There is no better way to prepare for your DP-201 exam than using real Microsoft DP-201 questions. Recommend latest and authentic exam questions for Microsoft DP-201 exam https://www.pass4itsure.com/dp-201.html (DP-201 Exam Dumps PDF Q&As). Mock test questions and answers will improve your knowledge
Microsoft DP-201 pdf questions free share
Share the free Microsoft DP-201 practice question video here:
https://youtu.be/N3m7LmGfZnA
Real Microsoft Role-based DP-201 practice test online
Timed practice exams will enable you to gauge your progress.
QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP You need to design a data architecture to bring together all your data at any scale and provide insights into all your users through the use of analytical dashboards, operational reports, and advanced analytics. How should you complete the architecture? To answer, drag the appropriate Azure services to the correct locations in the architecture. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
QUESTION 2 HOTSPOT You are designing a data processing solution that will run as a Spark job on an HDInsight cluster. The solution will be used to provide near real-time information about online ordering for a retailer. The solution must include a page on the company intranet that displays summary information. The summary information page must meet the following requirements: 1. Display a summary of sales to date grouped by product categories, price range, and review scope. 2. Display sales summary information including total sales, sales as compared to one day ago and sales as compared to one year ago. 3. Reflect information for new orders as quickly as possible. You need to recommend a design for the solution. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area. Hot Area:
Explanation: Box 1: DataFrame DataFrames Best choice in most situations. Provides query optimization through Catalyst. Whole-stage code generation. Direct memory access. Low garbage collection (GC) overhead. Not as developer-friendly as DataSets, as there are no compile-time checks or domain object programming. Box 2: parquet The best format for performance is parquet with snappy compression, which is the default in Spark 2.x. Parquet stores data in columnar format, and is highly optimized in Spark. Incorrect Answers: DataSets Good in complex ETL pipelines where the performance impact is acceptable. Not good in aggregations where the performance impact can be considerable. RDDs You do not need to use RDDs, unless you need to build a new custom RDD. No query optimization through Catalyst. No whole-stage code generation. High GC overhead. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-perf
QUESTION 3 You need to design the encryption strategy for the tagging data and customer data. What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct drop targets. Each source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT Which Azure service and feature should you recommend using to manage the transient data for Data Lake Storage? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Scenario: Stage inventory data in Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 before loading the data into the analytical data store. Litware wants to remove transient data from Data Lake Storage once the data is no longer in use. Files that have a modified date that is older than 14 days must be removed. Service: Azure Data Factory Clean up files by built-in delete activity in Azure Data Factory (ADF). ADF built-in delete activity, which can be part of your ETL workflow to deletes undesired files without writing code. You can use ADF to delete folder or files from Azure Blob Storage, Azure Data Lake Storage Gen1, Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2, File System, FTP Server, sFTP Server, and Amazon S3. You can delete expired files only rather than deleting all the files in one folder. For example, you may want to only delete the files which were last modified more than 13 days ago. Feature: Delete Activity Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/clean-up-files-by-built-in-delete-activity-in-azure-data-factory/
QUESTION 5 You plan to deploy an Azure SQL Database instance to support an application. You plan to use the DTU-based purchasing model. Backups of the database must be available for 30 days and point-in-time restoration must be possible. You need to recommend a backup and recovery policy. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Use the Premium tier and the default backup retention policy. B. Use the Basic tier and the default backup retention policy. C. Use the Standard tier and the default backup retention policy. D. Use the Standard tier and configure a long-term backup retention policy. E. Use the Premium tier and configure a long-term backup retention policy. Correct Answer: DE The default retention period for a database created using the DTU-based purchasing model depends on the service tier: 1. Basic service tier is 1 week. 2. Standard service tier is 5 weeks. 3. Premium service tier is 5 weeks. Incorrect Answers: B: Basic tier only allows restore points within 7 days. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-long-term-retention
QUESTION 6 You are designing an Azure SQL Data Warehouse. You plan to load millions of rows of data into the data warehouse each day. You must ensure that staging tables are optimized for data loading. You need to design the staging tables. What type of tables should you recommend? A. Round-robin distributed table B. Hash-distributed table C. Replicated table D. External table Correct Answer: A To achieve the fastest loading speed for moving data into a data warehouse table, load data into a staging table. Define the staging table as a heap and use round-robin for the distribution option. Incorrect: Not B: Consider that loading is usually a two-step process in which you first load to a staging table and then insert the data into a production data warehouse table. If the production table uses a hash distribution, the total time to load and insert might be faster if you define the staging table with the hash distribution. Loading to the staging table takes longer, but the second step of inserting the rows to the production table does not incur data movement across the distributions. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/guidance-for-loading-data
QUESTION 7 You need to optimize storage for CONT_SQL3. What should you recommend? A. AlwaysOn B. Transactional processing C. General D. Data warehousing Correct Answer: B CONT_SQL3 with the SQL Server role, 100 GB database size, Hyper-VM to be migrated to Azure VM. The storage should be configured to optimized storage for database OLTP workloads. Azure SQL Database provides three basic in-memory based capabilities (built into the underlying database engine) that can contribute in a meaningful way to performance improvements: In-Memory Online Transactional Processing (OLTP) Clustered columnstore indexes intended primarily for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) workloads Nonclustered columnstore indexes geared towards Hybrid Transactional/Analytical Processing (HTAP) workloads References: https://www.databasejournal.com/features/mssql/overview-of-in-memory-technologies-of-azure-sqldatabase.html
QUESTION 8 You need to ensure that emergency road response vehicles are dispatched automatically. How should you design the processing system? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area
Correct Answer:
Events generated from the IoT data sources are sent to the stream ingestion layer through Azure HDInsight Kafka as a stream of messages. HDInsight Kafka stores streams of data in topics for a configurable of time. Kafka consumer, Azure Databricks, picks up the message in real time from the Kafka topic, to process the data based on the business logic and can then send to Serving layer for storage. Downstream storage services, like Azure Cosmos DB, Azure SQL Data warehouse, or Azure SQL DB, will then be a data source for presentation and action layer. Business analysts can use Microsoft Power BI to analyze warehoused data. Other applications can be built upon the serving layer as well. For example, we can expose APIs based on the service layer data for third party uses. Box 2: Cosmos DB Change Feed Change feed support in Azure Cosmos DB works by listening to an Azure Cosmos DB container for any changes. It then outputs the sorted list of documents that were changed in the order in which they were modified. The change feed in Azure Cosmos DB enables you to build efficient and scalable solutions for each of these patterns, as shown in the following image:
QUESTION 9 You need to design network access to the SQL Server data. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Box 1: 8080 1433 is the default port, but we must change it as CONT_SQL3 must not communicate over the default ports. Because port 1433 is the known standard for SQL Server, some organizations specify that the SQL Server port number should be changed to enhance security. Box 2: SQL Server Configuration Manager You can configure an instance of the SQL Server Database Engine to listen on a specific fixed port by using the SQL Server Configuration Manager. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/configure-windows/configure-a-server-to-listen-on-a-specific-tcpport?view=sql-server-2017
QUESTION 10 You need to optimize storage for CONT_SQL3. What should you recommend? A. AlwaysOn B. Transactional processing C. General D. Data warehousing Correct Answer: B CONT_SQL3 with the SQL Server role, 100 GB database size, Hyper-VM to be migrated to Azure VM. The storage should be configured to optimized storage for database OLTP workloads. Azure SQL Database provides three basic in-memory based capabilities (built into the underlying database engine) that can contribute in a meaningful way to performance improvements: In-Memory Online Transactional Processing (OLTP) Clustered columnstore indexes intended primarily for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) workloads Nonclustered columnstore indexes geared towards Hybrid Transactional/Analytical Processing (HTAP) workloads References: https://www.databasejournal.com/features/mssql/overview-of-in-memory-technologies-of-azure-sqldatabase.html
QUESTION 11 You store data in an Azure SQL data warehouse. You need to design a solution to ensure that the data warehouse and the most current data is available within one hour of a datacenter failure. Which three actions should you include in the design? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Each day, restore the data warehouse from a geo-redundant backup to an available Azure region. B. If a failure occurs, update the connection strings to point to the recovered data warehouse. C. If a failure occurs, modify the Azure Firewall rules of the data warehouse. D. Each day, create Azure Firewall rules that allow access to the restored data warehouse. E. Each day, restore the data warehouse from a user-defined restore point to an available Azure region. Correct Answer: BDE E: You can create a user-defined restore point and restore from the newly created restore point to a new data warehouse in a different region. Note: A data warehouse snapshot creates a restore point you can leverage to recover or copy your data warehouse to a previous state. A data warehouse restore is a new data warehouse that is created from a restore point of an existing or deleted data warehouse. On average within the same region, restore rates typically take around 20 minutes. Incorrect Answers: A: SQL Data Warehouse performs a geo-backup once per day to a paired data center. The RPO for a geo-restore is 24 hours. You can restore the geo-backup to a server in any other region where SQL Data Warehouse is supported. A geobackup ensures you can restore data warehouse in case you cannot access the restore points in your primary region. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/backup-and-restore
QUESTION 12 HOTSPOT You are designing a new application that uses Azure Cosmos DB. The application will support a variety of data patterns including log records and social media mentions. You need to recommend which Cosmos DB API to use for each data pattern. The solution must minimize resource utilization. Which API should you recommend for each data pattern? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Log records: SQL Social media mentions: Gremlin You can store the actual graph of followers using Azure Cosmos DB Gremlin API to create vertexes for each user and edges that maintain the “A-follows-B” relationships. With the Gremlin API, you can get the followers of a certain user and create more complex queries to suggest people in common. If you add to the graph the Content Categories that people like or enjoy, you can start weaving experiences that include smart content discovery, suggesting content that those people you follow like, or finding people that you might have much in common with. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/social-media-apps
QUESTION 13 You need to recommend a storage solution for a sales system that will receive thousands of small files per minute. The files will be in JSON, text, and CSV formats. The files will be processed and transformed before they are loaded into an Azure data warehouse. The files must be stored and secured in folders. Which storage solution should you recommend? A. Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 B. Azure Cosmos DB C. Azure SQL Database D. Azure Blob storage Correct Answer: A Azure provides several solutions for working with CSV and JSON files, depending on your needs. The primary landing place for these files is either Azure Storage or Azure Data Lake Store.1 Azure Data Lake Storage is an optimized storage for big data analytics workloads. Incorrect Answers: D: Azure Blob Storage containers is a general purpose object store for a wide variety of storage scenarios. Blobs are stored in containers, which are similar to folders. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/scenarios/csv-and-json
Pass4itsure is renowned for its high quality preparation material for the Microsoft DP-201 qualification. Pass4itsure is committed to your success.
Features of pass4itsure.com
Pass4itsure Microsoft exam discount code 2021
Pass4itsure share the latest Microsoft exam discount code “Microsoft“
Conclusion:
Here is free to share the latest Microsoft DP-201 exam video, Microsoft DP-201 dumps PDF, Microsoft DP-201 practice test, for your study reference, if you need to get the complete Microsoft DP-201 dumps, please visit https://www.pass4itsure.com/dp-201.html (Microsoft DP-201 PDF And VCE).
Share the latest Microsoft 70-345 exam questions & answers with 70-345 dumps pdf and 70-345 practice test from here, you can get a better idea about Microsoft MCSE certification 70-345 exam. Choose Pass4itsure 70-345 exam dumps (70-345 Q&As Dumps: 166 ), Pass the exam easily!
(free) Provide simple study guide for Microsoft 70-345 exam:
Updated Microsoft 70-345 exam dumps pdf
Latest Microsoft MCSE 70-345 practice test
Microsoft 70-345 exam questions video learning
Free Share Microsoft 70-345 exam dumps (Pass4itsure provide)
Latest Microsoft MCSE 70-345 practice test (Q1-Q13)
QUESTION 1 You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. You need to create a resource record in DNS to support Autodiscover from the Internet. What type of resource record should you create? A. Host (A) B. Text (TXT) C. Pointer (PTR) D. Mail exchange (MX) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You have a server named EX01 that runs Exchange Server 2016. The disks on EX01 are configured as shown in the following table.
All users access their email by using Microsoft Outlook 2013. From Performance Monitor, you discover that the MSExchange Database\I/O Database Reads Average Latency counter displays values that are higher than normal. You need to identify the impact of the high counter values on user connections in the Exchange Server organization. What are two client connections that will report slower performance when opening email messages? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Outlook in Online Mode B. Outlook in Cached Exchange Mode C. Outlook on the web D. IMAP4 clients E. mobile devices using Exchange Active Sync Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3 Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains domain controllers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest contains an Exchange Server 2016 organization. You need to create a database availability group (DAG). Which two actions should you perform before you create the DAG? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. From Failover Cluster Manager, create a failover cluster. B. From the DNS zone, create an alias (CNAME) record for the name of the DAG. C. Install at least one domain controller that runs Windows Server 2016. D. From Active Directory, create a clustered name object (CNO). E. On the witness server, add the Exchange Trusted Subsystem group to the local administrators group. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization contains 5,000 mailboxes. All of the users in the organization share their Calendar with the users in two domains named contoso.com andfabrikam.com. You need to prevent the organization users from sharing their Calendar with the users in the contoso.com domain. What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 5 You are planning an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization will contain a Mailbox server named EX01. Users will have primary SMTP email addresses in the following domains: Contoso.com Fabrikam.com Cohowinery.com Wingtiptoys.com You need to add a DNS record to provide Autodiscover for each domain. Which type of record should you create in each zone? A. SRV B. CERT C. PTR D. MINFO E. LOC F. TXT Correct Answer: A To configure Autodiscover DNS records, you use either an A record, a CNAME record or an SRV record. Preference being A as its most commonly used, if that\\’s not there choose SRV as this works where A is not possible(certificate only has 1 SAN) and if that\\’s not there choose CNAME (can be used but can cause compatibility issues and cert issues).
QUESTION 6 Your company has an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization has a four-node database availability group (DAG) that spans two data centers. Each data center is configured as a separate Active Directory site. The data centers connect to each other by using a high-speed WAN link. Each data center connects directly to the Internet and has a scoped Send connector configured. The company\\’s public DNS zone contains one MX record. You need to ensure that if an Internet link becomes unavailable in one data center, email messages destined to external recipients can be routed through the other data center. What should you do? A. Create a Receive connector in each data center. B. Clear the Proxy through Client Access server check box. C. Clear the Scoped Send Connector check box. D. Create an MX record in the internal DNS zone. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You need to recommend a load balancing solution that meets the availability requirements. Which load balancing solution should you recommend? A. a Layer-7 load balancer with a single namespace and without session affinity B. a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster C. DNS round robin D. a Layer-4 load balancer with multiple namespaces and without session affinity Correct Answer: A From Scenario: Contoso identifies the following high-availability requirements for the planned deployment: The network load balancer must be able to probe the health of each workload.Load balancers that work on the Layer 7 of OSI model are intelligent. Layer 7 load balancer is aware of the type of traffic passing through it. This type of load balancer can inspect the content of the traffic between the clients and the Exchange server. From this inspection, it gets that results and uses this information to make its forwarding decisions. For example, it can route traffic based on the virtual directory to which a client is trying to connect, such as /owa, /ecp or /mapi and it can use a different routing logic, depending on the URL the client is connecting to. When using a Layer 7 load balancer, you can also leverage the capabilities of Exchange Server 2016 Managed Availability feature. This built-in feature of Exchange monitors the critical components and services of Exchange server and based on results it can take actions. Note: Layer 7 load balancer can use this to detect functionality of critical services, and based on that information decide if it will forward client connections to that node. If the load balancer health check receives a 200 status response from health check web page, then the service or protocol is up and running. If the load balancer receives a 403 status code, then it means that Managed Availability has marked that protocol instance down on the Mailbox server. Although it might look that load balancer actually performs a simple health check against the server nodes in the pool, health check web page provides an information about workload’s health by taking into account multiple internal health check probes performed by Managed Availability. Incorrect Answers: D: Load balancers that work on Layer 4 are not aware of the actual traffic content being load balanced. References: http://dizdarevic.ba/ddamirblog/?p=187
QUESTION 8 You need to recommend a solution that meets the security requirements for mobile devices. Which two objects should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. a device access rule B. a mobile device mailbox policy C. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy D. an Outlook Web App policy Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 Your network contains a single domain named contoso.local. You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization that uses a single external SMTP namespace of contoso.com. You establish mail flow to and from the Internet. You plan to deploy a customer relationship management (CRM) solution. The CRM solution will have its own SMTP server and must be able to receive email sent by using various addresses in contoso.com. The addresses will not be managed by the Exchange Server organization. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the CRM solution can receive email from the Internet. The solution must ensure that internal users can all receive email. Which two action should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create a Send connector that has a namespace of * and uses the CRM server as a smart host. B. Create a Send connector that has a namespace of contoso.com and uses the CRM server as a smart host. C. Change the domain type of the contoso.com accepted domain to External Relay Domain. D. Create a Send connector that has a namespace of contoso.local and uses the CRM server as a smart host. E. Change the domain type of the contoso.com accepted domain to Internal Relay Domain. F. Change the domain type of the contoso.local accepted domain to Internal Relay Domain. G. Change the domain type of the contoso.local accepted domain to External Relay Domain. Correct Answer: BE External relay domain: No recipients in the authoritative domain exist in the Exchange organization, so you shouldn\\’t enable Recipient Lookup for the domain. The Send connector that you configure for non-existent recipients in the external relay domain is sourced on an Edge Transport server or Internet-facing Mailbox server. Incorrect Answers: Internal relay domain: If all recipients in the internal relay domain exist in the Exchange organization (including mail contacts and mail users), you can enable Recipient Lookup for the domain. If some or none of the recipients in the internal relay domain exist in the Exchange organization, you shouldn\\’t enable Recipient Lookup for the domain. References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb124423(v=exchg.160).aspx
QUESTION 10 Your company has a data center in Miami and a data center in Orlando. Each data center is configured as an Active Directory site. The network contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. The company plans to deploy an Exchange Server 2016 organization that will contain the servers configured as shown in the following table.
The servers will be configured in a single database availability group (DAG). Datacenter Activation Coordination (DAC) mode will be enabled for the DAG. All inbound email from the Internet will be routed through EX5. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users will continue to receive email messages if the Miami data center fails. Which two actions should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Create one mail exchanger (MX) record that has a priority of 10 and configure the record to point to mx.fabricam.com. Create a second MX record that has a priority of 100 and configure the record to point to mxbackup.fabrikam.com. B. Create one mail exchanger (MX) record that has a priority of 10 and a second MX record that has a priority of 100. Configure both MX records to point to mx.fabrikam.com. C. Configure a host (A) record named mx.fabrikam.com and point mx.fabrikam.com to the IP address of EX5. Configure a host (A) record named mx-backup.fabrikam.com and point mx-backup.fabrikam.com to the IP address of EX6. D. Configure a host (A) record named mx.fabrikam.com. Add the IP addresses of EX5 and EX6 to the record. E. Modify the weight of the mx.fabrikam.com mail exchanger (MX) record. Correct Answer: AC Mail is delivered to the mail exchange server with the lowest preference number (highest priority), so the MX record you use for mail routing should have the lowest preference number, typically 0 or High priority. You can have multiple MX records each pointing to a different SMTP host. References: https://www.microsoftpressstore.com/articles/article.aspx?p=2302522andseqNum=3
QUESTION 11 You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization contains three Mailbox servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You discover that when User1 sends email messages to Group1, all of the messages are delivered to EX02 first. You need to identify why the email messages sent to Group1 are sent to EX02 instead. What should you identify? A. EX02 is configured as an expansion server. B. The arbitration mailbox is hosted on EX02. C. Site2 has universal group membership caching enabled. D. Site2 is configured as a hub site. Correct Answer: A References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa998825(v=exchg.150).aspx
QUESTION 12 You have an Active Directory forest named contoso.com that contains an Exchange Server 2016 organization named Contoso. Contoso.com has a two-way forest trust with an Active Directory forest named fabrika.com. The fabriakm.com forest contains an Exchange Server 2016 organization named Fabrikam. You need to ensure that the users in Contoso can access the free/busy information of all the users in Fabrikam. An administrator from Fabrikam runs the following command in the organization. Get-MailboxServer | Add-ADPermission -Accessrights Extendedright -Extendedrights “ms- ExchEPI-TokenSerialization” -User “CONTOSO\Exchange Servers” What command should you run in Contoso? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization. The organization has 500 mailboxes and three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
EX10EDGE is located in the perimeter network. EX10CH has an Edge Subscription. All Internet mail flows through EX10EDGE. You deploy an Exchange Server 2016 Mailbox server named EX16MBX to the organization. You deploy an Exchange Server 2016 Edge Transport server named EX16EDGEtothe perimeter network. You need to transition all Internet mail to flow through EX16EDGE. The solution must minimize disruptions to the mail flow. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Latest and updated 70-345 questions from where you can easily score good grades in Microsoft 70-345.
Microsoft 70-345 exam questions video learning
Just go to Just Like the Real 70-345 Test From Video
https://youtu.be/-HqhiHWOwAg
With the help of Pass4itsure you can get all the necessary things
Pass4itsure is a world-renowned foundation-level security expert and information certification website. You will find all your relevant and latest 70-345 dumps online exam materials in PDF format, and a 100% free trial for Q&A to check the quality of the product.
Share with you | Pass4itsure Microsoft dumps discount code 2020
Conclusion:
Here provide you with the best way to pass the Microsoft MCSE certification 70-345 exam: Pass4itsure 70-345 exam dumps! real 70-345 pdf, real 70-345 practice test, real 70-345 exam questions video, successfully cracked MCSE exam to obtain 70-345 certificate.
The Microsoft AZ-304 certification was launched in June 2020. Therefore, aspiring candidates may face many difficulties in finding relevant training resources to prepare for the AZ-304 certification. Therefore, Cert4sure updates the study materials for the latest Microsoft Azure Architect Design certification AZ-304 exam. From https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-304.html Updated: Nov 06, 2020.
Now: The new AZ-304 practice test collected by Pass4sure is well-designed and fully focused on the new test objectives.
Next, introduce you to the new Microsoft AZ-304 practice test
QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT To meet the authentication requirements of Fabrikam, what should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: 2 The network contains two Active Directory forests named corp.fabrikam.com and rd.fabrikam.com. There are no trust relationships between the forests. Box 2: 1 Box 3: 1 Scenario: Users on the on-premises network must be able to authenticate to corp.fabrikam.com if an Internet link fails. Administrators must be able authenticate to the Azure portal by using their corp.fabrikam.com credentials. All administrative access to the Azure portal must be secured by using multi-factor authentication. Note: Users must always authenticate by using their corp.fabrikam.com UPN identity. The network contains two Active Directory forests named corp.fabrikam.com and rd.fabrikam.com. There are no trust relationships between the forests. Corp.fabrikam.com is a production forest that contains identities used for internal user and computer authentication. Rd.fabrikam.com is used by the research and development (RandD) department only.
QUESTION 2 You need to design a solution that will execute custom C# code in response to an event routed to Azure Event Grid. The solution must meet the following requirements: The executed code must be able to access the private IP address of a Microsoft SQL Server instance that runs on an Azure virtual machine. Costs must be minimized. What should you include in the solution? A. Azure Logic Apps in the integrated service environment B. Azure Functions in the Dedicated plan and the Basic Azure App Service plan C. Azure Logic Apps in the Consumption plan D. Azure Functions in the Consumption plan Correct Answer: D When you create a function app in Azure, you must choose a hosting plan for your app. There are three basic hosting plans available for Azure Functions: Consumption plan, Premium plan, and Dedicated (App Service) plan. For the Consumption plan, you don\\’t have to pay for idle VMs or reserve capacity in advance. Connect to private endpoints with Azure Functions As enterprises continue to adopt serverless (and Platform-as-a-service, or PaaS) solutions, they often need a way to integrate with existing resources on a virtual network. These existing resources could be databases, file storage, message queues or event streams, or REST APIs. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-scale https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/azure-functions/connect-to-private-endpoints-with-azure-functions/bap/1426615
QUESTION 3 You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption B. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption C. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) D. Azure Storage Service Encryption Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Your company purchases an app named App1. You plan to run App1 on seven Azure virtual machines in an Availability Set. The number of fault domains is set to 3. The number of update domains is set to 20. You need to identify how many App1 instances will remain available during a period of planned maintenance. How many App1 instances should you identify? A. 1 B. 2 C. 6 D. 7 Correct Answer: C Only one update domain is rebooted at a time. Here there are 7 update domain with one VM each (and 13 update domain with no VM). Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/manage-availability
QUESTION 5 You have an Azure subscription that is linked to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The subscription contains 10 resource groups, one for each department at your company. Each department has a specific spending limit for its Azure resources. You need to ensure that when a department reaches its spending limit, the compute resources of the department shut down automatically. Which two features should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Azure Logic Apps B. Azure Monitor alerts C. the spending limit of an Azure account D. Cost Management budgets E. Azure Log Analytics alerts Correct Answer: CD C: The spending limit in Azure prevents spending over your credit amount. All new customers who sign up for an Azure free account or subscription types that include credits over multiple months have the spending limit turned on by default. The spending limit is equal to the amount of credit and it can\\’t be changed. D: Turn on the spending limit after removing This feature is available only when the spending limit has been removed indefinitely for subscription types that include credits over multiple months. You can use this feature to turn on your spending limit automatically at the start of the next billing period. 1. Sign in to the Azure portal as the Account Administrator. 2. Search for Cost Management + Billing. 3. Etc. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management-billing/manage/spending-limit
QUESTION 6 HOTSPOT You are evaluating the components of the migration to Azure that require you to provision an Azure Storage account. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the following requirements: Provide access to the full .NET framework. Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails. Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies. Solution: You deploy two Azure virtual machines to two Azure regions, and create a Traffic Manager profile. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 You have 70 TB of files on your on-premises file server. You need to recommend a solution for importing data to Azure. The solution must minimize costs. What Azure service should you recommend? A. Azure StorSimple B. Azure Batch C. Azure Data Box D. Azure Stack Correct Answer: C Microsoft has engineered an extremely powerful solution that helps customers get their data to the Azure public cloud in a cost-effective, secure, and efficient manner with powerful Azure and machine learning at play. The solution is called Data Box. Data Box and is in general availability status. It is a rugged device that allows organizations to have 100 TB of capacity on which to copy their data and then send it to be transferred to Azure. Incorrect Answers: A: StorSimple would not be able to handle 70 TB of data. Reference: https://www.vembu.com/blog/what-is-microsoftazure-data-box-disk-edge-heavy-gateway-overview/
QUESTION 9 You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1. You plan to archive data to storage1. You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators from deleting the data. Solution: You create an Azure Blob storage container, and you configure a legal hold access policy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Use an Azure Blob storage container, but use a time-based retention policy instead of a legal hold. Note: Immutable storage for Azure Blob storage enables users to store business-critical data objects in a WORM (Write Once, Read Many) state. This state makes the data non-erasable and non-modifiable for a user-specified interval. For the duration of the retention interval, blobs can be created and read, but cannot be modified or deleted. Immutable storage is available for general-purpose v2 and Blob storage accounts in all Azure regions. Note: Set retention policies and legal holds 1. Create a new container or select an existing container to store the blobs that need to be kept in the immutable state. The container must be in a general-purpose v2 or Blob storage account. 2. Select Access policy in the container settings. Then select Add policy under Immutable blob storage. Either 3a. To enable legal holds, select Add Policy. Select Legal hold from the drop-down menu. Or 3b. To enable time-based retention, select Time-based retention from the drop-down menu. 4. Enter the retention interval in days (acceptable values are 1 to 146000 days). Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutability-policies-manage
QUESTION 10 You are designing an order processing system in Azure that will contain the Azure resources shown in the following table.
The order processing system will have the following transaction flow: A customer will place an order by using App1. When the order is received, App1 will generate a message to check for product availability at vendor 1 and vendor 2. An integration component will process the message, and then trigger either Function1 or Function2 depending on the type of order. Once a vendor confirms the product availability, a status message for App1 will be generated by Function1 or Function2. All the steps of the transaction will be logged to storage1. Which type of resource should you recommend for the integration component? A. an Azure Data Factory pipeline B. an Azure Service Bus queue C. an Azure Event Grid domain D. an Azure Event Hubs capture Correct Answer: A A data factory can have one or more pipelines. A pipeline is a logical grouping of activities that together perform a task. The activities in a pipeline define actions to perform on your data. Data Factory has three groupings of activities: data movement activities, data transformation activities, and control activities. Azure Functions is now integrated with Azure Data Factory, allowing you to run an Azure Function as a step in your data factory pipelines. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/concepts-pipelines-activities
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP You have an on-premises network that uses an IP address space of 172.16.0.0/16. You plan to deploy 25 virtual machines to a new Azure subscription. You identify the following technical requirements: All Azure virtual machines must be placed on the same subnet named Subnet1. All the Azure virtual machines must be able to communicate with all on-premises servers. The servers must be able to communicate between the on-premises network and Azure by using a site-to-site VPN. You need to recommend a subnet design that meets the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, drag the appropriate network addresses to the correct subnets. Each network address may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 12 HOTSPOT You configure the Diagnostics settings for an Azure SQL database as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2019 and contains 500 GB of data files. You are designing a solution that will use Azure Data Factory to transform the data files, and then load the files to Azure Data Lake Storage. What should you deploy on VM1 to support the design? A. the Azure Pipelines agent B. the Azure File Sync agent C. the On-premises data gateway D. the self-hosted integration runtime in Azure Correct Answer: D The integration runtime (IR) is the compute infrastructure that Azure Data Factory uses to provide data-integration capabilities across different network environments. For details about IR, see the Integration runtime overview. A self-hosted integration runtime can run copy activities between a cloud data store and a data store in a private network. It also can dispatch transform activities against compute resources in an on-premises network or an Azure virtual network. The installation of a self-hosted integration runtime needs an on-premises machine or a virtual machine inside a private network. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/create-self-hosted-integration-runtime
Check your current level of preparation for the AZ-304 exam with the AZ-304 practice tests.
How Can the Microsoft AZ-304 practice test help you?
The following are some unique advantages of the AZ-304 exam practice test:
You don’t need to worry about the Microsoft AZ-304 exam. You can easily pass the Microsoft AZ-304 exam, which is done with the help of https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-304.html (Q&As Dumps).
Cert4sure’s CompTIA CS0-002 exam study guide fully follows the full set of exam topics of the new CySA + CS0-002 exam. Due to the lack of learning resources for the CS0-002 exam, we have compiled and shared CS0-002 learning materials that are beneficial to all of us, including the Latest CS0-002 practice questions, latest CS0-002 pdf dumps, Recommended websites https://www.pass4itsure.com/cs0-002.html and purchase discount codes.
Candidates preparing to take the CYSA+ (CS0-001) exam should not worry, because the English version will be retired on October 21, 2020, while the simple Chinese and Japanese versions will be retired on April 23, 2021.
Q&As: About the Pass4itsure CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 exam dumps
How many questions in the real CS0-002 exam? There are 119 Q&As in our CompTIA CS0-002 real exam questions.
Can I get the updated version of CS0-002 real exam questions? Yes, from the date of your purchasing, you can get a FREE update of CompTIA CS0-002 real exam questions in ONE year.
Can I get a full refund if I fail the CS0-002 exam? Yes, if you fail the CS0-002 exam by using our CompTIA CompTIA CySA+ real exam questions, you can get a full refund.
Can I get a big discount if I buy many exams? The latest discount code “2020PASS” is provided below. Get 12% off!
Practice CS0-002 real questions: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+)
QUESTION 1 A compliance officer of a large organization has reviewed the firm\\’s vendor management program but has discovered there are no controls defined to evaluate third-party risk or hardware source authenticity. The compliance officer wants to gain some level of assurance on a recurring basis regarding the implementation of controls by third parties. Which of the following would BEST satisfy the objectives defined by the compliance officer? (Choose two.) A. Executing vendor compliance assessments against the organization\\’s security controls B. Executing NDAs prior to sharing critical data with third parties C. Soliciting third-party audit reports on an annual basis D. Maintaining and reviewing the organizational risk assessment on a quarterly basis E. Completing a business impact assessment for all critical service providers F. Utilizing DLP capabilities at both the endpoint and perimeter levels Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2 An information security analyst observes anomalous behavior on the SCADA devices in a power plant. This behavior results in the industrial generators overheating and destabilizing the power supply. Which of the following would BEST identify potential indicators of compromise? A. Use Burp Suite to capture packets to the SCADA device\\’s IP. B. Use tcpdump to capture packets from the SCADA device IP. C. Use Wireshark to capture packets between SCADA devices and the management system. D. Use Nmap to capture packets from the management system to the SCADA devices. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A development team uses open-source software and follows an Agile methodology with two-week sprints. Last month, the security team filed a bug for an insecure version of a common library. The DevOps team updated the library on the server, and then the security team rescanned the server to verify it was no longer vulnerable. This month, the security team found the same vulnerability on the server. Which of the following should be done to correct the cause of the vulnerability? A. Deploy a WAF in front of the application. B. Implement a software repository management tool. C. Install a HIPS on the server. D. Instruct the developers to use input validation in the code. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 An audit has revealed an organization is utilizing a large number of servers that are running unsupported operating systems. As part of the management response phase of the audit, which of the following would BEST demonstrate senior management is appropriately aware of and addressing the issue? A. Copies of prior audits that did not identify the servers as an issue B. Project plans relating to the replacement of the servers that were approved by management C. Minutes from meetings in which risk assessment activities addressing the servers were discussed D. ACLs from perimeter firewalls showing blocked access to the servers E. Copies of change orders relating to the vulnerable servers Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A product manager is working with an analyst to design a new application that will perform as a data analytics platform and will be accessible via a web browser. The product manager suggests using a PaaS provider to host the application. Which of the following is a security concern when using a PaaS solution? A. The use of infrastructure-as-code capabilities leads to an increased attack surface. B. Patching the underlying application server becomes the responsibility of the client. C. The application is unable to use encryption at the database level. D. Insecure application programming interfaces can lead to data compromise. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 A small electronics company decides to use a contractor to assist with the development of a new FPGA-based device. Several of the development phases will occur off-site at the contractor\\’s labs. Which of the following is the main concern a security analyst should have with this arrangement? A. Making multiple trips between development sites increases the chance of physical damage to the FPGAs. B. Moving the FPGAs between development sites will lessen the time that is available for security testing. C. Development phases occurring at multiple sites may produce change management issues. D. FPGA applications are easily cloned, increasing the possibility of intellectual property theft. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.eetimes.com/how-to-protect-intellectual-property-in-fpgas-devices-part-1/#
QUESTION 7 A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned the development team, which consists of contractors, has too much access to customer data. Developers use personal workstations, giving the company little to no visibility into the development activities. Which of the following would be BEST to implement to alleviate the CISO\\’s concern? A. DLP B. Encryption C. Test data D. NDA Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Bootloader malware was recently discovered on several company workstations. All the workstations run Windows and are current models with UEFI capability. Which of the following UEFI settings is the MOST likely cause of the infections? A. Compatibility mode B. Secure boot mode C. Native mode D. Fast boot mode Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A security analyst is reviewing packet captures from a system that was compromised. The system was already isolated from the network, but it did have network access for a few hours after being compromised. When viewing the capture in a packet analyzer, the analyst sees the following:
Which of the following can the analyst conclude? A. Malware is attempting to beacon to 128.50.100.3. B. The system is running a DoS attack against ajgidwle.com. C. The system is scanning ajgidwle.com for PII. D. Data is being exfiltrated over DNS. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 A security analyst is reviewing vulnerability scan results and notices new workstations are being flagged as having outdated antivirus signatures. The analyst observes the following plugin output: Antivirus is installed on the remote host: Installation path: C:\Program Files\AVProduct\Win32\ Product Engine: 14.12.101 Engine Version: 3.5.71 Scanner does not currently have information about AVProduct version 3.5.71. It may no longer be supported. The engine version is out of date. The oldest supported version from the vendor is 4.2.11. The analyst uses the vendor\\’s website to confirm the oldest supported version is correct. Which of the following BEST describes the situation? A. This is a false positive, and the scanning plugin needs to be updated by the vendor. B. This is a true negative, and the new computers have the correct version of the software. C. This is a true positive, and the new computers were imaged with an old version of the software. D. This is a false negative, and the new computers need to be updated by the desktop team. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 A security analyst is evaluating two vulnerability management tools for possible use in an organization. The analyst set up each of the tools according to the respective vendor\\’s instructions and generated a report of vulnerabilities that ran against the same target server. Tool A reported the following:
Which of the following BEST describes the method used by each tool? (Choose two.) A. Tool A is agent based. B. Tool A used fuzzing logic to test vulnerabilities. C. Tool A is unauthenticated. D. Tool B utilized machine learning technology. E. Tool B is agent based. F. Tool B is unauthenticated. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 A security technician is testing a solution that will prevent outside entities from spoofing the company\\’s email domain, which is comptia.org. The testing is successful, and the security technician is prepared to fully implement the solution. Which of the following actions should the technician take to accomplish this task? A. Add TXT @ “v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptia.org -all” to the DNS record. B. Add TXT @ “v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptia.org -all” to the email server. C. Add TXT @ “v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptia.org +all” to the domain controller. D. Add TXT @ “v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptia.org +all” to the web server. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://blog.finjan.com/email-spoofing
QUESTION 13 A security analyst reviews the following aggregated output from an Nmap scan and the border firewall ACL:
Which of the following should the analyst reconfigure to BEST reduce organizational risk while maintaining current functionality? A. PC1 B. PC2 C. Server1 D. Server2 E. Firewall Correct Answer: E
The new CompTIA CYSA+ (CS0-002) certification exam will take effect on April 21, 2020. This study guide shares the learning materials for the new exam CS0-002. Recommended websites https://www.pass4itsure.com/cs0-002.html CS0-002 dumps Q&As.
Designed for those who are eager to obtain the certification of Momentum 365 Function Consultant Deputy Role, how do you get it? First you have to understand what it is and what kind of effective resources to choose. I recommend here Pass4itsure Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate The questions and answers provided will help you prepare for the Dynamics 365 sales function consultant assistant. See below for details.
Summary
The following are the details of your Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification. Prepare for maximum learning in the shortest time.
Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate
Exams covered by certification
Certification resources, recommend Pass4itsure
Certification costs
Why get a Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification?
New! Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultants implement solutions that anticipate and plan customer connections, manage deals through processing and closing, and accelerate sales team performance using data analytics.(From the most accurate official answer)
Key point: MB-200 will be replaced by a new exam, or PL-200, plus MB-210, until MB-200 retires on December 31, 2020. But before that, you still have to pass MB-200, plus MB-210 to get this certificate
Maybe you will be interested in other Microsoft certification exams!
Exams covered by certification
You will prepare and test for the following exams, which are covered by your certification guarantee: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales (MB-210) exam + core exam MB-200 will win you Microsoft certification: Dynamic 365 Sales Function Consultant Assistant Certification.
The MB-210 exam tests you on the following skills and knowledge areas:
Perform configuration (40-45%)
Manage core sales entities (20-25%)
Manage sales entities (35-40%)
The MB-200 exam tests you on the following skills and knowledge areas:
Perform discovery, planning, and analysis (5-10%)
Manage user experience design (20-25%)
Manage entities and data (15-20%)
Implement security (5-10%)
Implement integration (15-20%)
Perform solutions deployment and testing (25-30%)
Certification resources, recommend Pass4itsure
If you want to take these two exams, you can see all the information about the exam dumps.
MB-200: Microsoft Power Platform + Dynamics 365 Core (164 Q&As Updated: Sep 04, 2020)
MB-210: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales (70 Q&As Updated: Aug 31, 2020)
What’s Included:
Microsoft MB-200 Practice Exam
Microsoft MB-210 Practice Exam
Microsoft MB-200 PDF Dumps Download
Microsoft MB-210 PDF Dumps Download
From Pass4itsure Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate!
Recommended training resources to help you prepare for required exams and earn your certification.
Certification costs
Officialcost:
Exam MB-200 $165 USD*
Exam MB-210 $165 USD*
If you pass it once, you need to spend $330 to get your Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate.
Originally it would cost US$91.98 to pass Pass4itsure resources, but now Pass4itsure offers a 12% discount, so you only need to spend US$80.94, (note that you need to use the discount code “2020PASS“), which reduces your financial burden.
Why get a Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification?
When you have Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification, you are five times more likely to be hired. Once you find this good job, you are more likely to get a better salary. This is not only good for you, but also good for the company you work for, making you an asset they cannot afford to lose.
P.S.
In summary, you know the basic information about certification and the recommended methods. If you want to get Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification, you are in the right place. Click Pass4itsure Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate to prepare for your exam.