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QUESTION 141
When a PPP connection is being established, which three configuration features are negotiated through the LCP? (Choose three.)
A. callback
B. multilink
C. encryption
D. compression
E. protocol multiplexing

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
A corporation is currently running a Frame Relay network in a hub and spoke topology. To ease the WAN bandwidth bottleneck, the company would like to configure compression in an effort to optimize WAN links. The corporation does use multiple protocols and other applications that require that the IP header remains intact. Which type of compression should this corporation use?
A. link compression
B. payload compression
C. TCP/IP header compression
D. MPPC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Instead of purchasing dedicated router ports, a company wants to reduce costs by allowing any one of the available physical BRI interfaces on a central site router to dial out to remote branch offices.
Which two commands provide this capability? (Choose two.)
A. dialer-group
B. multilink ppp
C. interface dialer
D. dialer hunt-group
E. dialer rotary-group

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which command displays the remote network addresses associated with each PVC?
A. show ip route
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame-relay pvc
E. show frame-relay status

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Refer to exhibit. Notice the partial show running-config output on R1. R1 is connected with a multipoint subinterface over the Frame Relay to the spoke routers R2 and R3. The ISDN interface is configured to provide a back-up link should the primary connection to R2 fail.
However, when the PVC to R2 drops, the BRI interface remains in “standby” mode and does not bring up the back-up link. What could the problem be?

A. The EIGRP updates are configured as noninteresting traffic
B. The backup command is configured under the S0.1 multipoint interface of R1
C. The R1 S0 interface remains up because of the active PVC between R1 and R3.
D. The R1 S0.1 interface remains up because of the active PVC between R1 and R3.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Which set of commands will accomplish the tasks below?
-Make bri0/0 a backup interface to serial0/0.
–
Activate the backup interface 5 seconds after the primary link fails and deactivate the backup interface 10 seconds after the primary link is re-established.

A.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10

B.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10

C.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5

D.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which field is defined in the PPP format that allows PPP to dynamically negotiate link options?
A. address
B. control
C. protocol
D. flag

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
An administrator is attempting to configure TACACS+ AAA authentication for privileged EXEC mode access. The current configuration is as follows:
RTB(config)# tacacs-server host 192.168.1.23 RTB(config)# tacacs-server key CISCO RTB(config)# aaa new-model RTB(config)# aaa authentication enable AAA group tacacs+ enable none
With the above configuration, what will be the result?
A. Authentication will be successful from the TACACS+ server.
B. Authentication will be successful from the local enable password.
C. Because the authentication list is not applied to any lines, authentication will not be successful.
D. Because the authentication enable command cannot used with a named list, authentication will not be successful

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 150
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
lab question Please refer to Question 45, but take notice you wil use the same command in this questions, but some paramters like IP address will be different.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which two debugs should you use to find the cause of an unsuccessful PAP negotiation? (Choose two.)
A. debug ppp pap
B. debug ppp negotiation
C. debug authentication pap
D. debug ppp authentication

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
When the ISAKMP negotiation begins in IKE Phase 1 main mode, ISAKMP looks for an ISAKMP policy that is the same on both peers. Which peer is responsible for matching policies?
A. The peer that initiates the negotiation sends all its policies to the remote peer, and the remote peer tries to find a match with its policies.
B. The remote peer sends all its policies to the initiating peer, and the initiating peer tries to find a match with its policies.
C. Both peers send all their policies to the other peer, and each peer tries to find a match with its policies.
D. Both peers send all their policies to the other peer, but just the initiating peer tries to find a match with its policies.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which statement is true about payload compression?
A. Payload compression can be used in conjunction with link compression.
B. The payload compression algorithm uses Predictor or STAC to compress traffic into another data link layer such as PPP.
C. Payload compression is appropriate for virtual network services such as Frame Relay and ATM.
D. With payload compression the complete packet is compressed and the switching information in the header is not available.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Given the above output, which statement is true?
A. An LMI is not being received from the Frame Relay switch.
B. The DLCI has been removed from the Frame Relay switch.
C. The remote router connection to the Frame Relay switch is not functioning
D. The router is configured to be a Frame Relay switch.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
What are three drawbacks to using RFC 1483/2684 bridging with ADSL? (Choose three.)
A. Bridging is inherently insecure and requires a trusted environment.
B. Bridging depends heavily on broadcasts in order to establish connectivity
C. Bridging requires expensive routing equipment because of the extensive Layer 3 overhead.
D. Bridging architecture may allow IP address hijacking.
E. Bridging, because of its ATM WAN configuration, can require considerable effort during initial troubleshooting.
F. Bridging architecture can be complex to install and maintain.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Based on the above output, how many IKE policies were administratively defined?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
What two things will occur when r1 initiates a call to r2 and attempts to make a connection? (Choose two.)
A. Both routers will send a challenge.
B. Only r2 will send a challenge.
C. The r2 router will generate a hash value and send it to r1.
D. The PPP connection establishment will succeed.
E. The PPP connection establishment will fail.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Observe the exhibited output from a show isdn status command. Which statement is true?
A. There were five attempts to make calls.
B. Layer 1 is not operational
C. Layer 2 is operational.
D. The router is not exchanging frames with the ISDN switch.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which two of the following events will occur when the router command backup load 60 5 is used? (Choose two.)
A. The backup link activates when the primary link exceeds 60 percent of bandwidth
B. The backup link activates when the primary link exceeds 60 kbps.
C. The backup link deactivates when the primary link falls to 5 percent bandwidth.
D. The backup link deactivates when the combined load falls to 5 percent bandwidth.
E. The backup link deactivates when the combined load falls to 5 kbps.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from noise or other signals.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Which two commands are used to verify and troubleshoot a PPP session? (Choose two.)
A. show interfaces
B. show PPP
C. debug PPP negotiation
D. debug PPP session
E. debug ppp dialer

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which type of remote-user VPN has users dial in to an Internet service provider (ISP) where an ISP-owned device establishes a secure tunnel to the users’ enterprise network?
A. client initiated VPN
B. network access server (NAS) initiated VPN
C. intranet VPN
D. extranet VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which of the following statements is correct based on the Cisco router output of the show isdn status command?
Router#show isdn status Global ISDN Switchtype=basic-ni ISDN BRI0 interface dsl 0, interface ISDN Switchtype=basic-ni Layer 1 Status: ACTIVE Layer 2 Status: TEI=73, Ces=2, SAPI=0, State=TEI_ASSIGNED TEI=74, Ces=1, SAPI=0, State=TEI_ASSIGNED Layer 3 Status : 0 Active Layer 3 Call(s)
A. Layer 1, 2, and 3 status is active.
B. TEI values assigned are not a valid numbers.
C. Layers 1 and 2 status is active but Layer 3 status indicates lost connectivity.
D. Layer 1 status is active but Layer 2 status indicates lost connectivity.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Based on the above configuration, which statement is true?
A. The backup interface will be used when traffic reaches 80 kbps on the primary interface
B. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 10%.
C. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 80 kbps.
D. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 10%.
E. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 80 kbps.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
When radius authentication is being configured on a router, which commands will allow a user to telnet successfully into the router?
Router(config)# radius-server host 192.168.1.23 Router(config)# radius-server key CISCO Router(config)# aaa new-model
A. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication AAA
B. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication CISCO
C. Router(config)# aaa authentication login default group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication AAA
D. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication default

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
Which two statements are true about the use of the backup load 65 10 command on a router? (Choose two.)
A. The secondary line will terminate when the load of the primary line drops to 10% of the bandwidth of the primary line.
B. The secondary line will terminate when the aggregate load of the primary and backup lines drops to 10% of the primary line bandwidth.
C. The secondary line will come up 10 seconds after traffic on the primary line reaches 65% of the bandwidth of the primary line
D. The secondary line will come up when the traffic on the primary line reaches 65% of the bandwidth of the primary line.
E. The backup interface will come up 65 seconds after the primary link goes down.
F. The secondary interface will terminate the connection 10 seconds after the primary link comes up.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the show frame-relay pvc output?
A. Traffic shaping is enabled.
B. The remote connection is not working correctly.
C. The local connection is not working correctly
D. LMIs are not being received

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which timer is reset to the maximum configured value every time an interesting packet is forwarded across the link?
A. wait for carrier timer
B. dialer idle timer
C. dialer enable timer
D. busy timer

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
lab question Please refer to Question 22, but take notice you wil use the same command in this questions, but some paramters like IP address will be different.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Given the partial IPSEC datagram, which provides both authentication and confidentiality, identify the header marked as 2.
A. AH header
B. ESP header
C. MPLS VPN header
D. SA header

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which traffic queuing method gives a low-volume traffic stream preferential service?
A. FIFO
B. Priority
C. Custom
D. Weighted Fair
E. Low Latency

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
What are two advantages to the use of RFC 1483 to encapsulate IP data over ATM? (Choose two.)
A. multiprotocol support
B. inherently more secure because of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
C. the CPE in bridge mode performs routing functions
D. ideal for single-user Internet access

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 181
Which differences are those between IGMP Snooping and CGMP? (Choose two)
A. IGMP snooping is Cisco proprietary
B. CGMP learns subscribing MAC addresses from the router
C. CGMP learns subscribing MAC addresses by passive listening
D. IGMP snooping requires layer 3 processing

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 182
Based on the partial configuration provided in the exhibit, what additional configuration is required to allow the router to properly participate in a PIM sparse-dense mode scenario?

A. IGMP needs to be enabled on the router.
B. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in sparse mode network areas.
C. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in dense mode network areas.
D. The PIM dense-mode state, refresh interval needs to be configured.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which command sequence is a requirement for configuring the IP address of the rendezvous point (RP) located at IP address 10.10.10.1?
A. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-address 10.10.10.1
B. Switch(config)# ip igmp join-group 10.10.10.1
C. Switch(config)# ip pim accept-rp 10.10.10.1 1
D. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-candidate gigabitethernet0/2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 184
Examine the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and Recipient B are forwarding IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which option is correct?
A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 185
Study the exhibit below. IP multicast for group address 224.1.1.1 has been enabled on all routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However, hosts on Network B do not. Refer to outputs presented, what will cause this problem?

A. The multicast packets are sourced from a server with an unspecified IP address.
B. Router P4S2 does not have an RP configured on the multicast network.
C. Because of RPF failure, Router P4S2 does not forward multicast packets to Network B.
D. Router P4S2 does not regard the upstream router P4S1 as a PIM neighbor.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 186
According to the network of Layer 3 switches in the exhibit, the RPI Multicast Server only multicasts to hosts connected to multilayer switches 5 and 6. The CMU Multicast Server multicasts to hosts on multi-layer switches 1-6. Refer to the number of configuration steps involved, which way most efficiently configures the network when meeting the requirements for multicast data flow?

A. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode.
B. Configure each switch with PIM dense mode.
C. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Leave each multicast server as the root of its own multicast tree.
D. Configure each switch with PIM sparse-dense mode. Configure switch 3 as a rendezvous point for the RPI multicast stream.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 187
You are a network technician at P4S .Study the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host P4SB and Host P4SF are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which description is correct?

A. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
C. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 188
You work as a network engineer at P4S, and you are tasked to configure a large Frame Relay network. The desired topology is full mesh. Assume that n represents the
number of router
endpoints in the topology. What formula should be used to determine how many PVCs to configure?

A. n*n
B. 2*n
C. 3*n
D. n*(n-1)/2

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 189
Study the exhibit carefully. Which two conclusions can be derived from the debug ip igmp output? (Choose two.)

A. The IP multicast groups are 224.0.0.1, 224.0.1.40, and 239.255.0.1.
B. IP PIM RP mapping is static.
C. Router P4S-RA received an IGMP report version 1 from host 192.168.9.1.
D. The router sent an IGMP version 2 query out interface Ethernet1 at multicast address 224.0.0.1.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 190
From the show ip eigrp topology command output, which code is the indication of a convergence problem for the associated network?
A. Active
B. Update
C. Query
D. SIA

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 191
Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) has two modes: Sparse Mode and Dense Mode. Here, we focus on the Dense Mode. Which statement correctly describes Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast routing?
A. If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
B. PIM DM supports shared distribution trees.
C. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
D. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 192
Which three descriptions are correct regarding the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
D. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 193
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 229.138.10.7
B. 228.10.138.7
C. 228.10.10.8
D. 228.10.10.7

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 194
A P4S network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a
device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80.
Which Layer 2 multicast
address will be used by this device?

A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
D. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 195
The IP multicast global configuration command ip pim send-rp-announce loopback0 scope 31 group-list 5 issued on multicast router RTA. What are the two results? (Choose two)
A. RTA will originate RP announcements with TTL set to 31.
B. RTA will drop all RP announcements it receives if the TTL field is greater than 31.
C. RTA will forward RP announcements provided they are within the scope of 31.
D. RTA will originate RP announcements for multicast groups that match access-list 5.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 196
Which three statements correctly describe IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
B. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
C. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 197
Internet Protocol (IP) multicast is a bandwidth-conserving technology that reduces traffic by simultaneously delivering a single stream of information to thousands of corporate recipients and homes .Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 198
When a network client wants to join a multicast group, which type of IGMP message is transmitted?
A. host membership status
B. host membership report
C. host membership notification
D. host membership query

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 199
What is the MAC address that comes from the multicast address 239.255.0.1?
A. 01-01-ef-ff-00-01
B. 10-00-ef-ff-00-01
C. 01-00-5e-7f-00-01
D. 00-00-00-7f-00-01

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 200
Examine the following statements, then answer this question. When the passive-interface command is used on a router, which two routing protocols will continue to receive routing updates on an interface that is configured as passive? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 201
The P4Spany has implemented EIGRP in its network.
Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible successors? (Choose three.)

A. If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately without recalculating for a lost route.
B. A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a non-successor route to the feasible distance of the best route.
C. If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of best route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
D. The feasible successor can be found in the routing table.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 202
IP Multicast is a method of forwarding IP datagrams to a group of interested receivers. Examine the exhibit
carefully. IP multicast configuration changes have been made on several routers.
However, the IP multicast table shown in the exhibit still does not reflect the changes. What should be
done in order to display the new routing table information?
A. Issue the clear ip route * privileged EXEC command.
B. Issue the no ip mroute-cache privileged EXEC command.
C. Issue the clear ip mroute privileged EXEC command.
D. Issue the clear ip igmp group privileged EXEC command.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 203
Examine the exhibit carefully. Each router has Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled interfaces.
Based on the configuration presented on routers P4S1 and P4S2, which router
will take on the function of rendezvous point (RP) for the multicast network?
A. both routers P4S 1 and P4S 2
B. router P4S2
C. router P4S1
D. none of the routers since they are not configured with static RP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 204
Look at the exhibit below. Which two facts are important in interpreting the output of the show ip pim interface command? (Choose two.)

A. Multiaccess, multicast segments do not elect a DR.
B. Point-to-Point links do not display DR information.
C. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on lowest IP address.
D. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on highest IP address.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 205
Which two statements best describe multicast protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
B. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
C. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
D. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 206
If you want to allow a switch to decide which ports to forward IP multicast messages , what methods may be effective? (Choose three)
A. IGMP
B. CGMP
C. IGMP snooping
D. static assignment

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 207
Look at the following exhibit. Choose two correct statements regarding the PIM sparse mode network! (Choose two)

A. The multicast source is connected to the serial 1/4 interface.
B. The multicast source is directly connected to this router.
C. The multicast receiver is directly connected to this router.
D. The RP for this network is this router.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 208
Study the exhibit carefully. According to the configuration in the exhibit ,which statement is correct ?

A. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
B. IGMP version 2 is being used.
C. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
D. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 209
P4S uses IGMP version 2 in their IP multicast network. How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 210
Study the exhibit below carefully. Switch P4S-Switch is receiving IGMP frames only on interface FastEthernet 0/3.Refer to the IGMP snooping, out of which port or ports will switch P4S-Switch forward multicast traffic?

A. all ports
B. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, 0/4
C. FastEthernet 0/3
D. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/4, 0/5, 0/6, 0/7, 0/8

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 211
Which two statements correctly describe the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network? (Choose two.)
A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse-dense mode (PIM-SDM).
B. To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join the RP.
C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM DM).
D. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM SM).

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 212
In order to display the two values used in the calculation of the EIGRP metric, which show command will be used?
A. show ip eigrp neighbor
B. show protocol
C. show interface
D. show ip eigrp interface

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 213
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. This router P4S received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router P4S.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router P4S.
D. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 214
For the following options, which three IP multicast group concepts are correct? (Choose three.)
A. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
B. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
C. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 215
Which three IP multicast address related descriptions are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
C. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
D. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation

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Cisco 642-384 Dumps, Latest Cisco 642-384 Exam Sample Is What You Need To TakeCisco 642-384 Dumps, Latest Cisco 642-384 Exam Sample Is What You Need To Take

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QUESTION 54
What are two uses for USB ports on ISRs? (Choose two)
A. increased memory capabilities
B. secure device authentication
C. bulk flash storage
D. control over the types of files that can be stored
E. digital certificate storage

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic
C. There are excessive CRC errors
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces
F. ARP requests are timing out

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 56
Which screen on the Cisco ASDM home page would you use to see which access list rules are in effect?
A. NAT
B. Interfaces
C. Routing
D. Security Policy

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which type of antenna is used when coverage in all directions is required?
A. directional
B. bidirectional
C. omnidirectional
D. patch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which service should be disabled or filtered via a firewall because an attacker could use the service to download a copy of Cisco IOS software from a router (thereby making the router vulnerable to DOC attacks)?
A. PAD service
B. finger service
C. TCP/UDP
D. BOOTP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Which two statement best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit.

Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and switch B is running 802.1Q STP, if the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a full circle around the topology, it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B_C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN ! STP of PVST+ Thus, there is a forwarding loop What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. Switch A sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
B. Switch B sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
C. Switch C sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
D. Switch A sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 21 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
What is used to prevent outside resources from accessing private information within the company?
A. IPsec
B. VPN
C. PIN
D. Firewalls

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which type of security allows visibility into the state of the operating system and is the only way to inspect encrypted traffic?
A. zero updated architecture
B. network-based security
C. endpoint-based security
D. ACLs

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two)
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
To avoid carrying every length of cable, lighting arrestors, and splitters when performing site surveys, engineers can outfit their survey kits with which item?
A. Category 5 cable
B. RP-TNC plug
C. antenna attenuator D. RP-TNC connector

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which two are components of AAA? (Choose two)
A. access control lists
B. Cisco IOS Software
C. Cisco Secure Access Control Server
D. Security Audit wizard
E. network access server

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three)
A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity, and security
C. producing a documented technology strategy
D. creating a bill of materials
E. presenting documented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. completing a site survey

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which port-sales SMART Design documents are available to help you better serve your customers? (Choose three)
A. Design Guide
B. Small Business Product Guide
C. Implementation Guide
D. Solution Profile
E. Cisco Configuration Assistant
F. Application Notes

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which type of VPN is deal for employees who use a home PC or public computer to access the network?
A. IP secemote access VPN
B. mobile VPN
C. dialup 0ffload VPN
D. SSL VPN
E. GET VPN

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. reduced operating costs, due to consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and accountable manner
B. greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales with customer requirements
D. improved system service quality and fewer disruptions

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit.

The tables contain information from the Cisco Configuration Professional configurations of Router A and
Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between
Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150199)
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which of the following best describe the customer benefits of change management in the operate phase?
A. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements
B. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
C. reduce operating costs and limit changE.related incidents by providing a consistent and efficient set of processes
D. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of Cisco technologies.
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products.
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources.
D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Digital
B. Optical
C. Analog
D. CDMA

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which statement correctly describes the keys witch model of deployment for call processing?
A. All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line
B. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant.
C. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which definition best describes the implementation service component within the implement phase?
A. providing a step-by-step plan that details the installation andservicE.commission tasks required in order to create a controlleD.implementation environment that emulates a customer network
B. assessing the ability of site facilities to accommodate proposed infrastructure changes
C. developing and executingprooF-oF-concept tests, validating high-level infrastructure design, and identifying any design enhancements
D. Installing, configuring and integrating systems components based on an implementation plan developed in earlier phases
E. improving a customer’s infrastructure security system

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing costs is one of the customer’s highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired.
Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub and spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
How can the proper configuration of Voice Mail be tested at an end user’s IP phone?
A. Press the “i” button.
B. Press the “Settings” button.
C. Press the “Services” button.
D. Press the “Messages” button

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. distribution layer
B. core layer
C. access layer
D. network management functional module
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and maintenance
B. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. Prepare, plan design implement operate, and optimize
D. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production I E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations sign-off

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System?
A. IP Phone and desktop
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which method list and method is used to authenticate the remote access VPN users? (Choose two.)
A. sdm_vpn_xauth_ml_1
B. sdm_ypn_group_ml_1
C. SDM_CMAP_1
D. local database on the ISR
E. remote TACACS+ server
F. remote Radius Server

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit. Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and Switch B is running 802.10 STP. If the
BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in
the VLAN topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by
the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B. C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN 1 STP of PVST+.
Thus, there is a forwardin loop.
What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
E. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
F. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which interface on the Cisco UC520 is assigned an IP address either statically or through DHCP?
A. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
E. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
F. WAN interface
G. LAN interface
H. Switch port
I. PSTN Interface

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. Reduced operating costs due to a consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and accountable manner
B. Greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. Notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales with customer requirements
D. Improved system service quality and fewer disruptions

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What are two ways to test the LAN connectivity on the Cisco CE520? (Choose two.)
A. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data Access VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.
B. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520
C. Ping default gateway from the Cisco UC520.
D. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-voice VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520.
E. Ping default gateway from the Cisco CE520.
F. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Distribution VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which statement correctly describes configuration of the VPN server?
A. It requires definition of a Group ID for remote clients.
B. It requires configuration of port settings for the VPN server on the Cisco UC520.
C. It uses apreshared Key for remote device authentication
D. The WAN interface is preselected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
In a new Cisco UC520 installation, when must IP routing be configured?
A. When the service provider assigns static IP information
B. When the service provider assigns dynamic IP information.
C. When analog PSTN trunks are used.
D. When digital PSTN trunks are used.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two).
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which critical issue should you account for when implementing an integrated network security management design?
A. NAT interoperates with encrypted voice traffic
B. host-based intrusion detection systems reside in the network
C. All network devices aretime.synchronized
D. SNMP community read-write strings are configured to allow for total management access

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
In which of these phases is a customer’s current network infrastructure assessed?
A. Plan
B. Design
C. Implement
D. Prepare

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
To save time during rediscovery, which three types of device information does Cisco Configuration Assistant retain? (Choose three.)
A. IP Address
B. MAC Address
C. Host Name
D. Communication Protocol
E. Port Settings
F. Topology

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which dial plan scenario may require PSTN trunks for outbound calls?
A. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voiceE-mail system nave direct inward dial numbers using analog trunks.
B. A subset of the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voiceE-mail system have direct inward dial numbers, and the remaining employees do not have direct inward dial numbers.
C. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and thevoiceE-mail system have direct inward dial numbers using digital interfaces.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
What are two configurable options for Call Control on the Cisco UC520? (Choose two.)
A. Shared Key
B. PBX
C. Key System
D. Encryption
E. Call Waiting

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 94
Refer to the Exhibit. According to Cisco VPN Client Software output Shown, Which two Statement are correct about the connection entry named isr? (Choose Two)

A. HMAC.SHA1 is used to authenticate the remote users.
B. Preshared key is used to authenticate the remote peer
C. AES is used to provide data confidentiality.
D. The Cisco VPN Client software is assigned an internal IP address of 192.168.1.1.
E. The PC that is running the Cisco vpn Client software win not have access to the local LAN once the PC is connected into the VPN

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
QUESTION 95
Refer to the exhibit. According to the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager window, which statement about address translation is correct?

A. Using Network Address Translation, any host on the DMZ1 subnet (172.16.1.0) will be translated to a mapped address on the outside interface of 192.168.1.11. I
B. Using port address translation, DMZ2 host 172.16.10.2 will be translated on DMZ1 to IP address
172.16.1.22 with a dynamically assigned port address.
C. Using Network Address Translation host 10.0 1.10 on the inside network will be dynamically translated to a mapped address from the address pool of 192.168.1.20 to 192.168.1.94.
D. Using port address translation, outside host 192.168.1.10 with a dynamically assigned port address will be translated to 10.0.1.11 on the inside interface.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which two are benefits of installing Cisco Monitor Director at an SMB site for the partner selling the solution? (Choose two.)
A. simplifies Smart Business Communications System installation
B. allows the end customer to get free software updates
C. monthly recurring revenue mode
D. automated monthly reporting on system performance

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which Cisco Catalyst Express 520 feature optimizes quality of service?
A. Cisco Configuration Assistant
B. Cisco Smart ports
C. Cisco Network Admission Control
D. Cisco Smart Assist

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three.)
A. Identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. Documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity and security
C. Producing a documented technology strategy
D. Creating a bill of materials
E. Presentdocumented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. Completing a site survey

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. This display has been truncated to remove information that is not relevant to the question. What would be a reason that there have been 21 ignored packets?

A. EthernetO has no CDP neighbors.
B. There are no free input buffers to accept new packets
C. There are no free output buffers for packets, which are traversing the router, to go into for transmission.
D. EthernetO and the neighbor that it is connected to are not running the same routing protocol.
E. This is not a valid error display. The display has been modified to show that there have been ignored packets.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 55
When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic
C. There are excessive CRC errors
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces
F. ARP requests are timing out