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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two steps are required to configure LDAP authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the LDAP server type in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration.
B. Configure LDAP server addresses in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration.
C. Add a Cisco Unified Communications Manager directory user and assign administrator access rights to the user in the LDAP directory.
D. Configure a synchronization schedule.
E. Activate Cisco DirSync service.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two statements regarding Cisco Unified Communications Manager user privileges are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A role can only be assigned to one user group.
B. An application can be referred to by only one role.
C. A resource is assigned one privilege per role.
D. A role refers to one or more applications.
E. A user can be a member of more than one user group.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
The Ajax Corporation is designing an IP telephony network using Cisco MCS 7845 Series servers, each one capable of supporting 7500 devices. The design must meet these requirements:
*
be cost-effective
*
support up to 7500 phones
*
provide a minimal level of redundancy Which configuration will meet Ajax Corporation’s needs?
A.
five Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher 1 TFTP server 1 primary subscriber 2 backup subscribers
B.
four Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher 1 TFTP server 1 primary subscriber 1 backup subscriber
C.
two Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher and TFTP server combined 1 primary subscriber
D.
three Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher and TFTP server combined 1 primary subscriber 1 backup subscriber
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Miss Certkiller, is interested in barge types. You are required to match the barge types with the appropriate functions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5
Network Topology Exhibit:
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully.
What should be entered in the Name field when configuring Cisco Unified Communications Manager to control voice port T1 1/0/0 in Certkiller 2?
A. 10.2.120.1
B. S0/DS1@SDA0012005FEEF0
C. S0/DS1-0@ Certkiller 2
D. Certkiller 2
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which two features are advantages of deploying a cluster over WAN? (Choose two.)
A. scalability up to 20 sites, if there is sufficient IP WAN bandwidth
B. failover to co-resident Cisco Unified CallManager Express platforms
C. extension mobility within the cluster
D. shared line appearances
E. centralized DSP resources
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which three steps must be completed in order to assign a service URL to an IP phone button? (Choose three.)
A. Assign the IP phone service partition to the CSS of the phone.
B. Subscribe the phone to the service.
C. Create a softkey template that includes a service URL and assign it to the phone.
D. Create a phone button template that includes a service URL and assign it to the phone.
E. Add an IP phone service.
F. Associate a valid user profile with the phone.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
A single route pattern has been added to Cisco Unified Communications Manager to use the NANP. A route filter named Local_Only has been applied to limit calls to local and service numbers only. The Local_Only route filter includes the clause: (LOCAL-AREA-CODE EXISTS AND SERVICE EXISTS). After applying the Local_Only route filter, no calls to the PSTN can be completed.
What needs to be done to correct this issue?
A. Two separate route filters need to be applied to the route pattern, one for local calls and one for services.
B. The route filter clause should be changed to (LOCAL-AREA-CODE DOES-NOT-EXIST AND SERVICES DOES-NOT-EXIST) and the route pattern should be set to block calls.
C. Route filters cannot be used to allow multiple call types. Specific route patterns for local calls and services need to be added.
D. The route pattern needs to be added twice, once with a route filter for local calls and once with a route filter for services.
E. The route filter clause should be changed to (LOCAL-AREA-CODE EXISTS OR SERVICES EXISTS).
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is one difference between Cisco inline power and 802.3af PoE?
A. You must determine the total number of IP phones the switch can support with 802.3af to avoid oversubscription.
B. Cisco inline power should only be activated for those ports that require PoE to avoid oversubscription.
C. Cisco inline power provides a variable amount of power by using CDP.
D. You must specify which set of pins the powered device is going to accept power on for 802.3af.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which three functions does the Master Agent perform? (Choose three.)
A. controls backup and restoration of the system
B. executes backup and restore tasks
C. interfaces with the DRS agent on the Administrator PC
D. stores DRS configuration
E. acts as a backup repository
F. communicates with archive devices
Correct Answer: ADF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
A range of Meet-Me conference numbers is reserved for manager use. Which method can be used to restrict non-managers from accessing these Meet-Me numbers without limiting their ability to initiate ad hoc conferences?
A. Place the conference bridge resource in a partition that is only assigned to the CSS for the managers’ phones.
B. Place the conference bridge resource in an MRGL that is only assigned to the managers’ phones.
C. Place the Meet-Me numbers in an MRGL that is only assigned to the managers’ phones.
D. Place the Meet-Me numbers in a partition that is only assigned to the CSS for the managers’ phones.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
A dial peer is configured with an outgoing COR list. Which two conditions must be met for calls matching this outbound dial peer to be blocked? (Choose two.)
A. The outgoing COR list must be a subset of the incoming COR list.
B. The outgoing COR list must be a superset of the incoming COR list.
C. The incoming COR list and the outgoing COR list must contain the same members.
D. An incoming COR list must be configured on the matched inbound dial peer.
E. An incoming COR list must be configured on the matched outbound dial peer.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
What is the correct procedure for implementing call coverage?
A. configure partitions, line groups, hunt lists, hunt pilot, directory numbers
B. configure partitions, directory numbers, hunt pilot, hunt list, line groups
C. configure directory numbers, partitions, hunt pilot, hunt list, line groups
D. configure partitions, directory numbers, line groups, hunt lists, hunt pilot
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What is the process of digit matching?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager collects all digits and compares them en bloc for patterns that match the internal directory numbers and ones that match the route patterns simultaneously.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager collects all digits and compares them en bloc for patterns that match the internal directory numbers. If no match is found, the dialed string is matched against the route patterns.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager first performs a digit-by-digit analysis, looking for patterns that match the internal directory numbers. If no match is found, the dialed string is matched against the route patterns.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager performs a digit-by-digit analysis, looking for patterns that match the internal directory numbers and ones that match the route patterns simultaneously.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Miss Certkiller, is interested in Cisco Accounts. You are required to match the access types with the appropriate accounts.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which three steps must be completed in order to assign a service URL to an IP Phone button? (Choose three.)
A. Subscribe the phone to the service.
B. Associate a valid user profile with the phone.
C. Add an IP phone service.
D. Create a softkey template that includes a service URL and assign it to the phone.
E. Assign the IP phone service partition to the CSS of the phone.
F. Create a phone button template that includes a service URL and assign it to the phone.
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
What is the minimum number of partitions that must be defined given the dial-plan rules listed below? All
employees can call local and service numbers.
Managers can call long-distance and international numbers.
Executives can call all PSTN numbers including premium numbers.
Only administrative assistants can call executives.
Incoming calls can only be routed to phones, not to trunks.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 7
D. 4
E. 3
F. 5
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which two of these media resources are available only in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. audio conferencing
B. MOH
C. annunciator
D. voice termination
E. MTP
F. transcoding
Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully.
When Bob dials extension 5000, which phone will ring?
A. Phone C
B. Phone A
C. Phone D
D. Phone B
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which of these two route patterns will be matched if 99118855 is dialed with en bloc dialing enabled?
9.911 Urgent Priority Enabled 9.[2-9]XXXXXX
A. The 9.911 pattern will be dialed first and if the call is not successful, then the other potential match will be attempted.
B. 9.911 will always be matched because it is tagged as Urgent Priority.
C. 9.[2-9]XXXXXX will be matched first because en bloc dialing is being used. The Urgent Priority tag will be ignored in this case.
D. There will be a tie between the two route patterns, and a random selection will be made.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will not be able to determine which pattern to match. For this
reason, it will generate an annunciator message that the call cannot be completed as dialed.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which three determinations are possible when using the Presence feature in a Cisco Unified Communications network? (Choose three.)
A. Determine if a set of IP phones is on hook or off hook if if the phones are in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
B. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
C. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is outside the Cisco Unified Communications cluster of the watcher.
D. Determine if an IP phone has been moved or the user has been changed if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
E. Determine if an IP phone has been unplugged if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
F. Determine if an IP phone has been off hook beyond a specified period of time if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
What are two reasons to use IP addresses instead of DNS in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster? (Choose two.)
A. makes IP address changes easier
B. reduces the number of potential sources of failure
C. improves IP address scalability
D. simplifies troubleshooting
E. simplifies management
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which two can be targets of a route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. gateway
B. gatekeeper
C. route list
D. translation pattern
E. route group
F. CTI Port
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
A user’s phone Call Forward No Answer setting has been configured to forward to a hunt pilot. If all call hunting options have been exhausted and the Forward Hunt No Answer feature has been configured to use Personal Preference settings, to which of these will calls to this phone be forwarded?
A. voice mail
B. any destination configured under the user’s DN Personal Settings configuration
C. the destination specified under the user’s Call Forward No Coverage settings
D. no other destination; each call will continue to ring until the caller hangs up
E. the default destination configured under Service Parameters
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
A Cisco Unified CM cluster is configured for LDAP Authentication. Which two statements regarding this integration are correct? (Choose two.)
A. If LDAP synchronization is also configured, user authentication will be performed against the Cisco Unified Communications Manager database if the LDAP directory is not available.
B. User passwords are replicated to Cisco Unified Communications Manager database.
C. User authentication fails if the LDAP directory is not available.
D. User passwords are configured and managed in LDAP.
E. Users and their personal organization data must be configured in LDAP and are replicated to Cisco Unified Communications Manager database.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
You want to deploy a mixture of unicast and multicast MOH streams. You need to configure 12 multicast streams, each supporting two codecs. How many unicast streams can be configured, assuming 250 is the maximum number of MOH streams supported on your MOH server?
A. 226
B. 250
C. 204
D. 214
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which three steps are necessary in order to configure DHCP for phone support using the GUI in Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)
A. download the DHCP server application from the plug-in page
B. activate DHCP Monitor Service
C. configure the DHCP subnet
D. add and configure the DHCP server
E. start the application on an external server
F. add the DHCP server IP address to the device pool
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
When an IP phone boots up, which mechanism provides the VLAN ID?
A. CDP
B. DHCP
C. TFTP
D. Option 150
E. DNS
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which three menu choices will open a window in which you can assign softkey templates? (Choose three.)
A. System > Enterprise Parameters
B. System > Device Defaults Configuration
C. Service > Service Parameters
D. Device > Phone Configuration
E. System > Device Pool Configuration
F. Device > Device Settings > Device Profile
Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Exhibit: You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully.
You have six IP phones configured to use MRGL_CFB. There are currently five conferences in progress. What will happen if the sixth IP phone tries to initiate a conference?
A. the conference will be rejected because there are no conference resources left
B. the conference will be attempted until the MRGL timer expires
C. the conference will use SW_CFB_3 since it is the default and is not assigned to MRGL_CFB
D. the first conference resource that becomes available will be used for conference 6
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Identify the VoIP network component that provides CAC, bandwidth control and management, and address translation.
A. MCU
B. Gatekeeper
C. Call agent
D. Gateway
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two statements describe the purpose of the technology prefix? (Choose two.)
A. Technology prefixes are configured on gateways to indicate to the gatekeeper whether they support voice or video.
B. Technology prefixes must always be configured on gateways.
C. Technology prefixes are used to identify different types or classes of gateways.
D. Technology prefixes are prepended to the destination address by the gateway.
E. Technology prefixes have to be unique on each gateway.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two of the following signaling protocols are peer-to-peer protocols? (Choose 2)
A. H.323
B. SCCP
C. SIP
D. MGCP
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which three headers are compressed by cRTP? (Choose 3)
A. TCP
B. IP
C. Data link
D. UDP
E. RTP
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
The partial configuration of a Cisco device of the PASSGUIDE company is shown as follows:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
Which command will restore communication with gatekeeper functionality to this device on the basis of the example output?
A. h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 1721622
B. gateway
C. h323-gateway voip h323-id GK1
D. h323-gateway voip GW1-zone2abc.com abc.com ipaddr 1721621
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which of the following best describes a function of RTCP?
A. RTCP uses even-numbered UDP ports in the range 16,384-32,767 to transport voice payloads.
B. RTCP caches an RTP packet’s Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers in the routers at each end of a link, resulting in lower bandwidth demand for subsequent RTP packets.
C. RTCP provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow.
D. RTCP provides encryption, message authentication and integrity, and anti-replay service for voice streams.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions would be initiated by a UAS? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
A. Contacts the user when a SIP invitation is received
B. Originates the REFER method to initiate call termination
C. Returns a response on behalf of the user to the invitation originator
D. Originates the INVITE method including a description of the session parameters
E. Originates the ACK method to indicate that it has received a response to an invitation
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which three of the following are appropriate solutions to address latency issues in a VoIP network? (Choose 3)
A. Use SRTP instead of RTP.
B. Increase bandwidth.
C. Use dejitter buffers.
D. Fragment data packets.
E. Prioritize voice packets.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
For the following options, which one is correct about the MGCP call agent?
A. monitors the quality of each call after setup
B. provides only call signaling and call setup
C. acts only as a recorder of call details
D. manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two of the following VoIP gateway platforms are considered to be Integrated Services Routers (ISRs)? (Choose 2)
A. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series
B. Cisco 2800 Series
C. Cisco 2600XM Series PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
D. Cisco 3800 Series
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
The Cisco Gatekeeper maintains a record of all active calls so that it can manage the bandwidth resources in its zone. Which statement is true about gatekeeper operation when the technology prefix is matched and the gatekeeper is using the technology prefix with hopoff?
A. The gatekeeper always forwards the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
B. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the hopoff zone, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command.
C. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command first, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
D. The gatekeeper only forwards the call to the hopoff zone if the zone prefix does not match.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
In a Cisco UCM single-site deployment, what is the maximum number of IP phones that can register with a UCM cluster?
A. 10,000
B. 2500
C. 7500
D. 30,000
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
As a network technician for the PASSGUIDE Company, you are responsible for designing and maintaining VoIP network. The VoIP network topology of the PASSGUIDE company is displayed as follows:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
On the basis of the exhibit presented. All IP phones are SCCP phones. Phone D makes an internal call to phone
A. Which call setup signaling statement is correct?
B. Phone D signals gateway A, which processes the call and signals phone G.
C. Phone D signals gateway B, which processes the call and signals phone G.
D. Phone D signals gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals phone G.
E. Phone D signals phone G directly. Call setup is handled by the phones.
F. Phone D signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals phone G.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14
In a Cisco UCM multisite WAN with centralized call-processing deployment model, what redundancy feature should be configured on remote site routers to provide basic IP telephony services in the event of a WAN outage?
A. CAC
B. SRST
C. V3PN
D. AAR
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
The VoIP network topology of the PASSGUIDE company is displayed as follows:
Refer to the exhibit. All IP phones use SCCP. Fax machine F calls fax machine J. Which call setup
signaling description is true?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams
PassGuide 642-436
A. Gateway A signals the gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals gateway B.
B. Gateway A signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals gateway B.
C. Fax F signals Fax J directly. Call setup is handled by the fax machines.
D. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the request.
E. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the call. During the setup, the gateways query the gatekeeper for address resolution and call setup permission.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which four of the following are Cisco-supported IP telephony deployment models? (Choose 4)
A. Single site
B. Single site with distributed call processing
C. Multisite with centralized call processing
D. Clustering over the IP WAN
E. Multisite with distributed call processing
Correct Answer: ACDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
You are a network engineer at PASSGUIDE.com, study the exhibit carefully. Three PASSGUIDE department managers share the directory number 3000 The Marketing manager’s phone is attached to port 1/1 The Engineering manager’s phone is attached to port 1/2 The Shipping manager’s phone is attached to port 1/3 In which situation would an incoming call ring on the Shipping manager’s phone?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
A. The Marketing manager is on the phone.
B. None of the managers are on the phone.
C. The Engineering manager is on the phone.
D. The Shipping manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.
E. The Engineering manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Identify two gateway supplementary services. (Choose 2)
A. Hold
B. Transcoding
C. Transfer
D. DTMF relay
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
According to the G.114 recommendation, the maximum one-way delay for voice should ideally not exceed how much delay?
A. 200 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 250 ms
D. 100 ms PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
On the basis of the related knowledge, at which point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. Does not release call path setup
B. After the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
C. After the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection
D. After the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Identify the preferred voice quality measurement approach for VoIP networks.
A. QRT
B. PESQ
C. PSQM
D. MOS
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which method of fax relay uses a store-and-forward approach?
A. T.38
B. T.37
C. Cisco Fax Relay
D. T.30
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
When using CUBE, which two statements describe how media flow-through differs from media flow-
around? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Media flow-around provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
B. Media flow-through terminates the signaling channel and the RTP streams flow directly between endpoints.
C. Media flow-around and media flow-through function in a similar manner, but media flow-around supports NAT traversal.
D. Media flow-through terminates the RTP streams but allows signaling to flow directly between endpoints.
E. Media flow-around terminates the signaling stream and allows RTP streams to flow directly between endpoints. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
F. Media flow-through provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
What codec is required for fax pass-through and/or modem pass-through?
A. G.711
B. G.729ab
C. G.723
D. G.729
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Identify three quality issues that can result because of a lack of network bandwidth.(Choose 3)
A. Jitter
B. Impedance
C. Delay
D. Packet loss
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
What protocol is used to communicate between a DSP farm configured on an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, what four steps are necessary to implement COR? (Choose four.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
What is the Layer 2 overhead (in bytes) for Frame Relay traffic?
A. 5 bytes
B. 18 bytes
C. 6 bytes
D. 3 bytes
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
As a PASSGUIDE network technician ,you are responsible for establishing and maintaining VoIP network. You have configured a gatekeeper and an IP-IP gateway on the same router. When you examine the output from the show gatekeeper endpoint command, the IP-IP gateway is not registered with the gatekeeper. What needs to be configured to resolve this issue?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
A. The h323-gateway voip id command has an incorrect IP address.
B. You need to add a VoIP dial peer to the configuration.
C. You need to stop and restart the gateway.
D. The h323-gateway voip id command has an incorrect gatekeeper ID and IP address.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Which three factors must be considered when calculating the total bandwidth of a VoIP call? (Choose 3)
A. Codec size
B. CRC usage
C. Data-link overhead
D. Sample size
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Observe the following options, which process changes an internal extension into a fully qualified external PSTN number before matching to a dial peer?
A. forward digits
B. prefix extension
C. number expansion PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
D. digit masking
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
While examining the output of a show run command on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series, you notice that the
statement interface GigabitEthernet2/12 appears in the output. What does this mean?
Select the best response.
A. It refers to the second FCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1 is assigned to VSAN 2
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
The HBA on your storage server only supports the NL_Port mode. Which interface type on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series fabric switches can support this HBA? Select the best response.
A. F
B. TE
C. FL
D. N
E. E
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s).
A. iSCSI node name
B. host name
C. IPv4 address and subnet PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSI WWN
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning? Select the best response.
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop? Select the best response.
A. 126
B. 127
C. 255
D. 256
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which three of the following are possible reasons why a line card module does not come online? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Port indexes have been taken offline.
B. Available port indexes are noncontiguous.
C. Not enough power is available in the chassis.
D. An invalid interoperability mode has been configured.
E. Unsupported SFPs have been installed.
F. Not enough port indexes are available.
Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. RMON
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Why would you use the fcanalyzer command? Select the best response.
A. to ensure that Fibre Channel configuration settings are synchronized across all switches in the fabric
B. to identify common configuration errors in the fabric
C. to nondisruptively capture and decode Fibre Channel control frames
D. to decode and analyze Fibre Channel frames and ordered sets on a link
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which two features help you verify connectivity between host and storage devices? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).
A. fcanalyzer
B. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
C. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis
D. Zone Merge Analysis
E. fcping
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which feature detects hardware faults and attempts recovery actions? Select the best response.
A. Switch Health Analysis
B. Fabric Configuration Analysis
C. Online Health Management System
D. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis
E. Cisco Fabric Services PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
A customer has reported performance degradation in the SAN. The system administrator would like to track read-write I/O and LUN use on several devices. The devices are directly connected to various switches and belong to different VSANs. The administrator wants to gather information for the last 72
hours.
Which of the following Cisco MDS 9000 Series tools is needed to track SCSI I/O and LUN statistics?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Fabric Manager
B. Cisco Traffic Analyzer and PAA
C. Cisco Performance Manager
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which services are supported by a Cisco NX-OS AAA configuration? Select the best response.
A. Telnet, SSH, FM and DM logins
B. Console login, FC-SP authentication, FTP
C. FC-SP authentication, FM and DM logins, TFTP
D. iSCSI authentication, FTP, FC-SP authentication
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which two Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches are used in small- and medium-sized SAN topologies?
(Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Cisco MDS 9124
B. Cisco MDS 9222i
C. Cisco MDS 9506
D. Cisco MDS 9509
E. Cisco MDS 9513
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which second-generation Fibre Channel module offers a full 4Gb/s line rate on all ports?
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
Select the best response.
A. 12-port 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel module
B. 24-port 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel module
C. 24-port 1/2/4/8 Gb/s Fibre Channel module D. 48-port 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel module
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch has non-field-replaceable fans? Select the best response.
A. Cisco MDS 9124
B. Cisco MDS 9134
C. Cisco MDS 9222i
D. Cisco MDS 9506
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
When using the Cisco MDS 9000 Switches, which protocol provides in-band management? Select the best response.
A. FCIP
B. IPFC
C. iSCSI
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
What is a benefit of using the Cisco Fabric Manager Software Install Wizard instead of using the CLI-based software upgrade?
Select the best response.
A. can be used to upgrade multiple switches with a single procedure
B. shows the upgrade procedure progress
C. upgrades kickstart and system images in a single step
D. notifies when upgrade procedure has finished
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359 A junior SAN engineer is asked to prepare the configuration for the NPV edge switch. The NPV edge switch will be connected to the NPV core switch via the fc 1/24 interface. The end device will be connected to the fc 1/1 interface and should be placed in VSAN 10 Which configuration for the NPV edge switch accomplishes this request? Select the best response.
153373-15
153373-7
153373-3
153373-11 PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which two options can be used to enable flex-attach when automatic assignment is used? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).
A. global across all NPV switches
B. global across all NPIV-enabled switches
C. per interface or interface range
D. per server WWN
E. per server FC-ID
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. When looking at the Cisco Fabric Manager, you notice that one of the switches has this symbol superimposed on it. What is the reason? Select the best response.
A. The device is manageable but there are operational problems.
B. The device is online but not working properly.
C. The device is not manageable.
D. The device is down.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
What type of information can the Cisco Fabric Analyzer capture and decode? Select the best response.
A. data traffic within a specific VSAN
B. data traffic within all VSANs PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
C. control traffic within the supervisor module only
D. control traffic from anywhere on a switch
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
As which two options can an RMON event manifest itself? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).
A. log entry
B. email message
C. SNMP trap
D. script action
E. alarm
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. The customer connects two switches for which the E_port does not come up. Which command should the administrator use to resolve the problem?
Select the best response.
A. mds(config)# fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 1 mds(config)# fcdomain restart disruptive vsan 1
B. mds(config)# fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 1 mds(config)# fcdomain restart vsan 1
C. mds(config-vsan-db)# fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 1 mds(config-vsan-db)# fcdomain restart disruptive vsan 1
D. mds(config-vsan-db)# fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 1 mds(config-vsan-db)# fcdomain restart vsan 1
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. The customer wants to upgrade the Cisco MDS 9500 Switch. When they execute the install all command, this output is displayed. What will occur on the modules for which the upgrade’s impact was shown as disruptive? Select the best response.
A. The data flow through the switch will be corrupted and can disastrously affect data consistency.
B. The data flow will be interrupted, and the hosts should be shut down during the upgrade to prevent problems.
C. The data flow will be interrupted, and the applications should be put in the paused and consistent state during the upgrade.
D. The data flow will be paused. No intervention is necessary on the servers.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. The customer network has blue and red VSANs redundantly connected, Path A having a 4-ISL port channel and Path B having a 2-ISL port channel. Changes to the physical topology are not allowed for the next six months. All the traffic now flows over Path A with congestion occurring on both VSANs at peak times. The blue VSAN is, on the average, generating four times the amount of data than that of the red VSAN. How can the blue and red VSAN traffic be separated over the two paths, while preserving redundancy?
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359 Select the best response.
A. Make a zone in the blue VSAN with only ISL ports on Path B, and make another zone in the red VSAN with only ISL ports on Path A.
B. Make a zone in the blue VSAN with only ISL ports on Path A, and make another zone in the red VSAN with only ISL ports on Path B.
C. In the blue VSAN, give Path B a lower FSPF cost than Path A; in the red VSAN, give Path A a lower FSPF cost than Path B.
D. In the blue VSAN, give Path A a lower FSPF cost than Path B; in the red VSAN, give Path B a lower FSPF cost than Path A.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Which command would you use to configure Cisco Fabric Analyzer to display only SCSI-level protocol
traffic for the whole switch? The display needs to be output on the console.
Select the best response.
A. switch(config)# fcanalyzer local display-filter fcp_cmd
B. switch(config)# fcanalyzer display-filter fc_cmd
C. switch(config)# fcanalyzer local display-filter scsi
D. switch(config)# fcanalyzer local display-filter scsi_cmd
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Device Manager screen shows multiple problems in a SAN environment. Which two problems are displayed? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).
A. The amount of RAM in the switch is running out.
B. The amount of NVRAM in the switch is running out.
C. Disk on port fc1/6 is at the limit of its receive bandwidth.
D. Port iscsi2/2 is misconfigured.
E. There is a problem with the CPU.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. What alarm will be sent for this RMON event? 191837412jpg Select the best response.
A. FCIP link failure
B. Fibre Channel link down
C. Fibre Channel link failure
D. Fibre Channel link reestablishment
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
A customer has some performance problems in their SAN environment. They want to use a Cisco MDS
9000 Port Analyzer Adapter to connect to the Cisco MDS Switch to troubleshoot the performance
problems. Which two options need to be configured on the MDS Switch? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
A. Put the port into the proper zone that will be monitored.
B. Set the port speed to the value corresponding with the PAA setting.
C. Put the port in SD port mode.
D. Configure any port channel necessary.
E. Turn off flow control.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. The customer’s ISL links are flapping and seem to go down every few days. While
troubleshooting the problem, they determine that the speed of failover to the redundant path is taking too
long. What is the recommended solution to the problem, involving turning on a feature?
Select the best response.
A. use port tracking
B. disable the flapping ISL
C. use port channel
D. adjust FSPF link costs
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which configuration will enable remote access management using Telnet? Select the best response.
A. interface mgmt0 ip address 10001 2552552550 remote-access enable PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
B. interface mgmt0 ip address 10001 2552552550 feature telnet enable
C. interface mgmt0 ip address 10001 2552552550 telnet enable
D. interface mgmt0 ip address 10001 2552552550 telnet server enable
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
When large Fibre Channel frames must be sent from an MSM 18/4 module at the central site to the remote
offices, what is the consequence of disabling the Path MTU Discovery and using the default Ethernet
MTU?
Select the best response.
A. Packet shaping becomes effective.
B. Minimum retransmission interval is prolonged.
C. Jumbo frames are enabled.
D. Large Fibre Channel frames are fragmented.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
With regards to FCIP encapsulation, which statement is true? Select the best response.
A. The Fibre Channel frame is encapsulated into an IP packet.
B. The Fibre Channel frame is encapsulated into an MPLS packet.
C. The Fibre Channel frame is encapsulated into an Ethernet frame.
D. The Fibre Channel frame is encapsulated into an iSCSI packet.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Which command enables connectivity to a management VSAN via 100010 IP gateway when IPFC in-band
management is used?
Select the best response.
A. ip route 0000 0000 100010
B. route 0/0 100010
C. default-gateway 100010
D. route add default 100010
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which command is used to configure VLAN 100 on the Gigabit Ethernet 2/1 interface through
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
which iSCSI-enabled servers should be connected to the Fibre Channel targets? Select the best response.
A. interface gigabitethernet 2/1100
B. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 vlan 100
C. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 encapsulation isl 100
D. interface gigabitethernet2/1 vlan 100
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Which access control list configuration allows the IP traffic from the 10001 host to be moved to the
192168202 host only?
Select the best response.
A. ip access-list ACL1 permit ip 10001 0000 192168202 0000
B. access-list 10 permit host 10001 host 192168202
C. access-list ACL1 permit source host 10001 destination host 192168202
D. filter ACL permit host 10001 host 192168202
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if one of the power supplies failed? Select the best response.
A. There would be no disruption regarding MDS operation. PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
B. The MDS would shut down the standby supervisor to compensate for the power loss.
C. The MDS would reset the failed power supply in an attempt to resolve the problem.
D. Due to insufficient power, the MDS would shut down some modules.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
The customer wants to create and use custom-based reports to monitor the operation of the deployed MDS switches and the overall health of the SAN. Which option is required in order to use custom reports? Select the best response.
A. standalone Cisco Fabric Manager
B. Cisco Device Manager with Enterprise license installed
C. Cisco Fabric Manager Server with Cisco Performance Manager
D. PAA, SPAN, and protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
If you have a brand new Cisco MDS Switch and you are using the initial setup routine, what information
must be entered?
Select the best response.
A. Admin password
B. Default switch port interface state
C. Management IP address
D. Login account
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting, you clear the fc1/10 interface counters and reset the interface. What is the reason that interface fc1/10 is down?
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359 Select the best response.
A. The interface speed is misconfigured.
B. The SFP is missing.
C. The fiber-optic cable’s transmit and receive pins are not correctly connected.
D. The peer switch uses a different interoperability mode.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which command would you use to determine if device aliases in VSAN 5 are configured for fabriC.wide distribution?
A. show zoneset name alias vsan 5
B. show cfs application name device-alias
C. showfcalias distribution vsan 5
D. show vsan 5 device-alias status
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Drop
Drag the Cisco analysis tool on the left to its appropriate description on the right.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=3 , 2=2, 3=4, 4=3
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The MDS 9000 family switches use what three technologies to protect against unauthorized management access? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPV3
B. SSH
C. RBAC
D. RMON
E. ses
F. WEBM
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
QUESTION 4
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two of these environments suggest the use of FCIP Write Acceleration? (Choose two.)
A. remote tape backup
B. Port Channel links between sites
C. applications that support multiple outstanding l/Os
D. fast network with minimal delays
E. DWDM links
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which three of the following are possible reasons why a line card module does not come online? (Choose three.)
A. Port indexes have been taken offline.
B. Available port indexes are noncontiguous.
C. Not enough power is available in the chassis.
D. An invalid interoperability mode has been configured.
E. Unsupported SFPs have been installed.
F. Not enough port indexes are available.
Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Which two options from the Tools menu would you select to verify connectivity and latency to a Fibre Channel end device? (Choose two.)
A. Switch Health
B. Fabric Configuration
C. End to End Connectivity
D. Ping
E. Device Manager
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
During initial switch configuration, the administrator elects to enable full zoneset distribution. What is the impact of this choice during zoneset activation?
A. only the active zoneset is distributed to all switches in the fabric
B. both the full zone database and active zoneset are distributed to all switches in the fabric
C. both FCID and WWN information are distributed to all switches in the fabric
D. only the full zone database is distributed to all switches in the fabric
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You are asked to review the running configuration of a switch that a junior administrator has prepared to be placed in a heterogeneous SAN environment. This environment includes three different brands of Fibre Channel switches. In this particular environment, only VSAN 1 is being used.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 5 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Which of these attributes suggests that the switch has been incorrectly configured?
A. Astatic domain ID has been set to 0x21.
B. The srC.dst-ox load balancing has been selected.
C. Interop mode 1 has been selected.
D. FCC has been enabled.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Drop
Drag the correct compression mode on the left to its appropriate bandwidth on the right.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. mode1=2 , mode2=3 , mode3=1 , auto=4
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 6 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drop
Click and drag each item on the left to its correct security description on the right.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=6 , 2=2 , 3=3 , 4=5 , 5=4 , 6=1
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 7
QUESTION 12
When configuring FCIP, packet fragmentation should be avoided in order to achieve optimal throughput. Fragmentation can be avoided by knowing which of the following?
A. MTU of the source IP interface
B. largest MTU in the path
C. smallest MTU in the path
D. MTU of the destination IP interface
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
When configuring FCIP, packet fragmentation should be avoided in order to achieve optimal throughput. Fragmentation can be avoided by knowing which of the following?
A. MTU of the source IP interface
B. largest MTU in the path
C. smallest MTU in the path
D. MTU of the destination IP interface
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators? (Choose three.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 8 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
A. iSCSI node name
B. hostname
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSIWWN
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
You have been asked to convert three existing ISLs into a PortChannel as nondisruptively as possible.
Which approach will best accomplish this?
A. Place all three ISLs into a PortChannel, because PortChannel creation is a nondisruptive operation.
B. Convert the ISLs into an EISL and then place them into a PortChannel.
C. Place one link into a single-link PortChannel and then add the other two links to the PortChannel.
D. Ensure that the VSAN allowed lists on both ends of each link are identically configured, then create the three-link PortChannel.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 9 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Which three statements describe automatically supported, basic zone features (no additional configuration required) in the Cisco MDS 9000 Family of switches? (Choose three.)
A. A VSAN contains the zone sets.
B. Zone reactivation can disrupt existing traffic.
C. A zone or zone set with the same name can exist in each VSAN.
D. Hard zoning can be disabled.
E. Active zone sets are preserved across switch reboots
F. Default zoning behavior is to distribute the Full Zone Database.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three options allow or enable nondisruptive upgrades? (Choose three.)
A. IPS module software upgrades
B. dual supervisor modules on a Cisco MDS 9500 Series switch
C. using the install-all command
D. upgrading the loader
E. installing a license F – using the reload command
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which services are supported by a Cisco SAN-OS AAA configuration?
A. Telnet, SSH, FM and DM logins
B. console login, FC.SP authentication, FTP
C. FC.SP authentication, FM and DM logins, TFTP
D. iSCSI authentication, FTP, FC.SP authentication
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop?
A. 126 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 10 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
B. 127
C. 255
D. 256
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A customer with multiple vendor switches establishes an ISL between a non-Cisco switch and an E_Port
on a Cisco MDS 9000 switch.
Which three statements are true about the interop behavior between the two switches? (Choose three.)
A. Exchange-based load balancing is supported in all interop modes.
B. Interop mode affects all VSANs.
C. Only E_Ports can be used to connect to non-Cisco MDS switches.
D. The non-Cisco switch must have matching FC timers with the VSAN containing the E_Port on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series switch.
E. Adding another ISL between the switches will allow a PortChannel to be configured for HA.
F. Interop mode 1 allows full featured communication between all combinations of MDS and non- MDS switches
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which license is required on switches that are going to implement LUN zoning?
A. Storage Services Enabler
B. Enterprise license
C. Fabric Manager Server license
D. SAN Extension over IP license
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Drop
Match the definition on the left with its appropriate word or phrase about switch interoperability on the right.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 11
Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=2, 2=1, 3=4, 4=5, 5=3
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 12 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
QUESTION 23
Which two of these logging statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Call Home message level 0 is most urgent and level 7 is least urgent, whereas the syslog level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent.
B. Syslog message level 0 is most urgent and level 7 is least urgent, whereas the Call Home message level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent,
C. Syslog message level 7 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent, whereas the Call Home message level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent.
D. Accounting logs can be stored locally and sent to remote AAA servers.
E. Go to logs > syslog > setup in Device Manager to view the local accounting log.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which of these Cisco Fabric Manager debugging tools can compare the current configuration with a previously saved configuration file?
A. Switch Health Analysis
B. Fabric Configuration Analysis
C. EnD.to-End Connectivity Analysis
D. Zone Merge Analysis
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Choose the correct list of tasks to configure Remote Spanning.
A. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure a SPAN session in the source switch.
B. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.
C. Create an RSPAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.
D. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the destination switch. Configure the SD_Port in the source switch. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 13 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
When creating an Inter-VSAN routing topology, which type of World Wide Name (WWN) must be used?
A. Port WWN
B. Switch WWN
C. Fabric Port WWN
D. VSAN WWN
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Your company has a multiswitch fabric including Switch A and Switch B. An administrator of Switch A creates the following zone set and successfully activates it: zoneset name ZoneSetl vsan 1 zone name Zonel vsan 1 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:03:b6 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:55:bb Later in the day, a second administrator creates the following zone set on Switch B: zoneset name ZoneSet2 vsan 1 zone name Zonel vsan 1 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:03:b6 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:55:aa What happens when the administrator of Switch B attempts to activate ZoneSet2?
A. ZoneSet2 becomes the active zone set for both Switches A and
B.
C. The fabric segments and ZoneSet2 become the active zone set for Switch B only.
D. The fabric segments and ZoneSet2 become the active zone set for Switch A only.
E. The fabric segments and ZoneSetl remain the active zone set for Switch B, while ZoneSet2 becomes the active zone set for Switch A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 14 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
You have been asked to configure a port on your Cisco MDS switch so that a host can join your fabric. Which of these switch port types should the port be set to?
A. N_Port
B. NL_Port
C. F_Port
D. E_Port
E. TE_Port
F. SD Port
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
DRAG DROP
Drop The IT director wants to standardize the process that the SAN team follows when troubleshooting the SAN. IT director wants to leverage the tools that are provided by Cisco Fabric Manager so that each member of the team executes the samesteps when faced with a problem in the SAN. Click and drag the Cisco Fabric Manager troubleshooting tool to the purpose it serves in the repair strategy.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=2, 2=4, 3=3, 4=1
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 15 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Explanation:
QUESTION 30
Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. RMON
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
A customer would like to implement a low-cost traffic engineering solution that provides a primary data path, and a secondary data path that will only be used in the event of a failure in the primary path. Which of these solutions best meets the customer needs?
A. VSAN allowed list pruning
B. FCC
C. QoS “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 16 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
D. FSPF link costs
E. VOQ
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
The output from the switch show interface command indicates that the link from a host comes up as an FL_Port. The switch port is configured as auto. Which three of these HBA configurations could cause this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. the HBA is configured as an N_Port
B. the HBA is configured as an NL_Port
C. the HBA supports only NL mode
D. the HBA is configured as a TE_Port
E. the HBA supports only FC.AL technology
F. the HBA is configured as an TL_Port
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following statements is true?
A. All users belonging to the sangroup role are allowed to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because the deny config feature fspf is listed first.
B. All users are allowed to perform all configuration commands because the permit config command is listed last and that will globally override all other rules.
C. All users belonging to the sangroup role to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because it does not matter what order the rules are entered.
D. The configuration is not valid because rules are entered at the switch (config-role-vsan)# level.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Which three types of network statistics can be captured with the Cisco Traffic Analyzer? (Choose three.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 17 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
A. historical reporting
B. total bandwidth used
C. Tx/Rx bandwidth per VSAN
D. Tx/Rx bandwidth per N_Port
E. class-based traffic breakdown
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which two security protocols are supported in the Cisco iSCSI implementation? (Choose two.)
A. IPSec
B. FC.SP
C. SLAP
D. CHAP
E. PAP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Issuing the show role command to check a defined role in an MDS 9000 Series switch will produce the following output: Role: Manage VSAN Description: Vsanpolicy: deny Permitted vsans: 2-4 Rule Type Command-type Feature 1- permit config * 2- deny config fspf 3- permit debug zone 4- permit exec fcping
Which of the following two functions can a user with role Manage undertake? (Choose two.)
A. check connectivity for VSAN 2
B. issue a debug command for a port
C. configure FC port parameters for VSAN 3
D. changefspf parameters
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two options can be used to enable flex-attach when automatic assignment is used?
(Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. global across all NPV switches
B. per server WWN
C. per server FC-ID
D. per interface or interface range
E. global across all NPIV-enabled switches
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Match the definition on the left with its appropriate word or phrase about switch interoperability on the right.
A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 2,1,3,4,5
C. 3,1,2,4,5
D. 2,3,4,5,1
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
When using the Cisco MDS 9000 Switches, which protocol provides in-band management? Select the best response.
A. SNMP
B. IPFC
C. FCIP
D. iSCSI
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What information does the command showflogi database provide?
A. verifies connectivity for attached devices
B. displays fabric login errors
C. displays a list of the host ports that have logged into each storage port
D. verifies that attached devices are in the correct zone
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You have set up a session to the SD_Portto enable the investigation of a problem on a particular Fibre Channel port. You need to check whether this has been correctly set up for the desired port. Which command should you use?
A. showfcanalyzer
B. show span session
C. showfcflow
D. showtlport
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
A host is unable to access the storage network after its HBA is replaced. Which of these switch configurations could be preventing access?
A. port-mode security
B. port VSAN membership
C. port-based zoning
D. port security
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which command would you use to determine if device aliases in VSAN 5 are configured for fabriC.wide distribution?
A. showcfs application name device-alias
B. showvsan 5 device-alias status
C. showzoneset name alias vsan 5
D. showfcalias distribution vsan 5
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which feature requires the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Enterprise license?
A. centralized AAA services
B. port security
C. virtual output queues
D. PortChannels
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
What is the recommended minimum clearance between chassis when installing the Cisco MDS 9500 Series in a standard telco rack?
A. 2.5 inches
B. 9 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 6 inches
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
You work as a network administrator for Company.com. You study the exhibit carefully. When
looking at the Cisco Fabric Manager, you notice that one of the switches has this symbol
superimposed on it. What is the reason?
Exhibit:
Select the best response.
A. The device is down.
B. The device is manageable but there are operational problems.
C. The device is not manageable.
D. The device is online but not working properly.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
You work as a network administrator for Company.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which of
the following statements is true?
Exhibit:
A. All users belonging to thesangroup role to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because it does not matter what order the rules are entered.
B. All users belonging to thesangroup role are allowed to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because the deny config feature fspf is listed first.
C. All users are allowed to perform all configuration commands because the permitconfig command is listed last and that will globally override all other rules.
D. The configuration is not valid because rules are entered at the switch (config-role-vsan)# level.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
A. RMON
B. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Performance Manager
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which two security protocols are supported in the Cisco iSCSI implementation? (Choose two.)
A. SLAP
B. CHAP
C. IPSec
D. PAP
E. FC.SP
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
While examining the output of a show run command on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series, you notice that the statement interface GigabitEthernet2/2 appears in the output. What does this mean?
A. It refers to the second FCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1 is assigned to VSAN 2.
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
While examining the output of a show run command on the CiscoMDS9000Series, you notice that the statement interface GigabitEthernet2/1.2 appears in the output. What does this mean?
A. It refers to these condFCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1is assigned to VSAN2.
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
The HBA on your storage server only supports the NL_Port mode. Which interface type on the Cisco MDS9000Series fabrics witches can support this HBA?
A. F
B. TE
C. FL
D. N E. E
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators?(Choose three.)
A. iSCS Inodename
B. hostname
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSI WWN
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabriclockedduringconfigurationchanges
B. largerzoningdatabasesize
C. databaserollbackincaseoffailure
D. zonesallowedtospanVSANs
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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