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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 700-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-35)
QUESTION 1
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network
anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
700-260 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Why might companies need Cisco Cyber Threat Defense?
A. They need cost-effective security management outsourcing.
B. They have increased bandwidth needs and allow BYOD
C. They need to add and provision servers faster than ever.
D. They have a lack of segmented or differentiated access.
E. They are being inundated with advanced, persistent threats.
F. They have an infrastructure of overlapping rule sets, complex inheritance, and oversubscription
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Cutting IT administrative costs and leveraging current hardware are features that demonstrate which Cisco business
value?
A. Completeness
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Flexibility
D. Control
E. Protection 700-260 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
In addition to protection, control, and flexibility, which two business values are included in Cisco value propositions?
(Choose two.)
A. Low cost
B. Completeness
C. Cost effectiveness
D. Scalability
E. Integration
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
End-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum are features that demonstrate which two Cisco
business values? (Choose two.)
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6
The unmatched security that Cisco offers is demonstrated by its long-standing experience in which two options?
(Choose two.)
A. Mobile solutions
B. Networks
C. Software
D. Security
E. Devices
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
Reputation analysis and recommended remediation steps are examples of which customer cost saver?
A. Flexible licensing
B. Faster integration
C. Fewer resources to manage
D. Less time scoping a breach
700-260 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which two options benefit a partner who is selling Cisco security solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Incentives programs
B. Lower total cost of ownership
C. Simplified architecture solution
D. Opportunities for new revenue
E. Partner referrals
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Secure Access Control Server solution technology would you recommend to a corporation that is trying to connect computers, smart phones, and tablets in different locations to a customer network?
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
B. Cisco AnyConnect
C. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine
E. Cisco TrustSec
700-260 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the first stage of the Cisco software lifecycle.where sellers engage with customers to create a strategy and
development plan?
A. upsell and cross sell
B. asset management
C. plan
D. activate
E. adopt
F. renew
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
The fact that Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and control of network and application traffic is a prime example of which Cisco value?
A. Scalability
B. Time-to-value
C. Protection
D. Control
E. Flexibility
F. Agility 700-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications
C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
Consolidating platforms and appliances under a single provider is an example of which customer cost saver?
A. Less time scoping a breach
B. Fewer resources to manage
C. Faster integration
D. Flexible licensing
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which solution should you suggest to a company that wants to prevent employees from inadvertently sending
confidential information?
A. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
E. Cisco Email Security Appliance
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 15
Leveraging current infrastructures without buying new appliances and avoiding lengthy customizations are examples of which customer cost saver?
A. Less time scoping a breach
B. Faster integration
C. Flexible licensing
D. Fewer resources to manage
700-260 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which option would be the primary concern of a CIO who is focused on advanced protection in the advanced protection use case?
A. Integrate solutions seamlessly
B. Onboard devices quickly
C. Expand into new markets
D. Reduce vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
The fact that Cisco Content Security integrates seamlessly with existing security and network infrastructures is a prime example of which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
700-260 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features that
demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which four options are examples of Cisco network security solutions? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Web Security Appliance
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine
E. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
H. Cisco ASA Firewall Services 700-260 dumps Correct Answer: BEGH
QUESTION 20
Why do partners often have a hard time selling their new security solutions to customers?
A. Customers have antiquated solutions.
B. Customers show a lack of concern over malware and threats.
C. Customers boast completely secure environments.
D. Customers have overcrowded portfolios of security solutions from multiple vendors.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
At which point during the attack continuum does a customer experience limited remediation tools?
A. Across the entire continuum
B. During
C. Before
D. After
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which four options are Cisco industry differentiators? (Choose four.)
A. Uncontested threat blocking
B. Best-in-class technologies
C. Lowest price
D. Unparalleled commitment to security
E. Largest selection of security solutions
F. Unmatched support and services
G. Comprehensive vision for security
Correct Answer: BDFG
QUESTION 23
Given the award-winning resources and support that Cisco offers, with what kind of customers can partners create
unique relationships?
A. Customers who can be the first to receive new innovations
B. Customers who can access 24-hour support around the world
C. Customers who can earn higher margins on each deal that is sold
D. Customers who can take advantage of incentives programs
700-260 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which option would be a primary security concern of a large, growing corporation that is trying to scale its data center growth with its growing business in the secure data center use case?
A. Inexperienced IT staff
B. Lack of scalable and flexible security options
C. No employee remote access
D. Lack of device variability
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
According to recent studies, what percentage of global companies has experienced a security breach?
A. 100 percent
B. 75 percent
C. 33 percent
D. 5 percent
E. 0 percent
700-260 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which component of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure technology solution enables centralized management for the entire solution and is a primary differentiator from the Cisco Secure Data Center virtualization and cloud?
A. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Security Manager
D. Cisco Fire SIGHT Management Center
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which two solutions are main components of Cisco Content Security? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
B. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
C. Cisco Web Security Appliance
D. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
E. Cisco Remote-Access VPN
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance 700-260 dumps Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 28
Which two options are features of Cisco Enterprise License Agreements? (Choose two.)
A. One agreement for each part of the business
B. Short-term lifespan under one year
C. Unforeseen costs and fees in the future
D. Organic growth up to 20 percent
E. Up-front pricing
F. Limited consumption models
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 29
What is the primary customer challenge that is created by the wide variety of security solution providers on the market?
A. Choosing the right provider
B. Contacting all providers for information
C. Finding a low-cost option
D. Determining the single best security product
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Security gaps
B. Lack of firewall
C. Pieced together
D. Missing components
E. Fragmented solutions
F. Lack of management solutions
G. Lack of cloud solution
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 31
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
700-260 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which two aspects of Cisco solutions save customers money? (Choose two.)
A. 100 percent effectiveness
B. Faster integration
C. Fewer resources to manage
D. Lowest-cost solutions
E. Incentives programs
F. Complete replacement of current infrastructure
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 33
The fact that Cisco leads the industry in Gartner\’s Magic Quadrants for email, web, NGIPS, and NGFW is a prime
example of which Cisco differentiator?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Best-in-class technologies
E. Lowest price points
700-260 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Which technology solution can resolve the inability of a customer to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?
A. Cisco Secure Data Center
B. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
E. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Which Cisco security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their businesses?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Lowest price points
E. Best-in-class technologies 700-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 700-039 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-24)
QUESTION 1
Which two characteristics are differentiators for the Cisco ISR router compared to the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Decoupling the delivery of software from hardware on optional service modules
B. Integration of WLAN access points
C. Routes network traffic down alternative paths to avoid congestion, which switches cannot do
D. Support of analog voice connections
E. Operational simplicity through a single, universal Cisco IOS Software image. Services Ready Engine, EnergyWise
innovations, and investment protection
700-039 exam Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2
Which tool offers a blueprint for designing and deploying a full-service, comprehensive network to support business needs?
A. Cisco Smart Business Roadmap
B. Cisco Collaboration Use Case Tool
C. Cisco Steps to Success
D. Cisco Smart Business Architecture
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
In which layer of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture do you find session and content management?
A. Collaboration applications layer
B. Endpoint device layer
C. Infrastructure layer
D. Collaboration services layer 700-039 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
The customer satisfaction index is an important business Key Performance Indicator Which building block of the business model references that KPI?
A. Channels
B. CRM
C. Key activities
D. Customer segments
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which three statements are benefits of a financial analysis? (Choose three.)
A. It uses ROI measures that are always accepted by other stakeholders or the CFO.
B. It increases the size of the deal and the potential services revenue
C. It highlights strategic and tactical benefits.
D. It requires minimal resources and is risk-free
E. It encourages the customer to examine Cisco Unified Communications in more detail.
F. It is a simple process and it can be completed in time, well within the sales cycle.
700-039 pdf Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 6
Which two statements describe how Cisco Validated Designs help to build BOM faster? (Choose two)
A. They help a presales engineer to better understand a customer\’s business
B. They help to verify any BOM that is created
C. Cisco architects use Cisco Validated Designs to attach a network diagram to a BOM.
D. Cross-architectural aspects assist with proper design.
E. Proven, tested designs ensure BOM will not change frequently.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 7
Which three options are benefits of Cisco Prime Collaboration? (Choose three.)
A. It enables automatic monitoring and repair of Cisco devices and software applications.
B. It enables comprehensive monitoring and diagnostics for Cisco Unified Communications and Cisco Telepresence systems.
C. It provides historical reporting and trending on Collaboration business metrics.
D. It verifies whether the network is secure and efficient.
E. It reduces the expertise needed to manage changes that occur when the network is operational.
F. It ensures consistent configurations by increasing the per-user configuration time.
700-039 vce Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 8
Cisco supply chain agility solutions are addressing a crucial part within the manufacturing industry. Which of the following is the main driver of that branch of industry?
A. Adopt the supply chain to changing markets
B. Achieve lower unit costs
C. Achieve stronger competitive position in the marketplace
D. Increase utilization of manufacturing plants
E. Ensure quality standards to customers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which three roles belong to an informal buying center that the account manager must be aware of? (Choose three)
A. Dealer
B. Gatekeeper
C. Buyer
D. Seller
E. Initiator
F. Partner
700-039 exam Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 10
Security plays an essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?
A. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.
B. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer
D. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while the
collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You are discussing Cisco Collaboration Architecture with the IT manager of an organization. Which three statements are
effective responses that relate to the IT manager\’s concerns? (Choose three)
A. Collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.
B. The Collaboration Architecture, by design, ensures the highest availability.
C. Improved collaboration tools improve the end-user experience and will make the IT manager more popular
D. A centralized Collaboration Architecture deployment will ease management and save money.
E. Initial costs may be higher, but comparing the Total Cost of Ownership over a five-year period will show that the
Cisco product is less expensive.
F. A fully-deployed Collaboration Architecture supports efficient training in a variety of ways 700-039 dumps Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 12
Which two reasons make the Cisco Collaboration Architecture important for the marketing manager? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Collaboration Architecture provides real-time call detail records.
B. Cisco Collaboration Architecture can support the sales force to achieve higher productivity.
C. The marketing manager is interested in how the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will help provide a better corporate image.
D. The Cisco Collaboration Architecture improves the means by which a company can stay in touch with customers.
E. Transition to Collaboration Architecture is easier than transition to a closed, legacy system
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13
Which statement about Medianet is true?
A. Medianet enables integration of video infrastructure with network infrastructure.
B. Medianet enables Cisco Collaboration network management
C. Medianet is an intelligent network that is optimized for rich media
D. Medianet is the network infrastructure layer of video networks
700-039 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which two of the following are concerns that an operations manager may have in making a decision on Cisco Collaboration? (Choose two.)
A. Fast adoption of organizational changes
B. Changing customer demands
C. Reliability of the company infrastructure
D. Go-to-market time of new products or services
E. How to engage with external suppliers quickly
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15
Once you define the customer\’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value. Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two.)
A. Procurement
B. Sales and Marketing
C. Logistics and Operations
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
700-039 vce Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 16
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
D. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 17
Which option represents an organizational change objection?
A. We are expanding and acquiring new business. This is the wrong time to switch to collaboration.
B. How can we justify the fact that it is far more expensive than upgrading our existing solution?
C. How can a collaboration architecture help reduce our operating expenses?
D. A migration is impossible without high costs or operational fallouts.
700-039 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which two options are examples of partner services that involve addressing the culture of an organization so that collaboration applications are adopted more readily? (Choose two.)
A. Development of collaboration maps
B. Analysis of communication process workshops
C. End-user education and training
D. Application-readiness assessment
E. Internal marketing
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 19
Which of the following is a main business requirement in the financial services industry?
A. Reduce time to market for new innovative financial products
B. Integration of financial trading applications at the desktop
C. Customer retention
D. High-performance trading
E. Lower IT expenses through virtualization 700-039 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which three building blocks of the business model canvas help to achieve efficiency? (Choose three.)
A. key partners
B. key resources
C. revenue streams
D. channels
E. cost structure
F. customer segments
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 21
Which three options are ways that customers benefit from the Cisco Technology Developer Program? (Choose three.)
A. Opportunity to participate in Cisco research and development to develop next-generation Cisco Collaboration solutions
B. Exponentially expands the number and quality of rich, new business solutions
C. Display the Cisco Compatible logo in association with their product offering
D. Faster more successful deployments
E. Complete access to Cisco technologies and support resources
700-039 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22
The Finance manager of an organization is concerned about switching their existing PBX to IP. Which response
describes the value of the Collaboration Architecture?
A. Cisco and Cisco Partners have vast experience in smooth migration scenarios. Deployment has no risks
B. Collaboration Architecture is much more than just IP telephony. A fully-deployed solution optimizes business
processes and enhances customer satisfaction.
C. Our competitors are sticking to PBX solution and are losing market share Collaboration is a risk-free approach.
D. Our solutions create a satisfied workforce, which results in higher productivity.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
What is the outcome of mapping the collaboration maps to the Cisco Collaboration Architecture?
A. Identify the completion of an architecture roadmap
B. Identify sources for additional revenue
C. Identify the starting point of an architecture roadmap
D. Identify which elements of the Cisco solutions are needed to build an architectural roadmap for customer requirements
700-039 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which two options are differentiators of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration tools are set up all at once
B. Ability of Cisco to integrate with many other collaboration solutions
C. Integration of Cisco Presence into the solution
D. Business-to-business extensibility
E. Prestige of the solution
Correct Answer: BD
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Awesome:
“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed?🙂?Paul Hussler”
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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 600-460 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-18)
QUESTION 1
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
600-460 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. mds
C. router
D. opc
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier. 600-460 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Finesse and you make changes to CTI Server, Contact Center Enterprise Administration, or cluster settings. Which service must be restarted for changes to take effect?
A. Cluster Manager
B. System Application Agent
C. Cisco DB
D. Cisco Tomcat
E. Cisco Dirsync
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Within Cisco Unified ICM, which process handles communication between the router and peripheral gateway components?
A. dbagent
B. opcs
C. ccagent
D. mds
600-460 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which option about the ICM heartbeat interval and maximum number of missed heartbeats allowed between duplexed sides over the private network is true?
A. 100 ms, 3 heartbeats
B. 100 ms, 5 heartbeats
C. 400 ms, 3 heartbeats
D. 400 ms, 5 heartbeats
E. The heartbeat interval and maximum missed heartbeats settings can be customized by a system administrator
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
You are about to perform a Tech Refresh upgrade for a customer. The customer wants more details about how the historical data is maintained. The customer has two sides each with a router, logger, and HDS- DDS. Which is the best explanation?
A. The loggers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each logger keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
B. The routers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each router keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
C. The HDS-DDSs continuously synchronized the historical data to keep themselves up to date.
D. Each side synchronized its data from the logger using SQL replication.
600-460 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if the private network fails but the visible network is still operational, which statement is true?
A. The system stops routing calls because it cannot function without a private network.
B. The private network data is rerouted automatically over the visible network.
C. Both call routers go active and attempt to split the system until the private network is restored.
D. The system continues to operate but with only one call router in simplex mode.
600-460 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which two things can cause the “Send to VRU” to fail within an ICM script for Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. No network VRU is configured for the routing client.
B. VRU PIM just got out of service.
C. Incorrect media file name.
D. Send to originator is not enabled.
E. Primary VRU peripheral gateway is out of service.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
This exhibit is the setup of the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Server. Based on this configuration, which two options must be configured in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Configuration Manager tool? (Choose two.)
A. A network trunk group explorer trunk group should be configured on the Cisco Unified CVP PG peripherals with a peripheral number of 5000.
B. A network trunk group explorer trunk group should be configured on the Cisco Unified CVP PG peripherals with a peripheral number of 100.
C. A VRU PG peripheral should be configured with a peripheral ID of 5000.
D. A network VRU should be configured with a label of maximum length 10 digits.
E. A PG explorer peripheral should be configured with a peripheral ID of 200. 600-460 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with SIP Dialer, which option lists the correct order to setup the components (assuming the agent peripheral gateway host already exists)?
A. configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
B. configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway; install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway
C. install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway; configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway
D. install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
The customer is using Cisco Unified Intelligence Center on a virtual machine and reports that the license has become invalid. Which four options can cause this problem? (Choose four.)
A. Time zone was changed.
B. Secondary DNS was changed.
C. Hostname was changed.
D. Number of historical reports exceeded the system limits.
E. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Publisher is not in service.
F. IP address was changed.
G. Primary NTP server was changed.
H. Number of concurrent real-time reports exceeded the system limits.
600-460 pdf Correct Answer: ACFG
QUESTION 14
Which three rules apply when configuring agent teams? (Choose three.)
A. An agent can be a member of only one agent team.
B. An agent can be a member of multiple agent teams.
C. An agent team can have only one primary supervisor.
D. An agent team can have multiple primary supervisors.
E. All agents that belong to an agent team and all supervisors for that agent team must be on the same peripheral.
F. All agents that belong to an agent team and all supervisors for that agent team can be on multiple peripherals.
G. An agent team can have only one primary supervisor but can be a member of multiple teams.
H. An agent team can have multiple primary supervisors but can only be a member of one teams.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 15
Which option describes the steps to configure a non-global Not Ready code for a Cisco Unified ICM team using Contact Center Enterprise solution with Cisco Finesse?
A. Add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse (uncheck “Global?” check box), add reason code to team.
B. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse (uncheck “Global?” check box), add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
C. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse, add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
D. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in ICM, add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
600-460 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which option lists the settings in the registry to enable IPsec logging with Cisco Unified ICM?
A. Add Key = IPSec; DWORD Value = Enable_Logging; DWORD Value = 0
B. Add Key = Oakley; DWORD Value = EnableLogging; DWORD Value = 1
C. Add Key = Security; DWORD Value = Enable-Logging; DWORD Value = 1
D. Add Key = Oak; DWORD Value = EnableLog; DWORD Value = 1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which two options affect the Ring No Answer behavior of the agent with the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Solution and Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. CVP transfer timeout timer setting
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager unattended port setting
C. Agent Desktop Ring No Answer time setting
D. Target Requery in an ICM script queue step
600-460 exam Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 18
With Cisco Finesse, which two options list the two commands to stop and start the Tomcat service? (Choose two.)
A. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service stop Tomcat
B. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Tomcat
C. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Tomcat
D. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils start Cisco Tomcat
E. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service stop Cisco Tomcat
F. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Cisco Tomcat
Correct Answer: EF
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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 500-005 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-10)
Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Which TX9000 display choice is best for reducing possible issues with viewing angles for conference
participants?
A. LCD
B. plasma
C. LED
D. CRT
E. HDTV
500-005 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which two factors are crucial to the immersive Cisco TelePresence experience? (Choose two.)
A. aesthetics
B. acoustics
C. room shape
D. number of windows
E. number of active participants
F. ceiling height
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
The control cable for the 42-inch Auto Collaboration display connects to which component?
A. PS1 codec
B. presentation codec
C. LCU
D. AV expansion box 500-005 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which of these determines the specific role for each codec?
A. the firmware
B. wiring position
C. software revision
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Using the following table, correctly identify the location of each component.
Where is each component located?
Hot Area:
QUESTION 6
When using the TX9000 AV expansion box, how many total video output signals can be obtained using a
single video input?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. five
F. six
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which device is connected to the TX9000 AV expansion box for video input?
A. presentation (TS4) codec
B. collaboration/presentation display
C. center (TS1) codec
D. built-in video splitter
E. left (TS2) and right (TS3) codec
500-005 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which three components does the LCU control? (Choose three.)
A. the lighting fixture power
B. the primary codec AV input controls
C. the projector
D. the room HVAC controls
E. the LCD settings
F. the PTZ camera controls
G. the yaw of the camera cluster
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
From where does the LCU receive its instructions?
A. Cisco TelePresence Touch 12 screen
B. center (TS1) codec
C. left (TS2) codec
D. right (TS3) codec
E. presentation (TS4) codec
500-005 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
The configured speed-dial numbers are located in which section of the Cisco TelePresence Touch 12?
A. Favorites section
B. Speed Dialing section
C. Meeting section
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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-17)
QUESTION 1
Which feature intersection of a Cisco 5760 Wireless LAN Controller with HA AP SSO is not true?
A. Switchover during AP preimage download causes the Aps to start image download all over again from the new active controller.
B. Upon guest anchor controller switchover, mobility tunnels stay active, Aps remain connected, clients rejoin at MA or MC, and clients are anchored on the new active controller.
C. wIPS information is synced to the standby unit. The standby unit does not have to relean wIPS information upon switchover.
D. Roamed clients that have their data path going through the mobility tunnel endpoint “becomed Local” in case of Layer 2 with sticky anchoring and Layer 3 roam. Layer 2 roamed clients are not affected except when roaming occurs
between Cisco Unified Wireless Network and CA controller.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
On a Cisco autonomous AP, the maximum number of attempts to send a packet (packet retries) is set to 32 by default. Which statement about the result when the AP has tried to send a packet for that number of attempts and no response is received from the client is true?
A. The access point drops the packet.
B. The client MAC address is excluded for 60 seconds.
C. The access point resets the radio interface.
D. The access point disassociates the client.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two options are new features that are supported by IGMPv3 compared to IGMPv2.(Choose two)
A. It extends IGMP which allows for an explicit maximum response time field.
B. It adds support for source filtering.
C. Router can now send a group-specific query
D. It adds support for IGMP Leave Message.
E. It supports the link local address 224.0.0.22. which is the destination IP address for membership reports. 400-351 dumps Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. What is the best way to resolve this issue?
A. Install a server certificate signed by a well-know public CA on the WLC.
B. Disable certificate checks on the client.
C. Install a server certificate signed by a well-known public CA on the Radius Server
D. Use the certificate authority on the Cisco Identity Services Engine.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which option describes the function of the Intercloud Fabric Extender?
A. It provides the network overlay functionality between the used clouds or cloud models.
B. It establishes a secure site-to-site tunnel to the intercloud fabric agent in the private cloud.
C. It applies network policies and collects and reports VEM-related intercloud statistics.
D. It establishes a secure site-to-site tunnel to the intercloud fabric switch in the provider cloud.
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
A user is presented with the underlying hardware and software needed to develop and offer applications via the Internet from a cloud service provider. Which cloud model is this user consuming?
A. Software as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Application as a Service
D. Infrastructure as a Service
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
CFG autonoumous
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about this extract of the configuration of an autonomous AP are true? (Choose three)
A. This configuration is of a non-root bridge access point.
B. The RADIUS server IP address I misconfigured. It points to the AP itself. Which creates a loop for the RADIUS packets.
C. This configuration allows bridging of VLANs 3 and 4.
D. The SSID is not visible for clients proting the wireless medium.
E. The administrator cannot access the AP via the web GUI using a secure connection.
F. The native VLAN must be VLAN 1 to match the native VLAN configured on the switch to which the AP is connecting.
400-351 vce Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8
Which option is a feature of a Cisco Autonormous AP that prevents over-the-air direct P2P communication, which forces all traffic to hit the first-hop router where security policy is enforced?
A. Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy
B. P2P Secure Packet
C. Public Secure Packet Forwarding
D. P2P Blocking Action
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which statement about 802.11h is true?
A. DFS feature works irrespective of whether the channel setting on WLC is set to auto or manual.
B. 802.11h is not a mandatory standard under FCC regulations.
C. The FCC does not require 802.11h to be supported in the 5 GHz band.
D. When the radio detects a radar, it can use the channel for only 20 minutes at a time.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
In a converged access deployment, which two statements about mobility agents are true? (Choose two.)
A. It maintains a client database of locally served clients.
B. It manages mobility-related configuration.
C. It handles RF functions.
D. It is the first level in the converged access hierarchy.
E. It is a mandatory element in the converged access design.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 11
Heartbeats are used to maintain the high-availability status of an application. Which factor is most important?
A. Bandwidth
B. Latency
C. Routing
D. Round-trip time 400-351 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
When a FlexConnect AP is in the “local authentication,local switching” state, it handles client authentication and switches client data packets locally. This state is valid in standalone mode and connected mode. Which three statements about a FlexConnect AP are true? (Choose three).
A. In connected mode, the AP provides minimal information about the locally authenticated client to the controller. This information is not available on the controller policy type. Access VLAN. VLAN name. supported rates. Encryption ciphter.
B. In connected mode, the access point provides minimal information about the locally authenticated client to the controller. However, this information is available to the controller policy type., access VLAN, VLAN name, supported rates, encryption cipher.
C. Local authentication is useful where you cannot maintain a remote office setup of a minimum bandwidth of 128 kbps with the round-trip latency no greater than 100 ms and the maximum transmission unit no smaller than 576 bytes.
D. Local authentication is useful where you cannot maintain a remote office setup of a minimum bandwidth of 128 kbps with the round-trip latency no greater than 150 ms and the maximum transmission unit no higher than 500 bytes.
E. Local authentication in connected mode does not require any WLAN configuration.
F. Local authentication can be enabled only on the WLAN of a FlexConnect AP that is in local switching mode.
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Your customer is testing native supplicant provisioning using Cisco ISE (192.168.1.2) and a Cisco WLC. The Cisco WLC has an ACL configured on it called onboarding. During the testing of many different client devices (Android,Apple,Windows) it appears that these devices are never redirected to the onboarding portal, though they can access the Internet. Which statement explains this behavior?
A. There is nothing wrong with ACL. The problem must exist either on the client side or on the configured ISE authorization profile.
B. The ISE ACLs have a permit statement. Redirection will not take place unless the ISE IP address is denied.
C. The ACL has a permit any at the end. Redirection does not take place unless the client hits a web site that gets denied.
D. The source and destination port in the ACL lines are not set up correctly.
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
You are setting up a Cisco access point in repeater mode with a non-Cisco access point as the parent and you use this interface configuration on your Cisco access point.
You are getting the following error message. Which reason for this issue is true?
A. “dot11 extension aironet” is missing under the interface Dot11Radio 0 interface
B. When repeater mode is used, unicast-flooding must be enabled to allow Aironet IE communications.
C. The parent AP MAC address has not been defined.
D. Repeater mode only works between Cisco access points.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
FlexConnect APs have already been deployed in a branch office for local switching. Currently the WLAN in the large auditorium is proposed to change to a high-density design and thus some low data rates are proposed to be disabled while keeping the data rates in other areas under the same Cisco WLC. Which two configuration settings must be modified in the Cisco WLC to achieve this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. RF Profiles
B. Mobility Groups
C. FlexConnect Groups
D. AP Groups
E. Fape profile.
400-351 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes what this sequence of commands achieves on a Cisco Autonomous AP?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
You are a network administrator at ACME corporation where you have a pair of Cisco 5760 Wireless LAN Controllers deployed for HA AP SSO mode. A failover event occurs and the secondary Cisco 5760 controller moves into the active role. Which three statements about the failover event are true? (Choose three)
A. The new active controller does not need to relearn the shun list from IPS and other MCs, whch eliminates the need to redistribute it to the Mas.
B. Rogue APs and clients are not synced to the standby and are relearned upon switchover.
C. Switchover during AP preimage download causes the Aps to start image download all over again from the new active controller.
D. Netflow records are already exported upon switchover and collection starts resuming in the new active controller.
E. Witch SSO, wIPS information is already synced with the standby unit and this information need not be relearned upon switchover.
F. Upon guest anchor controller switchover, mobility tunnels stay active, Aps remain connected, clients rejoin at MA or MC, and clients are anchored on the new active controller.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: BCF
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