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NSE 5 FortiClient 7.0
FortiClient EMS – Administration Guide 7.0
FortiClient – Administration Guide 7.0
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Which shows FortiClient EMS deployment profiles. When an administrator creates a deployment profile on FortiClient EMS, which statement about the deployment profile is true?
A. Deployment-1 will install FortiClient on new AD group endpoints B. Deployment-2 will install FortiClient on both the AD group and workgroup C. C. Deployment-2 will upgrade FortiClient on both the AD group and workgroup D. Deployment-1 will upgrade FortiClient only on the workgroup
Correct Answer: C
Q2 – New
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has restored the modified XML configuration file to FortiClient and sees the error shown in the exhibit. Based on the XML settings shown in the exhibit, what must the administrator do to resolve the issue with the XML configuration file?
A. The administrator must resolve the XML syntax error. B. The administrator must use a password to decrypt the file C. The administrator must change the file size D. The administrator must save the file as FortiClient-config conf.
Correct Answer: A
Q3 – New
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the Security Fabric automation settings, what action will be taken on compromised endpoints?
A. Endpoints will be quarantined through EMS B. Endpoints will be banned on FortiGate C. An email notification will be sent for compromised endpoints D. Endpoints will be quarantined through FortiSwitch
Correct Answer: A
Q4 – New
An administrator deploys a FortiClient installation through the Microsoft AD group policy After installation is complete all the custom configuration is missing. What could have caused this problem?
A. The FortiClient exe file is included in the distribution package B. The FortiClient MST file is missing from the distribution package C. FortiClient does not have permission to access the distribution package. D. The FortiClient package is not assigned to the group
Correct Answer: D
Q5 – New
Which two VPN types can a FortiClient endpoint user inmate from the Windows command prompt? (Choose two)
A. L2TP B. PPTP C. IPSec D. SSL VPN
Correct Answer: CD
Q6 – New
An administrator is required to maintain a software inventory on the endpoints. without showing the feature on the FortiClient dashboard. What must the administrator do to achieve this requirement?
A. The administrator must use the default endpoint profile B. The administrator must not select the vulnerability scan feature in the deployment package. C. The administrator must select the vulnerability scan feature in the deployment package but disable the feature on the endpoint profile D. The administrator must click the hide icon on the vulnerability scan tab
Correct Answer: C
Q7 – New
What is the function of the quick scan option on FortiClient?
A. It scans programs and drivers that are currently running, for threats. B. It allows users to select a specific file folder on their local hard disk drive (HDD), to scan for threats. C. It performs a full system scan including all files, executable files, DLLs, and drivers for threats.
Correct Answer: A
Q8 – New
Refer to the exhibit.
Which shows the output of the ZTNA traffic log on FortiGate. What can you conclude from the log message?
A. The remote user connection does not match the explicit proxy policy. B. The remote user connection does not match the ZTNA server configuration. C. C. The remote user connection does not match the ZTNA rule configuration. D. The remote user connection does not match the ZTNA firewall policy
Correct Answer: C
Q9 – New
Refer to the exhibit.
Which shows multiple endpoint policies on FortiClient EMS. Which policy is applied to the endpoint in the AD group training?
A. The Sales Policy B. B. The Training Policy C. Both the Sales and Training policies because their priority is higher than the Default policy D. The Default policy because it has the highest priority
Correct Answer: B
Q10 – New
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the CLI output from FortiGate. which statement is true?
A. FortiGate is configured to pull user groups from FortiClient EMS B. FortiGate is configured with a local user group C. FortiGate is configured to pull user groups from FortiAuthenticator D. FortiGate is configured to pull user groups from the AD Server.
Correct Answer: A
Q11 – New
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the settings shown in the exhibit, which two actions must the administrator take to make the endpoint compliant? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the web filter profile B. Integrate FortiSandbox for infected file analysis C. Patch applications that have vulnerability rated as high or above D. Run the Calculator application on the endpoint
Correct Answer: CD
Q12 – New
An administrator installs FortiClient on Windows Server. What is the default behavior of real-time protection control?
A. Real-time protection must update the AV signature database B. Real-time protection sends malicious files to FortiSandbox when the file is not detected locally C. Real-time protection is disabled D. Real-time protection must update the signature database from FortiSandbox
Correct Answer: C
Q13 – New
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the FortiClient logs shown in the exhibit which endpoint profile policy is currently applied to the FortiClient endpoint from the EMS server?
A. Default B. Compliance rules default C. C. Fortinet- Training D. Default configuration policy
Correct Answer: C
……
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Fortinet NSE 7 certification requires you to successfully pass at least one NSE 7 exam, today we are talking about the NSE7_OTS-6.4 exam which is the Fortinet NSE 7 – OT Security 6.4 exam. You have to pass it successfully to get it.
Fortinet NSE 7 – Advanced Analytics
Fortinet NSE 7 – Advanced Threat Protection
Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall
Fortinet NSE 7 – FortiSOAR Design and Development
Fortinet NSE 7 – LAN Edge (formerly Secure Access)
Its exam version is FortiOS 6.4 and the language is English. You’ll need to answer 35 questions in 60 minutes, multiple choice.
Here are some useful NSE7_OTS-6.4 learning resources for you:
NSE 7 OT Security 6.4 l NSE 4 FortiGate Security 6.4 l NSE 4 FortiGate Infrastructure 6.4 l NSE 5 FortiAnalyzer 6.4 l NSE 5 FortiSIEM 5.3 l NSE 6 FortiNAC 8.5 FortiOS Administration Guide 6.4.3 l FortiOS CLI Reference 6.4.3 l FortiAnalyzer Administration Guide 6.4.3 l FortiSIEM User Guide 5.3.1 l FortiNAC Administration and Operation Guide 8.5
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1. An administrator wants to use FortiSoC and SOAR features on a FortiAnalyzer device to detect and block any unauthorized access to FortiGate devices in an OT network. Which two statements about FortiSoC and SOAR features on FortiAnalyzer are true? (Choose two.)
A. You must set the correct operator in the event handler to trigger an event. B. You can automate SOC tasks through playbooks. C. Each playbook can include multiple triggers. D. You cannot use Windows and Linux to host security events with FortiSoC.
Correct Answer: BC
2. An OT administrator is defining an incident notification policy using FortiSIEM and would like to configure the system with a notification policy. If an incident occurs, the administrator would like to be able to intervene and block an IP address or disable a user in Active Directory from FortiSIEM. Which step must the administrator take to achieve this task?
A. Configure a fabric connector with a notification policy on FortiSIEM to connect with FortiGate. B. Create a notification policy and define a script/remediation on FortiSIEM. C. Define a script/remediation on FortiManager and enable a notification rule on FortiSIEM. D. Deploy a mitigation script on Active Directory and create a notification policy on FortiSIEM.
Correct Answer: C
3. Refer to the exhibit, which shows a non-protected OT environment.
An administrator needs to implement proper protection on the OT network. Which three steps should an administrator take to protect the OT network? (Choose three.)
A. Deploy an edge FortiGate between the internet and an OT network as a one-arm sniffer. B. Deploy a FortiGate device within each ICS network. C. Configure firewall policies with web filters to protect the different ICS networks. D. Configure firewall policies with industrial protocol sensors E. Use segmentation
Correct Answer: ACD
4. An OT supervisor needs to protect their network by implementing security with an industrial signature database on the FortiGate device. Which statement about the industrial signature database on FortiGate is true?
A. A supervisor must purchase an industrial signature database and import it to FortiGate. B. An administrator must create their own database using custom signatures. C. By default, the industrial database is enabled. D. A supervisor can enable it through the FortiGate CLI.
Correct Answer: D
5. Refer to the exhibit.
In the topology shown in the exhibit, both PLCs can communicate directly with each other, without going through the firewall. Which statement about the topology is true?
A. PLCs use the IEEE802.1Q protocol to communicate with each other. B. An administrator can create firewall policies in the switch to secure between PLCs. C. This integration solution expands VLAN capabilities from Layer 2 to Layer 3. D. There is no micro-segmentation in this topology.
Correct Answer: D
6. What two advantages does FortiNAC provide in the OT network? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used for IoT device detection. B. It can be used for industrial intrusion detection and prevention. C. It can be used for network micro-segmentation. D. It can be used for device profiling.
Correct Answer: CD
7. Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the topology designed by the OT architect, which two statements about implementing OT security are true? (Choose two.)
A. Firewall policies should be configured on FortiGate-3 and FortiGate-4 with industrial protocol sensors. B. Micro-segmentation can be achieved only by replacing FortiGate-3 and FortiGate-4 with a pair of FortiSwitch devices. C. IT and OT networks are separated by segmentation. D. FortiGate-3 and FortiGate-4 devices must be in a transparent mode.
Correct Answer: CD
8. Refer to the exhibit.
You are navigating through FortiSIEM in an OT network. How do you view information presented in the exhibit and what does the FortiGate device security status tell you?
A. In the PCI logging dashboard and there are one or more high-severity security incidents for the FortiGate device. B. In the summary dashboard and there are one or more high-severity security incidents for the FortiGate device. C. In the widget dashboard and there are one or more high-severity incidents for the FortiGate device. D. In the business service dashboard and there are one or more high-severity security incidents for the FortiGate device.
Correct Answer: B
9. When you create a user or host profile, which three criteria can you use? (Choose three.)
A. Host or user group memberships B. Administrative group membership C. An existing access control policy D. Location E. Host or user attributes
Correct Answer: ADE
10. Refer to the exhibit.
An OT architect has implemented a Modbus TCP with a simulation server Conpot to identify and control the Modus traffic in the OT network. The FortiGate-Edge device is configured with a software switch interface SSW-01. Based on the topology shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the successful simulation of traffic between client and server are true? (Choose two.)
A. The FortiGate-Edge device must be in NAT mode. B. NAT is disabled in the FortiGate firewall policy from port3 to SSW-01. C. The FortiGate devices are in offline IDS mode. D. Port5 is not a member of the software switch.
Correct Answer: AC
11. An OT network administrator is trying to implement active authentication. Which two methods should the administrator use to achieve this? (Choose two.)
A. Two-factor authentication on FortiAuthenticator B. Role-based authentication on FortiNAC C. FSSO authentication on FortiGate D. Local authentication on FortiGate
Correct Answer: AB
12. What triggers Layer 2 polling of infrastructure devices connected to the network?
A. A failed Layer 3 poll B. A matched security policy C. A matched profiling rule D. A linkup or link down trap
Correct Answer: D
13. Which three Fortinet products can be used for device identification in an OT industrial control system (ICS)? (Choose three.)
A. FortiNAC B. FortiManager C. FortiAnalyzer D. FortiSIEM E. FortiGate
Correct Answer: ACD
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Fortinet NSE 6 – Pass the FortiNAC 8.5 exam to earn the NSE 6 Network Security Specialist certification.
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1. Which two methods can be used to gather a list of installed applications and application details from a host? (Choose two.)
A. Agent technology B. MDM integration C. Portal page on-boarding options D. Application layer traffic inspection
3. Which system group will force at-risk hosts into the quarantine network, based on point of connection?
A. Forced Quarantine B. Forced Remediation C. Forced Isolation D. Physical Address Filtering
Correct Answer: B
A remediation plan is established, including a forensic analysis and a reload of the system. Also, users are forced to change their passwords as the system held local user accounts.
4. How should you configure MAC notification traps on a supported switch?
A. Configure them only on ports set as 802.1q trunks B. Configure them on all ports except uplink ports C. Configure them on all ports on the switch D. Configure them only after you configure linkup and linkdown traps
6. Which three communication methods are used by the FortiNAC to gather information from, and control, infrastructure devices? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP B. RADIUS C. FTP D. CLI E. SMTP
Correct Answer: ABC
Set up SNMP communication with FortiNAC RADIUS Server that is used by FortiNAC to communicate FortiNAC can be configured via CLI to use HTTP or HTTPS for OS updates instead of FTP.
8. Which three circumstances trigger Layer 2 polling of infrastructure devices? (Choose three.)
A. A matched security policy B. Scheduled poll timings C. Linkup and Linkdown traps D. Manual polling E. A failed Layer 3 poll
Correct Answer: BCD
9. During the on-boarding process through the captive portal, why would a host that successfully registered remain stuck in the Registration VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. The wrong agent is installed. B. Bridging is enabled on the host. C. There is another unregistered host on the same port. D. The ports default VLAN is the same as the Registration VLAN.
10. What causes a host\\’s state to change to “at risk”?
A. The host has been administratively disabled. B. The logged-on user is not found in the Active Directory. C. The host has failed an endpoint compliance policy or admin scan. D. The host is not in the Registered Hosts group.
Correct Answer: C Failure ? Indicates that the host has failed the scan. This option can also be set manually. When the status is set to Failure the host is marked”; At Ris”; for the selected scan.
11. What would occur if both an unknown (rogue) device and a known (trusted) device simultaneously appeared on a port that is a member of the Forced Registration port group?
A. The port would be provisioned to the registration network, and both hosts would be isolated. B. The port would not be managed, and an event would be generated. C. The port would be provisioned for the normal state host, and both hosts would have access to that VLAN. D. The port would be administratively shut down.
Correct Answer: C
12. With enforcement for network access policies and at-risk hosts enabled, what will happen if a host matches a network access policy and has a state of “at risk”?
A. The host is provisioned based on the network access policy. B. The host is provisioned based on the default access defined by the point of connection. C. The host is isolated. D. The host is administratively disabled.
A. VLAN-based inventory reporting B. Interactive topology view diagrams C. Application of different access values from a single access policy D. Auto population of device groups based on point of connection
Correct Answer: A NTM also includes reporting utilities such as network and inventory reports. You can generate reports for subnets, switch ports, and VLANs. Reference: https://logicalread.com/network-diagram/#.YBk9ZOgzbIU
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Exam Code: NS0-194 NCSE Exam Title: NetApp Certified Support Engineer Exam Price: $150 Duration: 90 minutes Passing score: 63% Free questions: see below Number of questions: 60 Official resources:
Introduction to NetApp Storage System Basic Components (WBT)
Introduction to Clustered Data ONTAP Architecture (WBT)
Introduction to Aggregates and FlexVols in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to Networking in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to High-Availability in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
Introduction to Data Protection in Clustered Data ONTAP (WBT)
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You received the “CLUSTER ERROR: DISK/SHELF COUNT MISMATCH” AutoSupport message from an ONTAP cluster. When analyzing this message, which two should be inspected? (Choose two.)
A. drive paths B. IOM firmware C. drive firmware D. SAS cabling
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION # 2
A volume was accidentally deleted two hours ago by another administrator. No backups exist. In this scenario, what do you do to restore the data?
A. Use the ONTAP System Manager to recover the volume. B. Use a volume snapshot to return the data to the active file system. C. Use the volume recovery queue to restore the volume. D. Use an aggregate snapshot to revert the aggregate to an earlier state.
You have determined that an SFP+ has failed on one of your storage controllers. In this scenario, what do you use to determine which SFP+ should be replaced by NetApp Support?
A. NetApp Active IQ B. Interoperability Matrix Tool C. NetApp Documentation Center D. Hardware Universe
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION # 4
While troubleshooting client access issues to a CIFS share, you notice that the issue only occurs when the data LIF that the clients are accessing is on a specific node in the cluster. In this scenario, which configuration should you review to determine why this issue is happening?
A. cluster health B. Kerberos C. share path D. export policies
You observe cyclic redundancy check (CRC) errors on a network port from a node in the cluster. Which two components would you consider reseating or replacing before you perform actions on the physical port where the errors are reported from the node? (Choose two.)
A. SFP B. cluster interconnect switch C. up-stream switch D. cable
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION # 6
Your customer\’s MetroCluster has generated a “DISK REDUNDANCY FAILED” message. Netapp-EmA: Tue Jan 14 04:12:12 CET [netapp-EmA:cf.rv.notConnected:error]: HA interconnect: Connection for \’cfo_rv\’ failed.
Tue Jan 14 04:12:13 CET [netapp-EmA:rv.connection.torndown:info]: HA interconnect: cfo_rv1 is torn down on NIC 1.
Tue Jan 14 04:12:13 CET [netapp-EmA:cf.rv.notConnected:error]: HA interconnect: Connection for \’cfo_rv\’1 failed.
Tue Jan 14 04:12:15 CET [netapp-EmA:rv.connection.torndown:info]: HA interconnect: cfo_rv2 is torn down on NIC 1.
Tue Jan 14 04:12:18 CET [netapp-EmA:cf.rv.notConnected:error]: HA interconnect: Connection for \’cfo_rv\’2 failed.
Tue Jan 14 04:12:19 CET [netapp-EmA:bridge.removed:info]: FC-to_SAS bridge siteB_2:13.126L0 [ATTO FibreBridge6500N 1.61] S/N [FB7500N111161] was removed Tue Jan 14 04:12:19 CET [netappEmA:bridge.removed:info]: FCto_SAS bridge siteB_2:5.126L0 [ATTO FibreBridge6500N 1.61] S/N [FB7500N111160] was removed
Netapp-EmB: Tue Jan 14 04:12:12 CET [netapp-EmB:cf.rv.notConnected:error]: HA interconnect: Connection for \’cfo_rv\’ failed.
Tue Jan 14 04:12:12 CET [netapp-EmB:rv.connection.torndown:info]: HA interconnect: cfo_rv2 is torn down on NIC 1.
Tue Jan 14 04:12:13 CET [netapp-EmB:rv.connection.torndown:info]: HA interconnect: cfo_rv1 is torn down on NIC 1.
Tue Jan 14 04:12:13 CET [netapp-EmB:cf.rv.notConnected:error]: HA interconnect: Connection for \’cfo_rv\’1 failed.
Tue Jan 14 04:12:18 CET [netapp-EmB:cf.rv.notConnected:error]: HA interconnect: Connection for \’cfo_rv\’2 failed.
Tue Jan 14 04:12:19 CET [netapp-EmB:bridge.removed:info]: FC-to_SAS bridge siteA_2:13.126L0 [ATTO FibreBridge6500N 1.61] S/N [FB7500N111167] was removed Tue Jan 14 04:12:19 CET [netappEmB:bridge.removed:info]: FCto_SAS bridge siteA_2:5.126L0 [ATTO FibreBridge6500N 1.61] S/N [FB7500N111164] was removed Referring to the messages shown in the exhibit for each node, which component is causing the problem?
A. the ATTO bridge on siteB_2 B. the SAN switch siteA_2 C. the SAN switch siteB_2 D. the ISL between site and site B\
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION # 7
A customer ordered a FAS2720 cluster with 8 TB SATA drives. The customer wants to use the Advanced Drive Partitioning (ADP) feature to avoid consuming the high-capacity drives for the root aggregate. Before you use the cluster setup, you issue the aggr status command and notice that ADP is not being used.
In this scenario, what would you use to implement ADP?
A. loader prompt B. special boot menu C. nodeshell D. SP prompt
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION # 8
A customer will need to perform an upgrade from 9.0 to 9.4. Which feature of ONTAP enables non-disruptive hardware maintenance for this upgrade?
A. aggregate relocation B. FlexVol C. FlexGroup D. RAID-TEC
Test user “LAB\tester” can perform an operation in the CIFS share “HR” from the SVM “svm1”. However, the rest of the users from the HR department cannot perform the same operation. You want to determine why only “LAB\tester” can perform the operation.
In this scenario, which security trace filter accomplishes this task?
A. vserver security trace filter create -vserver svm1 -index 1 -protocol nfs -unix-name tester -trace-allow no B. vserver security trace filter create -vserver svm1 -index 1 -protocol cifs -windows- name LAB\tester -trace-allow no C. vserver security trace filter create -vserver svm1 -index 1 -protocol cifs -windows- name LAB\tester -trace-allow yes D. vserver security trace filter create -vserver svm1 -index 1 -protocol nfs -unix-name tester -trace-allow yes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION # 11
In ONTAP 9.6, activity on the command line is found in which log?
A. audit.log B. messages.log C. command-history.log D. mgwd.log
A customer receives the message shown below in their EMS logs. Tue Jun 27 18:34:18 CEST [netapp-ct1: cp_worker: wafl.cp.too long: error]: Aggregate AG1_NTAP_PROD experienced a long CP. Tue Jun 27 18:37:10 CEST Which two data sources do you use to explain this message? (Choose two.)
A. ONTAP System Manager B. Performance Archive C. Active IQ Unified Manager D. mgwd.log
What are two reasons to use VLANs in a NetApp storage solution? (Choose two.)
A. to isolate UDP traffic from TCP traffic B. to isolate management traffic from other IP traffic C. to isolate iSCSI traffic from NAS traffic D. to isolate FC traffic from other IP traffic
Correct Answer: AC
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Exam name: Fortinet NSE 4—FortiOS 7.0 Exam series: NSE4_FGT-7.0 Time allowed: 105 minutes Exam questions: 60 multiple-choice questions Language: English and Japanese Product version: FortiOS 7.0 Official resources: NSE 4 FortiGate Security 7.0 NSE 4 FortiGate Infrastructure 7.0 FortiOS 7.0—Administration Guide FortiOS 7.0—New Features Guide Prepare resources efficiently: Pass4itSure NSE4_FGT-7.0 Dumps
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QUESTION # 1
FortiGuard categories can be overridden and defined in different categories. To create a web rating override for example.com home page, the override must be configured using a specific syntax. Which two syntaxes are correct to configure web rating for the home page? (Choose two.)
A. www.example.com:443 B. www.example.com C. example.com D. www.example.com/index.html
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION # 2
Which two statements about IPsec authentication on FortiGate are correct? (Choose two.)
A. For a stronger authentication, you can also enable extended authentication (XAuth) to request the remote peer to provide a username and password B. FortiGate supports pre-shared key and signature as authentication methods. C. Enabling XAuth results in faster authentication because fewer packets are exchanged. D. A certificate is not required on the remote peer when you set the signature as the authentication method.
The Root and To_Internet VDOMs are configured in NAT mode. The DMZ and Local VDOMs are configured in transparent mode. The Root VDOM is the management VDOM. The To_Internet VDOM allows LAN users to access the internet.
The To_lnternet VDOM is the only VDOM with internet access and is directly connected to the ISP modem. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Inter-VDOM links are required to allow traffic between the Local and Root VDOMs. B. A static route is required on the To_Internet VDOM to allow LAN users to access the internet. C. Inter-VDOM links are required to allow traffic between the Local and DMZ VDOMs. D. Inter-VDOM links are not required between the Root and To_Internet VDOMs because the Root VDOM is used only as a management VDOM.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION # 4
Which statements about the firmware upgrade process on an active-active HA cluster are true? (Choose two.)
A. The firmware image must be manually uploaded to each FortiGate. B. Only secondary FortiGate devices are rebooted. C. Uninterruptable upgrade is enabled by default. D. Traffic load balancing is temporally disabled while upgrading the firmware.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION # 5
A FortiGate is operating in NAT mode and configured with two virtual LAN (VLAN) sub-interfaces added to the physical interface. Which statements about the VLAN sub-interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in different subnets.
A. The two VLAN sub-interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in different subnets. B. The two VLAN sub-interfaces must have different VLAN IDs. C. The two VLAN sub-interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they belong to different VDOMs. D. The two VLAN sub-interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in the same subnet.
Correct Answer: B
FortiGate_Infrastructure_6.0_Study_Guide_v2-Online.pdf ?gt; page 147 “Multiple VLANs can coexist in the same physical interface, provide they have different VLAN ID”
QUESTION # 6
By default, FortiGate is configured to use HTTPS when performing live web filtering with FortiGuard servers. Which two CLI commands will cause FortiGate to use an unreliable protocol to communicate with FortiGuard servers for live web filtering? (Choose two.)
A. set fortiguard anycast disable B. set protocol UDP C. set web filter-force-off to disable D. set web filter-cache to disable
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION # 7
Refer to the exhibit, which contains a radius server configuration.
An administrator added a configuration for a new RADIUS server. While configuring, the administrator selected the Include in every user group option. What will be the impact of using Include in every user group option in a RADIUS configuration?
A. This option places the RADIUS server and all users who can authenticate against that server, into every FortiGate user group. B. This option places all FortiGate users and groups required to authenticate into the RADIUS server, which, in this case, is FortiAuthenticator. C. This option places all users into every RADIUS user group, including groups that are used for the LDAP server on FortiGate. D. This option places the RADIUS server, and all users who can authenticate against that server, into every RADIUS group.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION # 8
Refer to the exhibit.
The exhibits show a network diagram and the explicit web proxy configuration. In the command diagnose sniffer packet, what filter can you use to capture the traffic between the client and the explicit web proxy?
A. host 192.168.0.2 and port 8080\\' B.host 10.0.0.50 and port 80\’ C. host 192.168.0.1 and port 80\\' D.host 10.0.0.50 and port 8080\’
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION # 9
Which three criteria can a FortiGate use to look for a matching firewall policy to process traffic? (Choose three.)
A. Source is defined as Internet Services in the firewall policy. B. Destination is defined as Internet Services in the firewall policy. C. Highest to lowest priority defined in the firewall policy. D. Services defined in the firewall policy. E. Lowest to the highest policy ID number.
The exhibit contains a network diagram, firewall policies, and a firewall address object configuration. An administrator created a Deny policy with default settings to deny Webserver access for Remote- user2. Remote-user2 is still able to access Webserver.
Which two changes can the administrator make to deny Webserver access for Remote-User2? (Choose two.)
A. Disable match-VIP in the Deny policy. B. Set the Destination address as Deny_IP in the Allow-access policy. C. Enable match VIP in the Deny policy. D. Set the Destination address as Web_server in the Deny policy.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION # 11
Which two protocol options are available on the CLI but not on the GUI when configuring an SD-WAN Performance SLA? (Choose two.)
A. DNS B. ping C. UDP-echo D. TWAMP
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION # 12
In an explicit proxy setup, where is the authentication method and database configured?
A. Proxy Policy B. Authentication Rule C. Firewall Policy D. Authentication scheme
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION # 13
What devices form the core of the security fabric?
A. Two FortiGate devices and one FortiManager device B. One FortiGate device and one FortiManager device C. Two FortiGate devices and one FortiAnalyzer device D. One FortiGate device and one FortiAnalyzer device
