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Huawei H19-308 Practice Test Q1-Q13 Free Online
QUESTION 1 What is the maximum number of disks supported by 2200 V3? A. 204 B. 276 C. 300 D. 500 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which is not a front-end port of Dorado V3? A. 8 Gbit/s and 16 Gbit/s FC B. 40 Gbit/s InfiniBand C. 56 Gbit/s InfiniBand D. 10 Gbit/s iSCSI and FCOE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 2200 V3/2600 V3 supports 2 U 2, 5-inch disk enclosure, 4 U 3.5-inch disk enclosure, and 4 U high- density disk enclosure. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which of the following SSD capacities does OceanStor V5 support? (Multiple Choice) A. 600 GB B. 960 GB C. 1.92 TB D. 3.84 TB E. 7.68 TB Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 5 What is the major difference between OceanStor 6800 V5 and OceanStor 6800 V3? A. Number of supported disks B. Number of scalable controllers C. Back-end full interconnection Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 2200 V3 supports HyperCopy and HyperSnap, which are both included in the basic software suite. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Dorado V3 supports adjusting the LUN granularity based on applications. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which is the customer benefit of SmartVirtualization? A. Storage resources in “pay-as-you-use” mode, reducing the upfront investment B. Heterogeneous virtualization, consolidating mainstream vendors\\’ storage into resource pools C. Unified management of high-end, mid-range, and entry-level storage, improving management efficiency Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which of the following models are included in the OceanStor F V5 series? (Multiple Choice) A. 5300F V5 B. 5500FV5 C. 5600FV5 D. 5800FV5 E. 6800FV5 F. 18500F V5/18800F V5 Correct Answer: ABCDEF
QUESTION 10 Which are the customer benefits of SmartThin (Thin Provisioning)? (Multiple Choice) A. Expand capacity on demand B. Reduce initial purchase cost C. Improve storage capacity utilization D. Reduce total cost of ownership E. Reduce the amount of data Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 11 Which are the customer benefits of Huawei storage RAID 2.0+? (Multiple Choice) A. Substantial performance improvement B. Fast data reconstruction C. Automatic global load balancing Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12 OceanStor 9000 supports high density nodes. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 In SmartMulti-Tenant, a vStore is managed by only one tenant administrator, and vStores are isolated from each other. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Which switch is the industry\\’s first agile box switch? A. S5720EI B. S5720HI C. S5700HI D. S5710EI Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which of the following highlights does not apply to the NE08E-S6/S6E? A. Large capacity B. Highest density in the industry C. High reliability D. Dual-CXP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 How many spatial streams do AP8050DN and AP8150DN have at 5Ghz? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 which model supports LET feature? A. AR161FW B. AR169FVW C. AR169BF D. AR161G-L Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Different SFU types can be used in CE1Z800 chassis A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 The benefit of CSS+iStack/SVF is () (Multiple Choice) A. simplified management B. loop free L2 network C. no STP depolyment D. 100% link usage Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 7 IDC need what kind of features to meet the requirement of service (Multiple Choice) A. High density 100G/40G/10G port B. Easy management solution NQA/Netstream C. VxLAN for SDN-based overlay solution for multi-tenant scenario D. multi-DC interconnection Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 8 Which of the following AntiDDoS series is newly launched in 2019? A. AntiDDoS1600 series B. AntiDDoS1800 series C. AntiDDoS8000 series D. AntiDDoS Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 There are many firewall performance indicators. Which of the following is the most valuable throughput indicator in addition to interface type and quantity? A. IPv4/v6 Throughput B. FW+SA+IPS Throughput C. Full Protection Throughput (Real World) D. FW+SA+IPS+AV Throughput Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 S7700 compete against CISCO 4500/4500E. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 AR503EQGW-L can support GPS A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which scenarios can AR G3 series apply? (Multiple Choice) A. LAN Egress Gateway B. WAN Access and Edge Aggregation C. 3G/LTE Backup D. VPN Security Gateway Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 13 You should check and confirm the quantity of APs when taking an onsite survey, but no need to pay attention to the location where the APs are suitable to be installed. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 display startup MainBoard: Startup system software: sd1:/ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc Next startup system software: sd1:/ar2220- v200r003c00spc200.cc Backup system software for next startup: null Startup saved-configuration file: null Next startup saved-configuration file: null Startup license file: null Next startup license file: null Startup patch package: null Next startup patch package: null Startup voice-files: null Next startup voice-files: null Refer to the display output. Which statement is false? A. The current configuration file has not been saved. B. The current startup system software is ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc C. The next startup system software cannot be changed. D. The next startup system software can be changed by using the “startup system software .cc” command. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 system – view [Huawei]command – privilege level 3 view user save The correct statement about the above configuration command is () A. Modify the user\\’s permission level to 3, and save the configuration. B. Modify the user view command to a permission level of 3, and save the configuration. C. Modify the permission level of the save command used by a user to 3 D. Modify the permission level of the save command in the user view to 3 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 The network structure and OSPF partition are shown in the figure. In addition to R1, routers R2, R3 and R4 are OSPF ABR routers.
A. Correct B. Error Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Two routers are connected via serial interfaces, for which the link-protocol is PPP. The network administrator wishes to configure PPP authentication to improve security on this link. Which PPP authentication method provides a more secure solution? A. CHAP B. PAP C. MD5 D. SSH Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 The network administrator wants to improve the performance of network transmission, what steps can the administrator take? (Choose two) A. Change the work mode to full duplex of each end station. B. Link the end stations together using a switch. C. Change the work mode to half duplex of each end station. D. Link the end stations together using a hub. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6 When two switches use link aggregation technology for interconnection, which of the following conditions do each member port need to meet? (multiple choice) A. The number of physical ports connected to the two ends is the same. B. The physical ports connected to the two ends have the same rate. C. The physical port duplex mode connected to the two ends is the same. D. The physical numbers of the physical interfaces connected to the two ends are the same. E. The optical modules used by the physical ports connected to the two ends are of the same type. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 7 In the OSI reference model, the ability to perform end-to-end error detection and flow control is (). A. Physical layer B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Source Destination Protocol Info 10.0.12.1 10.0.12.2 TCP 50190 > telnet [SYN] Seq=0 Win=8192 Len=0 MSS=1460 10.0.12.2 10.0.12.1 TCP telnet> 50190 [SYN, ACK] Seq=0 Ack=1 Win=8192 Len=0 MSS=1460 10.0.12.1 10.0.12.2 TCP 50190 > telnet [ACK] Seq=1 Ack=1 Win=8192 Len=0 Refer to the capture output.The administrator has captured three packets in the network. Which statement regarding the capured packets is incorrect? A. This packets represent a TCP three-way handshake process. B. 10.0.12.1 is the telnet server, while 10.0.12.2 is the telnet client. C. The three packets contain no application data. D. 10.0.12.1 uses port 50190 to buid the telnet connection. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 217.# Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 Port link type trunk Port trunk allow pass vlan 2 to 4094 # According to the command output shown above, the correct one in the following description is () (multiple choice) A. GigabitEthernet0/0/1 does not allow VLAN1 to pass. B. GigabitEthernet0/0/1 allows VLAN1 to pass C. If you want to change the GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port to an Access port, you must first use the command “undo port trunk allow pass vlan All clear the default configuration D. If you want to change the GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port to an Access port, you must first use the command “undo port trunk allow pass vlan 2 to 4094″ clear default configuration Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 10 As shown in the figure, both ports GE0/0/1 and GE0/0/2 are configured with different Hybrid configurations. The correct statement is (). (many selected)
A. The administrative department and the finance department cannot exchange visits because the VLANs belonging to the two departments are different. B. The data frame sent by the administrative department carries the tag in the switch as VLAN20. C. The data frame sent by the finance department carries the tag in the switch as VLAN20. D. The switch here can be a Layer 2 switch or a Layer 3 switch because communication does not need to go through a Layer 3 gateway. E. If both ports GE0/0/1 and GE0/0/2 of the switch are modified to be trunk ports, the two departments can communicate normally. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11 Refer to the following topology and router configuration. The NAT configuration does not specify a NAT global address pool, so address translation cannot be performed correctly.
A. Yes B. Wrong Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following statements regarding link-state database and routing table of a “single” OSPF area are correct? (Choose two) A. The link-state databases that all routers build are identical. B. The link-state databases that all routers build are different. C. The routing-tables that all routers calculate are different. D. The routing-tables that all routers calculate are identical. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13 It is known that the routing table of a router has the following two entries. If the router wants to forward packets with the destination address of 9.1.4.5, the following is said. The correct thing in the law is ().
A. Select the first item as the best match because the OSPF protocol has a higher priority. B. Select the second item as the best match because the RIP protocol has a lower value. C. Select the second item as the best match because the exit is Ethternet0, which is faster than Serial 0. D. Select the second term as the best match because the route entry is a more accurate match for the destination address 9.1.4.5 Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 21
One class B network 155. 16. 0. 0, the mask is 255. 255. 255. 192. Then subnet quantity available is ( ) , the host quantity in every subnet at most is ( )
A. 512 126
B. 1024 64
C. 1024 62
D. 256 254
E. 192 254
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
For network segment 192.168.2.16/28, how many hosts it can hold at most?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 15
D. 14
E. 7
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
The IP address 0. 0. 0.0 indicates ( ).
A. Network address
B. Broadcast address of specially designated network segment
C. All networks
D. Broadcast address of all nodes of local network segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What is the network address for 190. 233. 27. 13/16?
A. 190. 0. 0. 0
B. 190. 233. 0. 0
C. 190. 233. 27. 0
D. 190. 233. 27. 1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following address types are reserved for multicast use?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class E
D. Class D
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Which is the default network mask length of 219.25.23.56?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
What is the maximum bits of a Class B address can be used for subnet ?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 16
D. 22
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
The subnet mask of a class a address is 250. 205. 240. 0, how many bits are used to divide subnet?
A. 4
B. 0
C. 9
D. 12
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements are correct regarding OSPF Router LSA ?
A. Every router running OSPF must generate Router LSA.
B. In broadcast and NBMA network, only DR0ther generates Router LSA
C. Router LSA describes link states of the router in area.
D. Router LSA is flooded in the whole AS.
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 30
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Network LSA in OSPF network?
A. Network LSA is generated by ABR.
B. Only the router which connects NBMA or Broadcast Network may generate Network LSA.
C. DR uses Network LSA to describe routers that have established adjacency relation with it in the network.
D. Network LSA is flooded in the whole AS.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 31
Which type of LSA is only used to calculate external route?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which of the followings are OSPF packet type ?
A. LSA
B. LS Request
C. LSP
D. LS Update
E. LS Ack
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 33
Which of the following elements together uniquely identify a LSA?
A. LS type
B. Link state ID
C. Advertising Router
D. LS Sequence number
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements are correct regarding how OSPF detects old and duplicate LSAs?
A. The smaller the sequence number, the more recent the LSA.
B. The smaller the LS age, the more recent the LSA.
C. When router generates a new LSA at the first time, it will use Ox80000001 as the sequence number.
D. An LSA can be flushed from routing domain by setting its LSA age to \4axage.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 35
Which of the following statements are correct regarding intra-area route calculation of OSPF?
A. Every OSPF router only uses one Router LSA to describe local active link state for one area.
B. Every OSPF uses more than one Router LSA to describe local active link state for one area.
C. One Router LSA only describes one link.
D. One Router LSA describes more than one link.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 36
In OSPF, the process of calculating shortest path tree can be divided into two phases, calculate Transit
node first,
then calculate Stub network.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
In the process of calculating SPF tree, the cost from a node to root node equals to metric listed in the Router LSA generated by the node.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
In OSPF protocol, which of the following elements are used to describe one link?
A. Link ID
B. Data
C. Type
D. Metric
Correct Answer: ABCD QUESTION 39
OSPF uses SPF algorithm to calculate SPF tree according to topology. What is the node of the SPF tree?
A. Router
B. Router and network segment
C. Port and network segment
D. Router and port
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
In OSPF protocol, which of the following elements are used by Network LSA to describe broadcast network segment or NBMA network segment?
A. Link ID
B. Net mask
C. Attached Router list
D. Metric
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 41
Which of the connection types that Router LSA can describe?
A. Point-to-point
B. Stub
C. Transit
D. Virtual link Correct Answer: ABCD
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements about a Smart Link group are true?
A. Smart Link group consists of a maximum of two interfaces. Where there are two interfaces, one is an active interface, and the other a standby interface.
B. Of the two interfaces in a Smart Link group, one is active, and the other is standby.
C. When an active interface goes Down, the Smart Link group automatically blocks it and changes the status of the standby interface to active.
D. When an active interface recovers, the standby interface is blocked and traffic is switched back to the active interface.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements about Flush packets in a Smart Link group are true?
A. A Smart Link group sends Flush packets to instruct other devices to update the address table.
B. Flush packets use IEEE 802. 3 encapsulation*
C. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is an unknown unicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
D. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is a special multicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
When links are switched in a Smart Link group, which of the following mechanisms can be used to refresh MAC and ARP entries?
A. MAC and ARP entries are refreshed automatically with respect to traffic.
B. The Smart Link group uses a new link to send Flush packets.
C. MAC entries are refreshed after the aging time expires.
D. ARP entries are refreshed after the aging time expires
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation binds a group of physical interfaces together as a logical interface to increase the bandwidth and reliability.
B. Link aggregation complies with IEFE 802. 3ah.
C. The logical link formed by bundling multiple physical links together is called a link aggregation group (IAG) or atrunk.
D. Active and inactive interfaces exist in link aggregation. Active interfaces forward data, whereas inactive interfaces do not.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation can be performed in manual load balancing or LACP mode. In manual loading balancing mode, LACP is disabled; in I.ACP mode, LACP is enabled.
B. In manual load balancing mode, all active member interfaces forward data and perform load balancing.
C. In static LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk and the addition or member interfaces to the Eth-Trunk are performed manually. Compared with link aggregation in manual load balancing mode, active interfaces in static LACP mode are selected by sending I.ACP Data Units (LACPDUs).
D. In dynamic LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk, the addition of member interfaces, and the selection of active interfaces are performed based on LACP negotiation.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements about LACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 7
Which of the following reliability designs are related to routers?
A. Reliability design of the system and hardware
B. Reliability design of the software
C. Reliability test authentication
D. Reliability design of the lP network
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 8
Which of the following can speed up OSPF fast convergence?
A. Configuring dynamic BFD for OSPF
B. Adjusting the interval at which OSPF calculation is performed
C. Configuring the interval at which an LSA are retransmitted
D. Configuring the maximum number of external LSAs in the LSDB
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
When the GR Restarter performs the active/standby switchover, the neighbor performs which of the following operations when detecting that a TCP disconnection?
A. Keeping the routing tables of various address families advertised by the GR Restarter during negotiation, marking entries in these tables with stale tags, and starting a stale timer
B. Starting a restart timer.
C. Clearing all routing entries and forwarding entries related to the GR restarter if the GR restarter fails to re-establish the BGP connection with the neighbor after the restart timer expires.
D. Remaining the neighbor relationship unchanged.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 10
RTA connected to a LAN by e0/0 whose IP address is 10. 1. 1. 251 and network Mask is 255.
255. 255. 0. Now
create a virtual router with ID I and virtual IP address 10.1.1.254 0n RTA.
Which of the following commands are correct?
A. [RTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
B. [RTA]vrrp vrid I virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
C. ERTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
D. [RTA]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements about IACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements about the reliability requirement level are true?
A. Faults seldom occur in the system software or hardware.
B. System functions are not affected by faults.
C. System functions are affected by faults but can rapidly recover.
D. System functions can be ensured by using redundancy design, switchover policy, and high success rate in switchover.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 13
Which of the following are end-to-end link protection modes?
A. 1:1
B. M: N
C. N: 1
D. 1+1
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 14
On a BGP/MPLS IPv4 VPN, OSPF, LDP, and static routes are configured. Which of the following protocols need to be enabled with GR to achieve NSF on PEs?
A. OSPF
B. MPLS LDP
C. BGP
D. Static routes
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 15
In VRP 5.7, which of the following dynamic protocols support GR?
A. MPLS LDP/RSVP
B. IS-IS/OSPF
C. BGP
D. MSTP
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements about BFD are true?
A. It cannot be used to detect MPLS networks.
B. It provides low-load and short-duration detection for paths between adjacent forwarding engines.
C. It provides a unified mechanism for detecting all types of media and BFD-supporting protocols.
D. It is a bidirectional detection mechanism.
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about the setup of a BFD session are true?
A. A BFD session can be set up in either static or dynamic mode.
B. A static BFD session is set up by manually configuring BFD session parameters and delivering requests for setting up a BFD session. BFD session parameters include the local and remote discriminators.
C. A dynamic BFD session is set up by dynamically allocating local discriminators.
D. Static and dynamic E3FD sessions are not differentiated.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 18
How many hosts are available per subnet if apply a /21 mask to the class B network?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 2046
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
For a network like 175.25.128.0/19, the mask value is?
A. 250. 255. 0. 0
B. 200. 205. 224. 0
C. 250. 255. 24. 0
D. Different based on the address type
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
The network 154.27.0.0 without any subnet can support ( ) hosts?
A. 204
B. 1024
C. 65, 534
D. 16, 777, 206
Correct Answer: C
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