and hardware and knowledge about Cisco 640-822 united computing systems.
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255
192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)
A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.
E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 2
A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.)
A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable
C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 3
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
E. It includes authentication by PSK.
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Host A needs to send data to Host B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host A to Host B?
A. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
D. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. The IP address space of 128.107.7.0/24 has been allocated for all devices on this network. All devices must use the same subnet mask and all subnets are usable.
Which subnet mask is required to apply the allocated address space to the configuration that is shown?
A. 255.255.254.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
E. 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)
A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
E. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.8.0
B. 172.16.9.0
C. 172.16.16.0
D. 172.16.20.0
E. 172.16.24.0
F. 172.16.31.0
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 15
What two actions must a router take in order to route incoming packets? (Choose two.)
A. Identify the destination network address of each packet.
B. Identify the source network address of each packet.
C. Validate sources of routing information.
D. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to the destination network address.
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
F. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 18
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity issues. What will fix this problem?
A. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
B. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
C. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
E. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. Serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0.
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0.
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Cisco 640-822 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-822 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring RTA to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)
A. speed
B. no shutdown
C. ip address
D. authentication pap
E. encapsulation ppp
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 23
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit is running the RIPv2 routing protocol. The network has converged, and the routers in this network are functioning properly.
The FastEthernet0/0 interface on R1 goes down. In which two ways will the routers in this network respond to this change? (Choose two.)
A. All routers will reference their topology database to determine if any backup routes to the 192.168.1.0 network are known.
B. Routers R2 and R3 mark the route as inaccessible and will not accept any further routing updates from R1 until their hold-down timers expire.
C. Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about connectivity to the 192.168.1.0 network.
D. When router R2 learns from R1 that the link to the 192.168.1.0 network has been lost, R2 will respond by sending a route back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network.
E. R1 will send LSAs to R2 and R3 informing them of this change, and then all routers will send periodic updates at an increased rate until the network again converges.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 25
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 26
The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing the command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.
B. Serial ip addresses of routers are not on the same subnet.
C. Username/password is incorrectly configured.
D. Router names are incorrectly configured.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for
management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?
A. VLAN 1 on RTA
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. IP routing on SW-A
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
This graphic shows some common router ports. Which port can be used for a WAN T1 connection?
A. AUI
B. BRI
C. Console
D. Serial 0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. The goal of this network design is to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are shown for each segment.
What are three problems with the network design as shown? (Choose three.)
A. Interface fa0/3 has an IP address that overlaps with network 10.1.1.0/30.
B. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
C. Interface fa0/2 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
D. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
E. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
F. The IP subnet 10.1.1.0/30 is invalid for a segment with a single server.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – fiber optic cable 4 – rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – Ethernet straight-through cable
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives?
A. RTA(config)#no cdp run
B. RTA(config)#no cdp enable
C. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp run
D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 33
WAN data link encapsulation types include which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. T1
B. Frame Relay
C. DSL
D. PPP
E. ISDN
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is testing connection problems in the internetwork. What is the problem indicated by the output from HostA?
A. The routing on Router2 is not functioning properly.
B. An access list is applied to an interface of Router3.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.
D. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which of the following are found in a TCP header, but not in a UDP header? (Choose three.)
A. sequence number
B. acknowledgment number
C. source port
D. destination port
E. window size
F. checksum
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 36
The Hub and Spoke routers are directly connected through their serial interfaces for purposes of testing. Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what must be done to make the serial line operational?
A. Start the clock on the Hub router.
B. Change the IP address on the Spoke router.
C. Configure the serial 0/0 interface on the Spoke router with a clockrate.
D. Replace the broken cable between the two devices.
E. Use the no shutdown command on the Hub router.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.128.0
C. 172.16.156.0
D. 172.16.159.0
E. 172.16.159.128
F. 172.16.192.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two.)
A. decreasing the number of collision domains
B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses
C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
D. increasing the size of broadcast domains
E. increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 39
When files are transferred between a host and an FTP server, the data is divided into smaller pieces for transmission. As these pieces arrive at the destination host, they must be reassembled to reconstruct the original file. What provides for the reassembly of these pieces into the correct order?
A. the TTL in the IP header
B. the frame check sequence in the Ethernet frame trailer
C. the sequence number in the TCP header
D. the Start Frame Delimiter in the 802.3 Preamble
E. the acknowledgement number in the segment header
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)
A. buffering
B. cut-through
C. windowing
D. congestion avoidance
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: ACD
The Cisco 640-822 training is a vital way of becoming the best. This certification has helped the candidates to enhance their capabilities by providing a great learning platform to them so that they can polish their skills.
The Cisco 640-822 certification can make you a competent person. It may enable a technician to know about the Cisco 640-822 configurations, get information about the Cisco 640-822 data center products and hardware and knowledge about Cisco 640-822 united computing systems.
Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255
192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)
A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.
E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.)
A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable
C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 5
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
E. It includes authentication by PSK.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Host A needs to send data to Host B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host A to Host B?
A. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
D. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. The IP address space of 128.107.7.0/24 has been allocated for all devices on this network. All devices must use the same subnet mask and all subnets are usable. Which subnet mask is required to apply the allocated address space to the configuration that is shown?
A. 255.255.254.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
E. 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE
Cisco 640-822 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-822 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)
A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
E. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 12
Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.8.0
B. 172.16.9.0
C. 172.16.16.0
D. 172.16.20.0
E. 172.16.24.0
F. 172.16.31.0
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 13
Drop A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 18
What two actions must a router take in order to route incoming packets? (Choose two.)
A. Identify the destination network address of each packet.
B. Identify the source network address of each packet.
C. Validate sources of routing information.
D. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to the destination network address.
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
F. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 21
Hotspot
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 22
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 23
After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity issues. What will fix this problem?
A. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
B. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
C. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
E. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0.
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0.
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring RTA to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)
A. speed
B. no shutdown
C. ip address
D. authentication pap
E. encapsulation ppp
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 27
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit is running the RIPv2 routing protocol. The network has converged, and the routers in this network are functioning properly. The FastEthernet0/0 interface on R1 goes down. In which two ways will the routers in this network respond to this change? (Choose two.)
A. All routers will reference their topology database to determine if any backup routes to the 192.168.1.0 network are known.
B. Routers R2 and R3 mark the route as inaccessible and will not accept any further routing updates from R1 until their hold-down timers expire.
C. Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about connectivity to the 192.168.1.0 network.
D. When router R2 learns from R1 that the link to the 192.168.1.0 network has been lost, R2 will respond by sending a route back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network.
E. R1 will send LSAs to R2 and R3 informing them of this change, and then all routers will send periodic updates at an increased rate until the network again converges.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 30
The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing the
command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.
B. Serial ip addresses of routers are not on the same subnet.
C. Username/password is incorrectly configured.
D. Router names are incorrectly configured.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?
A. VLAN 1 on RTA
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. IP routing on SW-A
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Hotspot
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 33
This graphic shows some common router ports. Which port can be used for a WAN T1 connection?
A. AUI
B. BRI
C. Console
D. Serial 0
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. The goal of this network design is to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are shown for each segment.
What are three problems with the network design as shown? (Choose three.)
A. Interface fa0/3 has an IP address that overlaps with network 10.1.1.0/30.
B. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
C. Interface fa0/2 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
D. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
E. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
F. The IP subnet 10.1.1.0/30 is invalid for a segment with a single server.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – fiber optic cable 4 – rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – Ethernet straight-through cable
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives?
A. RTA(config)#no cdp run
B. RTA(config)#no cdp enable
C. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp run
D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 38
WAN data link encapsulation types include which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. T1
B. Frame Relay
C. DSL
D. PPP
E. ISDN
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is testing connection problems in the internetwork. What is the problem indicated by the output from HostA?
A. The routing on Router2 is not functioning properly.
B. An access list is applied to an interface of Router3.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.
D. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.
Correct Answer: D
The Cisco 640-822 training is a vital way of becoming the best. This certification has helped the candidates to enhance their capabilities by providing a great learning platform to them so that they can polish their skills.
The Cisco 640-822 certification can make you a competent person. It may enable a technician to know about the Cisco 640-822 configurations, get information about the Cisco 640-822 data center products and hardware and knowledge about Cisco 640-822 united computing systems.
Exam A
QUESTION 1
After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity issues. What will fix this problem?
A. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
B. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
C. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
E. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the graphic. A Cisco router and a Catalyst switch are connected as shown. The technician is working on a computer that is connected to the management console of the switch. In order to configure the default gateway for the switch, the technician needs to learn the IP address of the attached router interface. Which IOS command will provide this information in the absence of Layer 3 connectivity?
A. showcdp neighbors detail
B. pingrouter_ip_address
C. showip neighbors
D. pingswitch_ip_address
E. showdhcp-config
F. showip rarp
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: To display detailed information about neighboring devices discovered using Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), use the show cdp neighbors privileged EXEC command. Detail – (Optional) Displays detailed information about a neighbor (or neighbors) including network address, enabled protocols, hold time, and software version.
The following is sample output for the show cdp neighbors detail command. router# show cdp neighbors detail
Device ID: lab-7206 Entry address( es ): IP address: 172.19.169.83 Platform: cisco 7206VXR, Capabilities: Router Interface: Ethernet0, Port ID (outgoing port): FastEthernet0/0/0 Holdtime : 123 sec Version : Cisco Internetwork Operating System Software IOS ™ 5800 Software (C5800-P4-M), Version 12.1(2) Copyright (c) 1986-2002 by Cisco Systems, Inc. advertisement version: 2 Duplex: half
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
B. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
C. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
D. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
E. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?
A. IP routing on SW-A
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. VLAN 1 on RTA
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Configure a default gateway on SW-A.
In order for a switch to send traffic to a destination that is not located directly, as is the case in our
example, a default gateway must be configured on the switch. This will enable it to send the traffic to router
RTA where it can be routed to host A.
QUESTION 5
What does the “Inside Global” address represent in the configuration of NAT?
A. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
B. the summarized address for all of the internalsubnetted addresses
C. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
D. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: With NAT, Cisco defines 4 different types of addresses as follows: Inside local address – The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. This is the address configured as a parameter of the computer’s OS or received via dynamic address allocation protocols such as DHCP. The address is likely not a legitimate IP address assigned by the Network Information Center (NIC) or service provider. Inside global address – A legitimate IP address assigned by the NIC or service provider that represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world. Outside local address – The IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network. Not necessarily a legitimate address, it is allocated from an address space routable on the inside. Outside global address – The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network by the host’s owner. The address is allocated from a globally routable address or network space. The above definitions still leave a lot to be interpreted. For this example, this document redefines these terms by first defining “local address” and “global address.” Keep in mind that the terms “inside” and “outside” are NAT definitions. Interfaces on a NAT router are defined as “inside” or “outside” with the NAT configuration commands, ip nat inside and ip nat outside . Networks to which these interfaces connect can then be thought of as “inside” networks or “outside” networks, respectively. Local address – A local address is any address that appears on the “inside” portion of the network. Global address – A global address is any address that appears on the “outside” portion of the network.
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?
A. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
C. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
E. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
F. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity?
A. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.
B. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
E. A loopback is not set.
F. The IP address is incorrect.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing the command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Username/password is incorrectly configured.
B. Router names are incorrectly configured.
C. Serialip addresses
D. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: When setting up local password database in CHAP, configure commands username username password password in overall configuration mode to add note to local password database. Note that the username here should be the router name on the opposite side. And the password should be the same as that in the password database of CHAP authentication server. The above graphic shows different password.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)
A. cut-through
B. load balancing
C. congestion avoidance
D. buffering
E. windowing
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Drop
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255
192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)
A. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
B. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.
C. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
D. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
E. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Besides network address and broadcast address, network 192.168.1.0/24 allows only 254 hosts. Thus it is
evident that AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for 500 users. If AREA 2 uses a mask of /25, i.e.
255.255.255.128, it will be able to accommodate IP space of 128 (256-128=128), which is adequate for 60
users. And as the two routers need only two IP, to use 192.168.100.0/26 is a waste of address space.
So the answer would be A ,C and E.
*
Since there are only 60 users on this LAN, a /25 could be used as that will provide for up to 128 IP addresses (126 usable). In fact, since there are only 60 users, a /26 could be used as that will provide for up to 62 usable IP addresses. However, this would not accommodate any kind of growth and could cause problems in the future.
*
On point to point serial router links, a /30 is generally used as this will allow for only 2 usable IP addresses, which is all that is needed. In this case, a /26 has been assigned.
*
In this area, there are 500 users, but a /24 will only provide for 254 usable IP addresses. A /23 or larger
will be needed to accommodate this many users.
QUESTION 12
Which type of attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are requesting a TCP connection to a server?
A. brute force
B. Trojan horse
C. denial of service
D. reconnaissance
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A denial-of-service attack ( DoS attack) is an attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users. Although the means to, motives for and targets of a DoS attack may vary, it generally comprises the concerted, malevolent efforts of a person or persons to prevent an Internet site or service from functioning efficiently or at all, temporarily or indefinitely. Among these are Network connectivity attacks. These attacks overload the victim with TCP packets so that its TCP/IP stack is not able to handle any further connections, and processing queues are completely full with nonsense malicious packets. As a consequence of this attack, legitimate connections are denied. One classic example of a network connectivity attack is a SYN Flood
QUESTION 13
Refer to the graphic. How many collision domains are shown?
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. fourteen
E. three
F. one
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The multi-segment configuration guidelines apply only to a single Ethernet “collision domain.” A ActualTests.com collision domain is formally defined as a single CSMA/CD network in which there will be a collision if two computers attached to the system transmit at the same time. An Ethernet system composed of a single segment or multiple segments linked with repeaters is a network that functions as a single collision domain.
FIGURE 1 Repeater hubs create a single collision domain
The figure shows two repeater hubs connecting three computers. Since only repeater connections are used between segments in this network, all of the segments and computers are in the same collision domain. In the next figure, the repeaters and DTEs are instead separated by a router (packet switch) and are therefore in separate collision domains, since routers do not forward collision signals from one segment to another. Routers contain multiple Ethernet interfaces and are designed to receive a packet on one Ethernet port and transmit the data onto another Ethernet port in a new packet.
FIGURE 2 Routers creates separate collision domains
Instead of propagating collision signals between Ethernet segments, routers interrupt the collision domain and allow the Ethernets they link to operate independently. Therefore, you can use packet switching hubs to build larger network systems by interconnecting individual Ethernet systems.
QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP Drop
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15
A network administrator has subnetted the 172.16.0.0 network using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. A duplicate IP address of 172.16.2.120 has accidentally been configured on a workstation in the network. The technician must assign this workstation a new IP address within that same subnetwork. Which address should be assigned to the workstation?
A. 172.16.2.127
B. 172.16.2.80
C. 172.16.2.128
D. 172.16.1.64
E. 172.16.1.80
F. 172.16.2.64
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 (/26) will provide us with 4 subnet (2 usable) each with 62 usable hosts
per network. So in our example the four networks will be:
172.16.2.1-62
172.16.2.65-126
172.16.2.129-190 172.16.2.193-254
Since we know that the host must be in the same IP subnet as 172.16.2.120, only choice C is correct.
QUESTION 16
Host A needs to communicate with the email server shown in the graphic. What address will be placed in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?
A. the MAC address of the email server
B. the MAC address of E1 of the router
C. the MAC address of Switch 1
D. the MAC address of E0 of the router
E. the MAC address of Switch 2
F. the MAC address of Host A
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Since the email server resides on a different IP subnet than the host A, the host will send the frame to its
default gateway. In this case, the router C is acting as the default gateway for all hosts on the LAN, so the
frame will be sent to its Ethernet interface so that it can be routed to the email server.
The Cisco 640-822 training is a vital way of becoming the best. This certification has helped the candidates to enhance their capabilities by providing a great learning platform to them so that they can polish their skills.
Cisco 640-802 contains a powerful new testing engine that allows you to focus on individual topic areas or take complete, timed exams from Cisco 640-802.The assessment engine also tracks your performance and presents feedback on a module-by-module basis, providing question-by-question Cisco 640-802 to the text and laying out a complete study plan for review.Cisco 640-802 also includes a wealth of hands-on practice exercises and a copy of the Cisco 640-802 network simulation software that allows you to practice your Cisco 640-802 hands-on skills in a virtual lab environment.The Cisco 640-802 supporting website keeps you fully informed of any exam changes
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
B. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
C. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
D. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
E. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
A. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – Ethernet straight-through cable
B. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
C. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
D. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – fiber optic cable 4 – rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – serial cable
4 – rollover cable
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
You work as a network technician in a Company. Please study the exhibit carefully.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
The router console screen is rapidly displaying line after line of output similar to what is shown in the exhibit. The help desk has called to say that users are reporting a slowdown in the network. What will solve this problem while not interrupting network operation?
A. Press the CTRL+C keys.
B. Save the configuration and reboot the router.
C. Enter the no debug all command.
D. Use the show processes command.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
Please study the exhibit shown above carefully, and answer the following questions.
A static map to the S-AMER location is required. Which command should be used to create this map?
A. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 702 broadcast
B. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 196 broadcast
C. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 344 broadcast
D. frame-relay map ip 172.30.0.3 704 broadcast
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You have finished physically installing an access point on the ceiling at your office. At a minimum, which parameter must be configured on the access point in order to allow a wireless client to operate on it?
A. SSID
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. PSK
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which is the correct fallback sequence for loading the Cisco IOS?
A. Flash, TFTP server, ROM
B. ROM, Flash, NVRAM
C. Flash, NVRAM, RAM
D. ROM, TFTP server, Flash
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Which tables of EIGRP route information are held in RAM and maintained through the use of hello and update packets? (Choose two.)
A. RTP table
B. SPF table
C. query table
D. neighbor table
E. DUAL table
F. topology table
Correct Answer: DF QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit. Complete this network diagram by dragging the correct device name of description name or description to the correct location. Not all the names or descriptions will be used.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. Why are two OSPF designated routers identified on Core_Router?
A. The DR election is still underway and there are two contenders for the role.
B. The router at 208.149.23.130 is a secondary DR in case the primary fails.
C. Core_Router is connected to more than one multiaccess network.
D. Two router IDs have the same OSPF priority and are therefore tied for DR election. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 8 Cisco 640-802: Practice Exam
Correct Answer: C
Cisco 640-802 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-802 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 10
As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the POST process very well. A Cisco router is booting
and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image.
What function does the router perform next?
A. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory.
D. It checks the configuration register.
Correct Answer: D
CCNA Cisco 640-802 Exam Certification Guide is part of a recommended study program from Cisco 640-802 that includes simulation and hands-on training from authorized Cisco 640-802 Learning Partners and self-study products from Cisco 640-802.Find out more about instructor-led, e-learning, and hands-on instruction offered by authorized Cisco 640-802 Learning Partners worldwide