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CISSP stands for Certified Information Systems Security Professional and is a certification developed in 1991 by the International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium (ISC)2, the International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium.
CISSP is considered one of the most popular and top-level certifications in the field of certified information security.
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The pass rate of CISSP is about 20%. The exam lasts 6 hours and contains 250 questions from 8 domains; The minimum requirement is 70% and the CISSP passing score is 700 out of 1000.
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Q16:
Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service?
A. Consolidation of multiple providers
B. Directory synchronization
C. Web-based login
D. Automated account management
Correct Answer: D
Q17:
Which software-defined networking (SDN) architectural component is responsible for translating network requirements?
A. SDN Application
B. SDN Data path
C. SDN Controller
D. SDN Northbound Interfaces
Correct Answer: C
Q18:
Directive controls are a form of change management policy and procedures. Which of the following subsections are recommended as part of the change management process?
A. Build and test
B. Implement security controls
C. Categorize Information System (IS)
D. Select security controls
Correct Answer: A
Q19:
Which of the following is the MOST significant key management problem due to the number of keys created?
A. Keys are more difficult to provision and
B. Storage of the keys requires increased security
C. Exponential growth when using asymmetric keys
D. Exponential growth when using symmetric keys
Correct Answer: B
Q20:
What are the steps of a risk assessment?
A. identification, analysis, evaluation
B. analysis, evaluation, mitigation
C. classification, identification, risk management
D. identification, evaluation, mitigation
Correct Answer: A
Q21:
Which of the following should be included in a hardware retention policy?
A. The use of encryption technology to encrypt sensitive data before retention
B. Retention of data for only one week and outsourcing the retention to a third-party vendor
C. Retention of all sensitive data on media and hardware
D. A plan to retain data required only for business purposes and a retention schedule
Correct Answer: A
Q22:
Place the following information classification steps in sequential order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q23:
Which of the following is the BEST method to assess the effectiveness of an organization\’s vulnerability management program?
A. Review automated patch deployment reports
B. Periodic third-party vulnerability assessment
C. Automated vulnerability scanning
D. Perform vulnerability scan by the security team
Correct Answer: B
Q24:
Which of the following addresses the requirements of security assessments during software acquisition?
A. Software configuration management (SCM)
B. Data loss prevention (DLP) policy
C. Continuous monitoring
D. Software assurance policy
Correct Answer: A
Q25:
What is the document that describes the measures that have been implemented or planned to correct any deficiencies noted during the assessment of the security controls?
A. Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
B. Security Assessment Report (SAR)
C. Plan of Action and Milestones {POAandM)
D. Security Assessment Plan (SAP)
Correct Answer: C
Q26:
Which of the following MOST accurately describes the Security Target (ST) in the Common Criteria framework?
A. The set of rules that define how resources or assets are managed and protected
B. A product independent set of security criteria for a class of products
C. The product and documentation to be evaluated
D. A document that includes a product-specific set of security criteria
In a multi-tenant cloud environment, what approach will secure logical access to assets?
A. Hybrid cloud
B. Transparency/Auditability of administrative access
C. Controlled configuration management (CM)
D. Virtual private cloud (VPC)
Correct Answer: D
Q28:
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.
The security program can be considered effective when
A. vulnerabilities are proactively identified.
B. audits are regularly performed and reviewed.
C. backups are regularly performed and validated.
D. risk is lowered to an acceptable level.
Correct Answer: D
Q29:
Which layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is reliant on other layers and is concerned with the structure, interpretation, and handling of information?
A. Presentation Layer
B. Session Layer
C. Application Layer
D. Transport Layer
Correct Answer: C
The application (s) layer relies on everything before it.
Q30:
Which is the BEST control to meet the Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements 18 (SSAE-18) confidentiality category?
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After passing the CISSP exam, how can I arrange the next step?
You can continue on the path to certification: SSCP-CCSP-CGRC-CSSLP-ISSAP-ISSEP-ISSMP
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Free CISSP Exam Practice Online
Q1:
DRAG DROP
During the risk assessment phase of the project, the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is
fully aware of the regulations of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant. What is the best approach for the CISO?
Below are the common phases to creating a Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery (BC/DR) plan. Drag the remaining BC\DR phases to the appropriate corresponding location.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q2:
HOTSPOT
In the network design below, where is the MOST secure Local Area Network (LAN) segment to deploy a Wireless Access Point (WAP) that provides contractors access to the Internet and authorized enterprise services?
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Q3:
DRAG DROP
A software security engineer is developing a black box-based test plan that will measure the system\’s reaction to incorrect or illegal inputs or unexpected operational errors and situations. Match the functional testing techniques on the left with the correct input parameters on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q4:
DRAG DROP
In which order, from MOST to LEAST impacted, does user awareness training reduce the occurrence of the events below?
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q5:
DRAG DROP
What is the correct order of steps in an information security assessment?
Place the information security assessment steps on the left next to the numbered boxes on the right in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q6:
DRAG DROP
Match the types of e-authentication tokens to their description.
Drag each e-authentication token on the left to its corresponding description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q7:
DRAG DROP
Match the functional roles in an external audit to their responsibilities. Drag each role on the left to its corresponding responsibility on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q8:
DRAG DROP Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q9:
DRAG DROP
Match the access control type to the example of the control type. Drag each access control type net to its corresponding example.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q10:
HOTSPOT
Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification maintains a single authenticated identity across multiple dissimilar environments? Click on the correct specification in the image below.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Q11:
Given a file containing an ordered number, i.e. “123456789,” match each of the following redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) levels to the corresponding visual representation. Note: P() = parity.
Drag each level to the appropriate place on the diagram.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q12:
DRAG DROP
Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q13:
DRAG DROP
Match the objectives to the assessment questions in the governance domain of the Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM).
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q14:
DRAG DROP
Order the below steps to create an effective vulnerability management process.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q15:
HOTSPOT
Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification handles the management of security tokens and the underlying policies for granting access? Click on the correct specification in the image below.
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QUESTION 31
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high-risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to Tom?
A. Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
B. Risks may be listed by categories
C. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
D. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Power
D. Physical
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk events?
A. These risks can be accepted.
B. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
C. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
D. These risks can be dismissed.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk response
C. Risk trigger
D. Risk event
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Adrian is the project manager of the NHP Project. In her project there are several work packages that deal with electrical wiring. Rather than to manage the risk internally she has decided to hire a vendor to complete all work packages that deal with the electrical wiring. By removing the risk internally to a licensed electrician Adrian feels more comfortable with project team being safe. What type of risk response has Adrian used in this example?
A. Mitigation
B. Transference
C. Avoidance
D. Acceptance
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:
Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from
the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established
information classification policy.
What is the role played by James in the organization?
A. Manager
B. User
C. Owner
D. Custodian
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is an entry in an object’s discretionary access control list (DACL) that grants permissions to a user or group?
A. Access control entry (ACE)
B. Discretionary access control entry (DACE)
C. Access control list (ACL)
D. Security Identifier (SID)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You are the project manager for your organization. You have identified a risk event you’re your organization could manage internally or externally. If you manage the event internally it will cost your project $578,000 and an additional $12,000 per month the solution is in use. A vendor can manage the risk event for you. The vendor will charge $550,000 and $14,500 per month that the solution is in use. How many months will you need to use the solution to pay for the internal solution in comparison to the vendor’s solution?
A. Approximately 13 months
B. Approximately 11 months
C. Approximately 15 months
D. Approximately 8 months
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which of the following refers to the ability to ensure that the data is not modified or tampered with?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Non-repudiation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Resource breakdown structure
C. RACI chart
D. Roles and responsibility matrix
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?
A. Information on prior, similar projects
B. Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
C. Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
D. Studies of similar projects by risk specialists
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a
comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases
of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Pre-certification
B. Certification
C. Post-certification
D. Authorization
E. Post-Authorization
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 43
A part of a project deals with the hardware work. As a project manager, you have decided to hire a company to deal with all hardware work on the project. Which type of risk response is this?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Exploit
D. Transference
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Risks with low ratings of probability and impact are included on a ____ for future monitoring.
A. Watchlist
B. Risk alarm
C. Observation list
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web
application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following areas can be
exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Social engineering
B. File and directory permissions
C. Buffer overflows
D. Kernel flaws
E. Race conditions
F. Information system architectures
G. Trojan horses
Correct Answer: ABCDEG
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization’s configuration management process?
A. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Chief Information Officer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then working within a budget to implement the plan
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3
The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) play the
role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about ISSO and
ISSE?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes.
B. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
D. An ISSO takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes.
E. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Information system owner
B. Authorizing Official
C. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
D. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores,
transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are
identified by DIACAP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Accreditation
B. Identification
C. System Definition
D. Verification
E. Validation
F. Re-Accreditation
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 7
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Role-Based Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Policy Access Control
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following refers to an information security document that is used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS
C. TCSEC
D. SSAA
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:
Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from
the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established
information classification policy.
What is the role played by James in the organization?
A. Manager
B. Owner
C. Custodian
D. User
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels shows that the procedures and controls have been implemented?
A. Level 4
B. Level 1
C. Level 3
D. Level 5
E. Level 2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. Which of the following is the correct order of C&A phases in a DITSCAP assessment?
A. Definition, Validation, Verification, and Post Accreditation
B. Verification, Definition, Validation, and Post Accreditation
C. Verification, Validation, Definition, and Post Accreditation
D. Definition, Verification, Validation, and Post Accreditation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a
comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases
of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Post-Authorization
B. Pre-certification
C. Post-certification
D. Certification
E. Authorization
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 13
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. Which of the following statements are true about Certification and Accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
B. Accreditation is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
C. Certification is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
D. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
Which of the following requires all general support systems and major applications to be fully certified and accredited before these systems and applications are put into production? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NIST
B. FIPS
C. FISMA
D. Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 15
The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security information. What are the different types of NIACAP accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Secure accreditation
B. Type accreditation
C. System accreditation
D. Site accreditation
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 16
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance
(IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among the eight
areas of IA defined by DoD?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B. DC Security Design & Configuration
C. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
D. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 17
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores,
transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are
identified by DIACAP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Validation
B. Re-Accreditation
C. Verification
D. System Definition
E. Identification
F. Accreditation
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is a subset discipline of Corporate Governance focused on information security systems and their performance and risk management?
A. Lanham Act
B. ISG
C. Clinger-Cohen Act
D. Computer Misuse Act
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Ben is the project manager of the YHT Project for his company. Alice, one of his team members, is confused about when project risks will happen in the project. Which one of the following statements is the most accurate about when project risk happens?
A. Project risk can happen at any moment.
B. Project risk is uncertain, so no one can predict when the event will happen.
C. Project risk happens throughout the project execution.
D. Project riskis always in the future.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project’s success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization’s profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event’s probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Mitigation-ready project management
C. Risk utility function
D. Risk-reward mentality
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Cost management plan
C. Risk management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact should they happen. You have studied the risk events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants you to do more. They’d like for you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and impact with a financial amount for each risk event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
A. Risk response plan
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Risk response
D. Contingency reserve
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Authorizing Official
B. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Information system owner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You are working as a project manager in your organization. You are nearing the final stages of project execution and looking towards the final risk monitoring and controlling activities. For your project archives, which one of the following is an output of risk monitoring and control?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Requested changes
D. Risk audits
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management Manual?
A. DoDD 8000.1
B. DoD 7950.1-M
C. DoD 5200.22-M
D. DoD 8910.1
E. DoD 5200.1-R
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning. Which of the following processes take place in phase 3? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
B. Document and implement a mitigation plan.
C. Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
D. Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project. Which of the following statement is most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?
A. The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.
B. The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.
C. The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.
D. The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop DIACAP strategy.
B. Assign IA controls.
C. Assemble DIACAP team.
D. Initiate IA implementation plan.
E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
F. Conduct validation activity.
Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 30
Information risk management (IRM) is the process of identifying and assessing risk, reducing it to an
acceptable level, and implementing the right mechanisms to maintain that level. What are the different
categories of risk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. System interaction
B. Human interaction
C. Equipment malfunction
D. Inside and outside attacks
E. Social status
F. Physical damage
Correct Answer: BCDEF
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