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Exam Code: 70-475
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Big Data Analytics Solutions
Q&As: 42
Free Pass4itsure 70-475 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION NO: 104 An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent? A. Excessive focus on quality B. Excessively reactive C. Excessively proactive D. Excessive focus on cost Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 105 Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment? A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk C. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested D. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services 70-475 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 106 What is the definition of an Alert? A. An error message to the user of an application B. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures C. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed D. A type of Incident Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 107 Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services”. These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following? A. Functions and Processes B. Markets and Customers C. Applications and Infrastructure D. People, products and technology 70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 108 Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets? A. Business Relationship Management B. Continual Service Improvement C. Service Level Management D. Availability Management Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109 Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT? A. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals B. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines C. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice” D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives 70-475 pdf Answer: C QUESTION NO: 110 How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization? A. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered B. Showing the business impact of a change C. Displaying the relationships between configuration items D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 111 Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits? A. Service Level Management B. Performance Management C. Capacity Management D. Event Management 70-475 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 112 In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to: A. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line D. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line Answer: B QUESTION NO: 113 Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is? A. Whether to buy an application or build it B. Should application development be outsourced C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be D. Where the vendor of an application is located 70-475 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 114 Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)? A. 2 only B. 1 only C. All of the above D. 3 only Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 115 Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process? A. Access Management B. Incident Management C. Request Fulfillment D. Change Management 70-475 dumps Answer: A QUESTION NO: 116 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process? A. Delivers specific results B. A method of structuring an organization C. Responds to specific events D. It is measurable Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 117 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset? A. Applications and Infrastructure B. Services and Infrastructure C. Resources and Capabilities D. Utility and Warranty 70-475 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 118 Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent? A. Extreme internal focus B. Extreme focus on cost C. Extreme focus on responsiveness D. Vendor focused Answer: A QUESTION NO: 119 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process? A. Delivers specific results B. Responds to specific events C. It is measurable D. A method of structuring an organization 70-475 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 120 Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre? A. IT Operations Management B. Applications Management C. Service Desk D. Technical Management Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 121 Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management? A. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts. B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organizational Level Agreements C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements. D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio 70-475 exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 122 Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool? A. Software design B. Process design C. Environment design D. Strategy design 70-475 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 123 Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency? A. Governance B. Service Level Management C. Capacity Management D. Service Strategy Answer: B
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Question No : 39A company has an Azure subscription with four virtual machines (VM) that are provisioned in an availability set. The VMs support an existing web service. The company expects additional demand for the web service. You add 10 new VMs to the environment.
You need to configure the environment. How many Update Domains (UDs) and Fault Domains (FDs) should you create? A. 2 UDs and 5 FDs B. 5 UDs and 2 FDs C. 14 UDs and 2 FDs D. 14 UDs and 14 FDs 70-533 exam Answer: B Question No : 40 You administer an Azure solution that uses a virtual network named FabVNet. FabVNet
has a single subnet named Subnet-1. You discover a high volume of network traffic among four virtual machines (VMs) that are part of Subnet-1. You need to isolate the network traffic among the four VMs. You want to achieve this goal with the least amount of downtime and impact on users. What should you do? A. Create a new subnet in the existing virtual network and move the four VMs to the new subnet. B. Create a site-to-site virtual network and move the four VMs to your datacenter. C. Create a new virtual network and move the VMs to the new network. D. Create an availability set and associate the four VMs with that availability set. Answer: C Question No : 41 Your company network includes users in multiple directories. You plan to publish a software-as-a-service application named SaasApp1 to Azure Active Directory. You need to ensure that all users can access SaasApp1. What should you do? A. Configure the Federation Metadata URL B. Register the application as a web application. C. Configure the application as a multi-tenant. D. Register the application as a native client application. 70-533 dumps Answer: C Explanation: * When you get deeper into using Windows Azure Active Directory, you’ll run into new
terminology. For instance, is called “directory” is also referred to as a Windows Azure AD
Tenant or simply as “tenant.” This stems from the fact that WAAD ()Windows Azure Active
Directory is a shared service for many clients. In this service, every client gets its own
separate space for which the client is the tenant. In the case of WAAD this space is a
directory. This might be a little confusing, because you can create multiple directories, in
WAAD terminology multiple tenants, even though you are a single client.
* Multitenant Applications in Azure
A multitenant application is a shared resource that allows separate users, or “tenants,” to
view the application as though it was their own. A typical scenario that lends itself to a
multitenant application is one in which all users of the application may wish to customize
the user experience but otherwise have the same basic business requirements. Examples
of large multitenant applications are Office 365, Outlook.com, and visualstudio.com.
References: QUESTION 42 In a master-detail relationship, what happens to the child records if the parent record is deleted?
A. Parent record deletion fails.
B. Child records are not deleted.
C. A subset of the child records is deleted.
D. Child records are deleted. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43 Which action is available to a developer when two objects are connected by a lookup relationship? Choose
2 answers
A. create a roll-up summary field on the parent object to count child records
B. create a custom report type that allows customization of fields displayed from both parent and child
objects
C. create a cross-object formula field on the child object to reference fields on the parent object
D. create a cross-object formula field on the parent object to reference fields on the child object 70-533 pdf Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 44 Universal Containers tracks Positions as a custom object in a recruiting application. All positions with a
priority of critical should NOT be open for more than two weeks. If a position remains open for more than
14 days, the priority should be re-examined.
How would a developer automate this process?
A. Create a workflow action to clone the position, assigned to the owner of the position record, that is due
14 days after record creation
B. Create a validation rule that compares today’s date and the record’s creation date to determine if the
difference is greater than 14 days C. Recreate a time-dependent workflow action that sends an email to the recruiter if the position is still
open 14 days after record creation
D. Create a time-dependent workflow action that updates the position status to Closed 14 days after
record creation Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45 Given a three tier model (UI layer, business logic layer, data layer), which feature of the Force.com
platform is associated with the data layer? Choose 3 answers
A. Custom applications
B. Custom relationships
C. Custom fields
D. Custom objects
E. Custom tabs 70-533 vce Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 46 What is a Junction object?
A. A standard object with a master-detail relationship
B. A custom object with two master-detail relationships
C. A standard object with two master-detail relationships
D. A custom object with a master-detail relationship Correct Answer: B QUESTION 47 A developer would like to enable end users to filter the data displayed on the related list of an object detail
page. How could a developer accomplish this?
A. Enable Advanced Search on the object’s related list
B. Customize the search filter fields layout for that object
C. Create a Visualforce page to replace the object detail view
D. Configure the object’s related list to add a filter 70-533 exam Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48 Hiring managers at Universal Containers would like a visual mechanism for determining review score
outliers. Review scores are captured as a custom field on a custom Review object and can range from l to
10. Any review score that is > 8 should be highlighted in green.
Any review score that is < 4 should be highlighted In red.
How would a developer accomplish this?
A. Use custom summary formulas
B. Use matrix reports
C. Use charts
D. Use conditional highlighting Correct Answer: D
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Question No : 12 DRAG DROPContoso Ltd. plans to use 70-346 exam Office 365 services for collaboration between departments. Contoso has one Active Directory Domain Services domain named contoso.local. You deploy the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool. You plan to implement single sign-on (SSO) for Office 365. You need to synchronize only the user accounts that have valid routable domain names
and are members of specified departments. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:
Question No : 13 An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active
Directory (AD) Sync tool. Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from
synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active
Directory. You need to synchronize the remaining users. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Populate an attribute for each user account. B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory. C. Perform a full synchronization. D. Configure the connection filter. E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync
$false. Answer: B,D,E
Question No : 14 You use a centralized identity 70-346 dumps management system as a source of authority for user account information. You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis. Your company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365. You
must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do? A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file. B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active
Directory. C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file. D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account
data from the file. Answer: B Question No : 15 DRAG DROPAn organization plans to deploy an Office 365 tenant. The company has two servers named SERVER1 and SERVER2. SERVER1 is a member server of the Active Directory
forest that you are synchronizing. SERVER2 is a standalone server. Both servers run
Windows Server 2012.
You need to use the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool to provision users.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. QUESTION 16 Which is the purpose of the Change theme?
A. Prevent change to baselined products
B. Identify, assess and control any potential and approved changes to baselined products
C. Establish mechanisms to monitor and compare actual achievements against those planned
D. Assess and control uncertainty 70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17 Which step in the issue and change control procedure considers alternative options for responding to an
issue that is being managed formally?
A. Capture
B. Examine
C. Propose
D. Decide Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18 A product can NOT be supplied to meet all of the requirements in its baselined Product Description.
What first action should be taken?
A. Raise a request for change
B. Raise an off-specification
C. Write an Exception Report
D. Amend the Work Package 70-346 vce Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19 Which of the following statements about the Closing a Project process are true?
1. The Closing a Project process provides a fixed point for the receipt of completed Work Packages for the
work performed in the final stage.
2. The Closing a Project process provides a fixed point to review if the objectives set out in the original
Project Initiation Documentation have been achieved.
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 or 2 are true Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20 What takes place during the Closing a Project process?
A. The post-project benefits reviews are performed
B. Ownership of the project’s products is transferred to the customer
C. An End Stage Report is prepared for the final stage
D. The project closure notification is reviewed and approved 70-346 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21 Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process?
A. Prepare the plan for the next stage
B. Assess any benefits that have already been realized
C. Produce a Benefits Review Plan to identify what benefits are expected
D. Check that all benefits are realized before closing a project Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22 Which is a purpose of the Closing a Project process?
A. Authorize the final stage of the project
B. Confirm that all benefits defined in the Business Case have been achieved
C. Recognize whether objectives set out in the original Project Initiation Documentation have been
achieved
D. Delegate day-to-day management of the end of the project to the Project Manager 70-346 dumpsCorrect Answer: C QUESTION 23 Which should be used to document any uncompleted work that needs to be done to a project product after
the project has closed?
A. Off-specifications
B. Follow-on action recommendations
C. Issue Register
D. Risk Register Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24 Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process?
A. Review and approve the plan for project closure
B. Review the performance of the project against its baseline
C. Perform any post-project reviews
D. Create a Benefits Review Plan 70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25 Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?
A. Produce a Team Plan for the work to be assigned to a Team Manager
B. Select and implement actions that will resolve deviations from a plan within tolerance
C. Obtain approvals for products delivered in a Work Package
D. Update a Project Plan to incorporate the actuals from a Stage Plan Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26 What process ensures focus on the delivery of a stage’s products and avoids uncontrolled change?
A. Directing a Project
B. Managing a Stage Boundary
C. Controlling a Stage
D. Starting up a Project 70-346 vce Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27 Which process is triggered towards the end of the final stage when all the assigned work has been
completed?
A. Managing a Stage Boundary
B. Managing Product Delivery
C. Closing a Project
D. Controlling a Stage Correct Answer: C
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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 06, 2017
Q&As: 503
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QUESTION 16 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What should you do?
A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns. 70-410 study guide Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17 Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain. You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1.What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1. 70-410 practice test Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU) named ServersOU. You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain. You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers. What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts. Servers are restarted only occasionally. You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter 70-410 exam Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You log on to a domain controller by using an account named Admin1. Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group. You view the properties of a group named Group1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Group1 is located in
an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You need to ensure that you can modify the Security settings of Group1 by using Active Directory Users and Computers. What should you do from Active Directory Users and Computers?
A. From the View menu, select Users, Contacts, Groups, and Computers as containers.
B. Right-click OU1 and select Delegate Control
C. From the View menu, select Advanced Features. D. Right-click contoso.com and select Delegate Control. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. You install 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 on a new computer named DC3. You need to manually configure DC3 as a domain controller. Which tool should you use?
A. Server Manager
B. winrm.exe
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. dcpromo.exe Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23 You have a server named Core1 that has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Core1 has the Hyper-V server role installed Core1 has two
network adapters from different third- party hardware vendors.
You need to configure network traffic failover to prevent connectivity loss if a network adapter fails.
What should you use?
A. New-NetSwitchTeam
B. Add-NetSwitchTeamMember
C. Install-Feature
D. netsh.exe Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You connect three new hard disks to Server1.
You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails.
– Maximize the amount of files that can be stored in the storage space.
What should you create?
A. A simple space
B. A spanned volume
C. A mirrored space
D. A parity space 70-410 study guide Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25 You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The setup.exe command
B. The dism.exe command
C. The imagex.exe command
D. The Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has five network adapters. Three of the network adapters an connected to a
network named LAN1. The two other network adapters are connected to a network named LAN2.
You need to create a network adapter team from the three network adapters connected to LAN 1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Routing and Remote Access
B. Network and Sharing Center
C. Server Manager
D. Network Load Balancing Manager 70-410 practice test Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to remove Windows Explorer, Windows Internet Explorer, and all related
components and files from Server1. What should you run on Server1?
A. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Mgmt-Infra Remove
B. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Shell Remove
C. msiexec.exe /uninstall iexplore.exe /x
D. msiexec.exe /uninstall explorer.exe /x Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28 You have a server named Server1 that runs 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has a legacy network adapter. You need to assign a specific amount of available network bandwidth to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
B. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdoptercmdlet
C. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then configure network adapter teaming. D. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then add a network adapter Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 6 Exhibit: Given this display, how would you find information similar to the SHOW SWITCH command?
A. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW, then SWITCH.
B. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH, then SHOW.
C. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW.
D. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH. 70-696 exam Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7 Which ExtremeWare feature permits ESRP to increase the number of protected VLANs by placing them
under the control of a master VLAN?
A. ESRP groups
B. ESRP domains
C. ESRP host attach
D. None of these. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8 STPDs s0, s1, and s2 have been created. How would you activate only s1 while leaving the other STPDs
inactive?
A. enable stpd s1
B. enable s1 stpd
C. None of these 70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9 SNMP access to ExtremeWare can be limited by the following methods:
A. Use an access list
B. Use an access profile C. Use the disable snmp access command
D. None of these Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 10 How would you change the password for John Doe’s management account?
A. Enter config jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
B. Enter config jdoe user account and then enter the new password twice.
C. Enter config user account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
D. Enter config account jdoe and then enter the new password twice. 70-696 pdf Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11 What is the minimum ExtremeWare software version that supports the Summit48i?
A. ExtremeWare 4.x
B. ExtremeWare 5.x
C. ExtremeWare 6.x
D. None of the above Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12 When using Spanning Tree Protocol, ExtremeWare permits VLANs in different STPDs to share the same
port when tagged.
A. True
B. False 70-696 vce Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13 Which of the following routes will be used to forward a frame to 192.168.1.174?
A. 192.168.1.0/29
B. 192.168.1.128/30
C. 192.168.1.128/25
D. None of these. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14 In RIP, poison reverse means that:
A. A route is not advertised to the interface from which it was learned.
B. A route is advertised as unreachable to the interface from which it was learned.
C. Traffic whose source interface does not match the routing table is blackholed.
D. None of these. 70-696 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15 RIP version 2 uses a composite metric that includes link speed and delay.
A. True B. False Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16 Unlike VRRP, the Extreme Standby Router Protocol provides redundancy at both the data link and network
layers.
A. True
B. False 70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17 __________ allow(s) multiple VLANs to be controlled by a single ESRP instance.
A. ESRP domains
B. ESRP groups
C. ESRP host-attach
D. None of these. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18 QoS policy is applied _____ in an Extreme switch.
A. per port
B. per queue, per port
C. per queue
D. None of these. 70-696 pdf Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19 Without QoS, all packets are allowed equal access to an egress port.
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20 Which of the following is not advertised in an OSPF Link State Advertisement?
A. Costs
B. Link utilization
C. Router interfaces
D. Neighbor information 70-696 vce Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21 A VLAN can be a member of up to 64 STPDs.
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22 What type of area is used to limit external routes?
A. Stub area
B. Normal area
C. Backbone area
D. None of these 70-696 exam Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23 All OSPF routers in the same area must have the same LSDB.
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24 Which 70-696 dumps RIP settings are enabled by default?
A. Triggered updates
B. Poison Reverse
C. Split Horizon
D. Route redistribution Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 25 What is the default STP forward delay value?
A. 2 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26 Which command would you use to configure the switch to disregard STP for selected VLANs?
A. enable ignore-stp vlan <stpd>
B. enable ignore-bpdu vlan <vlan>
C. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd>
D. enable ignore-stp vlan <vlan> 70-696 pdf Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27 When the command disable stpd port 4:1-4:8 is entered what is the result?
A. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the blocking state.
B. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the listening state.
C. Ports 4.1-4.8 are placed into the learning state.
D. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the forwarding state. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28 How can you tell which ports are disabled?
A. Flashing amber light
B. Flashing green light
C. Flashing red light
D. None of these 70-696 vce Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29 Your Summit5i switch is connected to a 3rd party switch. By issuing the show ports rxerrors command you
can see numerous CRC errors listed. What is the first step you should take to resolve this issue?
A. Examine the log for errors.
B. Ping between the two switches.
C. Match the speed and duplex settings for the two devices.
D. Call the Extreme Networks TAC. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30 You have been assigned the task of configuring an 8-port load share group between two switches that
uses the round robin-based algorithm. Which of the following commands will provide you with the desired
result?
A. Summit #1: config sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: configsharing 1 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin
B. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: enablesharing 8 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin C. Summit #1: config sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: configsharing 8 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin
D. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: enablesharing 1 grouping 70-696 exam Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31 Routing is disabled in all VLANs by default.
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32 What 70-696 dumps information can you find using the show edp command?
A. ExtremeWare code version used by remote switch.
B. The ports that are disabled on the remote switch.
C. The master port of any load share groups.
D. The speed and duplex settings of the ports connecting the two switches. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33 How could you verify that MAC address learning is disabled for ports 1-8 on a Summit7i switch?
A. Enter the show ports config detail command.
B. Enter the show ports management detail command.
C. Enter the show ports statistics detail command.
D. Enter the show ports info detail command. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34 Which of the following are valid ESRP master election algorithms?
A. ports_track_priority_mac
B. ports_priority_track_mac
C. track_ports_priority_mac
D. track_priority_ports_mac 70-696 pdf Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 35 What is the command you would use to configure a VLAN for ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail Correct Answer: A QUESTION 36 Which command would you use to configure ESRP ping tracking for the gateway address 10.0.0.1 with a
frequency of 2 seconds and a miss threshold of 5? A. enable vlan <vlan> add track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
B. enable esrp add track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
C. config esrp track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
D. config vlan <vlan> add track-ping 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5 70-696 vce Correct Answer: D
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