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QUESTION 147
What would be a good initial SAN-migration project for a small or medium-sized business that possesses ample WAN bandwidth, but that has an immediate need to reduce spending and to maximize resources?
A. Reduce the WAN bandwidth.
B. Implement FCIP to consolidate all remote SANs.
C. Implement backup consolidation.
D. Centralize the data center and implement an iSCSI solution.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. Which three outcomes would a customer realize by performing the migration from a multitier fabric design to a consolidated design? (Choose three.)
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A. lower effective port cost
B. high availability because of the multifaceted redundancy that is built into the Cisco MDS switch
C. lower effective port count
D. higher effective port cost
E. higher effective port count
F. lower availability because there are fewer fabric switches for failover
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
What are two MDS features that increase the efficiency of a multiple switch Fibre Channel fabric? (Choose two.)
A. Port Channel
B. CDP
C. FCP
D. FCC
E. CUP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
What provides storage virtualization from IBM?
A. Advanced Services Module (ASM)
B. Caching Services Module (CSM)
C. Storage Services Module (SSM)
D. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2-Gbps FC Module
E. IP Multiprotocol Services Module
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
A customer is concerned about the security of the SAN. The customer wants to prevent unauthorized hosts and switches from connecting to the SAN fabric. Which technology should be enabled on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series SAN to accommodate this requirement?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. DHCAP
B. role-based authorization
C. zones
D. SSH
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which four secure management protocols are used to enable intelligent SAN security? (Choose four.)
A. SSH
B. Secure TFTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
F. RADIUS-based AAA
Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
When designing a SAN, what is considered to be the most significant security threat?
A. Denial of Service attacks
B. Management Access
C. WWN Spoofing
D. FC_ID Spoofing
E. Host to Storage data paths
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which tool requires the Cisco Fabric Manager Server License to operate?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. Cisco Fabric Manager
C. Cisco Device Manager
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
What are two characteristics of iSCSI? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI initiators cannot be members of more than one VSAN.
B. The port VSAN of an iSCSI interface cannot be modified.
C. iSCSI cannot benefit from existing IP QoS.
D. By default, dynamically mapped iSCSI initiators are members of VSAN 1.
E. The IPS module creates one or more FC virtual N_Ports for each iSCSI host.
F. By default, all statically mapped iSCSI initiators are members of VSAN 4094.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
In a core-edge SAN implementation, which statement is true about oversubscription?
A. When using full-rate mode ports, there is no oversubscription in a core-edge implementation.
B. A core-edge design has manageable oversubscription, but at the cost of used ISL ports.
C. Oversubscription in a core-edge design is implemented by using N_Ports.
D. When using a core-edge design, there is only oversubscription when it is implemented in a heterogeneous environment.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Which technology should be used to provide transparent low latency FC transport across a metropolitan area?
A. DWDM
B. FCIP
C. iSCSI
D. iFCP
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 158
Which Fibre Channel SAN topology maximizes performance and expandability?
A. multi-point
B. point-to-point
C. arbitrated loop
D. switched fabric
E. star
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
What are three causes of host oversubscription? (Choose three.)
A. the operating system
B. the PCI bus limitations
C. the RTO and RPO values
D. whether the HBA has a flat FCIDs assigned
E. the limits on the maximum I/O and bandwidth rate
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 160
What are three array characteristics that are crucial when planning a SAN design? (Choose three.)
A. fan-in ratio
B. connection speed
C. embedded cache controller
D. RAID level support
E. active/passive controller
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
What are two benefits of the Cisco MDS Series Switches that increase the overall resiliency of SAN extension? (Choose two.)
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A. VSANs and IVR can eliminate the potential disruption of a WAN failure.
B. VSANs and IVR can increase resiliency by combining control traffic and data traffic over the WAN.
C. Parallel tunnels and PortChannels eliminate failure of every VSAN or IVR in the local fabric.
D. PortChannels and VSANs can be used with FCIP to provide end-to-end redundancy and load balancing.
E. Recovery at the PortChannel level, instead of at the FSPF routing level, provides nondisruptive recovery.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
A customer is planning to deploy a new storage-area-network infrastructure. The customer has five buildings within corporate headquarters, each with a separate data center. Four of the five data centers serve separate business units, while the fifth serves as the primary data center for the entire company. The customer would like to deploy the SAN in such a way that each of the five data centers will have its own storage-network infrastructure and connectivity amongst each other. The customer is planning to enable long-distance connectivity from the primary data center for the purposes of replicating data from all of the data centers across the country. Which SAN topology would you recommend that the customer deploy?
A. core-edge
B. collapsed core
C. partial mesh
D. full mesh
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 163
Which statement is true about when the Cisco MDS switch is operating in native mode?
A. Native mode is the only mode available on the MDS switch, and thus the switch is able to operate with all other storage switches because all storage switches are certified by SNIA.
B. If the products of other storage-switch vendors strictly adhere to published standards, they will be able to interoperate with MDS in native mode.
C. Most commonly deployed switches in the marketplace today can interoperate with the switches of other vendors while functioning in their default or native mode.
D. Non-MDS switches are able to interpret the Cisco EISL header and thus can Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355 interpret VSAN information.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
What are three key benefits of implementing a SAN using iSCSI? (Choose three.)
A. uses existing IP networking, monitoring, and management infrastructure
B. is more efficient than FC since it requires fewer encapsulations
C. maintains consistent performance over IP networks of varying distances
D. significant capital cost reduction by substituting iSCSI as a transport technology
E. extends existing FC SAN to IP connected hosts
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
At which point can security on a Fibre Channel SAN be implemented? (Choose three.)
A. storage array
B. server
C. Fibre Channel switch
D. GigE NIC
E. SFP connector
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
A customer recently deployed a core-edge storage network infrastructure that consists of several Cisco MDS directors and fabric switches. The directors are deployed in the core of the network, and the fabric switches are deployed as edge devices. The edge devices are connected to the core by PortChannels, which consist of four links. The customer is interested in in-band management of the fabric using TCP/IP. Which two configurations are required for enabling in-band management of the fabric using TCP/IP? (Choose two.)
A. VRRP
B. FCIP
C. IPFC
D. synchronization of management users and passwords Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
E. VSAN IP addresses
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
A customer has deployed two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors. One MDS 9509 is deployed in each of two separate data centers. The primary data center is always active, and the secondary data center is considered a standby site. The data centers are connected together by a single Gigabit Ethernet connection that is shared by many departmental networks within the company. The network connection is unreliable and is frequently out of service. The storage administrator needs to synchronously replicate data from an array in the production data center to an array in the standby data center, but is concerned about the network instability impacting the production data center. Which feature would you recommend to the administrator to minimize disruption?
A. PortChannel
B. Fibre Channel over IP
C. Inter-VSAN Routing
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. Fibre Channel timeout values
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Select three characteristics of the Cisco coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) solution. (Choose three.)
A. multiplexes up to eight wavelengths across a single fiber pair
B. supports a maximum connection length of 220 kilometers
C. supports both linear and ring topologies
D. requires OADMs (optical add/drop multiplexers) to aggregate multiple wavelengths across the same fiber pair
E. can be optically amplified to extend the distance characteristics
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
What are three reasons to implement VSANs in a Fibre Channel SAN? (Choose three.)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. to reduce network infrastructure requirements
B. to increase data security
C. to enable port-channeling
D. to enable TCP/IP routing
E. to share SAN extension capability using EISLs
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
What is considered the optimal topology for deployment of Fibre Channel SANs using Cisco MDS family products? (Choose two.)
A. mesh
B. ring
C. core-edge
D. collapsed core
E. core-edge with VSAN
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
A large credit card processing firm is adding a second data center to support business continuance. What is the recommended solution for extending the SAN to the second data center if both data centers are active?
A. asynchronous replication using FCIP
B. dual homed servers, and IP connectivity using multiple paths
C. iSCSI installation and a bridge the Ethernet network to the Fibre Channel fabric
D. synchronous replication using DWDM
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
A customer has storage arrays from multiple vendors, and is considering a virtualization solution to simplify storage management. Choose three advantages of using a Cisco MDS-based virtualization solution with an MDS 9500 Series Director instead of host-based or storage-based virtualization solutions. (Choose three.)
A. host and storage heterogeneity Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
B. LUN masking that is simpler to implement
C. virtualization that is closer to the target
D. virtualization that is embedded in the switch module
E. availability
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
A customer is considering designing a new storage-network infrastructure to simplify storage network management. The existing solution uses ten 16-port 1-Gbps Fibre Channel switches. Two of the switches are deployed as core switches, and the remaining eight switches are deployed as edge switches. Each edge switch has an ISL to each of the two core switches. The disk array has four 1-Gbps Fibre Channel interfaces. Two interfaces connect to each of the core switches. Each of the 96 servers has a single 1-Gbps Fibre Channel host bus adapter. Which configuration would provide equivalent or better performance while simplifying infrastructure management?
A. two Cisco MDS 9140 Fabric Switches
B. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches, each with one 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. one Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. one Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director with four 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which three applications would be best suited for a SAN rather than a NAS environment? (Choose three.)
A. web content services
B. order entry and inventory tracking
C. enterprise resource planning (ERP)
D. office productivity suites (for example, Microsoft Office)
E. credit card transactions
F. engineering collaboration (for example, CAD and CAM)
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 175
A fully loaded Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director requires 2190 watts of power. If 110-volt power is provided to the switch, at which power mode would the switch operate?
A. The director would operate in redundant mode only.
B. The director would operate in combined mode only.
C. The director would operate in redundant mode or combined mode.
D. The director cannot operate with 110-volt power.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
What feature of the MDS 9000 family would be most valuable in establishing a baseline of the traffic load on an existing network prior to making changes?
A. SPAN
B. RSPAN
C. FC-SP
D. Performance Manager
E. AAA
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
What are three advantages of a collapsed-core architecture? (Choose three.)
A. This design provides the most efficient use of ports because no ports are consumed for ISLs.
B. The absence of ISLs significantly decreases reliability and manageability.
C. The absence of any oversubscription increases switch throughput.
D. Since there are fewer available paths over which traffic may travel, FSPF values are higher.
E. Ports can be scaled easily by adding hot-swappable blades without disrupting traffic.
F. The highest performance is achieved by director-class switches, because the high-speed backplane provides low fixed latency between any two ports.
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 178
A customer wants to consolidate the storage in an existing SAN where Cisco MDS Series Switches are deployed. How can the customer accomplish this goal and still be able to retain full access to the data?
A. dual supervisor modules
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. stateful failover
D. universal interoperability mode 4
E. per-VSAN FSPF routing
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
A customer is designing a SAN for each of two data centers. The two data centers are connected by dark fiber, which is owned by the customer. Cisco ONS platforms terminate the fiber and provide service aggregation. The customer requirements include that the SAN in each data center meet or exceed five nines of availability and be interconnected using 16 separate lambdas. The customer has four storage devices in each data center, and each storage device has four Fibre Channel interfaces. Each data center has 32 servers, and each server has two host bus adapters. The majority of the servers require only 20 to 30MBps of throughput on average, but four of the servers require 150 MBps of throughput on average. What will provide the most cost-effective design to satisfy these requirements?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with an additional 16-port Fibre Channel line card
B. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with an additional 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. two Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9506 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9509 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and three 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
What technology minimizes the potential for service interruption on SAN extension
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links?
A. FCIP
B. VRRP
C. VSANs and IVR
D. Port Channeling
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
A customer has 12 hosts, each capable of a maximum burst I/O rate of 75 MBps. The customer wants to connect these hosts to the fabric with a 32-port line card. For optimal performance what is the maximum number of hosts that should be connected to any four-port, host-optimized quad?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
A customer has the following application and peak-bandwidth requirements:Four database servers: 50 MBps eachFour exchange servers: 30 MBps each20 midrange development servers: 20 MBps eachWhich dual-fabric designs would best meet the needs of this price-sensitive customer while allowing for future SAN extension capability?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216i Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with an IPS-8 module
B. two Cisco MDS 9216A Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with an SSM module
C. two Cisco MDS 9216i Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with a 16-port FC module
D. two Cisco MDS 9216A Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with a 32-port FC module
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. security between departments
B. segmenting collision domains
C. segmenting broadcast domains
D. video steaming on the LAN
E. limited budget of the corporation
F. use of multivendor equipment
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Which statement describes IPv6 address route summarization?
A. IPv6 address have to converted to IPv4 address to be summarized
B. Classless Inter Domain Routing (CIDR) for IPv6 automatically performs route summarization
C. IPv6 addresses cannot use route summarization
D. IPv6 address have built in route summarization based on Top Level Aggregators, Next Level Aggregators and Site Level Aggregators.
E. The routers in the IPv6 network use proprietary protocols to optimize summarization based on the size of their routing tables.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
A converged voice and data network is designed to carry voice calls on-net as close a possible to the destination to reduce long distance charges. What are two reasons that a VoIP call could go off earlier than designed? (Choose two)
A. The local voice gateway detects lack of bandwidth.
B. The destination routing is not configured on both local and remote gateways.
C. The local call manager server is too busy to process the call.
D. The telephone user dials access code.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
A manufacturing company has decided to add a website to enhance sales. The web servers in the E-Commerce module must be accessible without compromising network security. Which two design recommendations can be made to meet their requirements? (Choose two)
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A. Use intrusion detection on the E-Commerce server farm
B. Limit the number of incoming connections to the module
C. Place E-Commerce servers and application servers on isolated LANs (DMZs)
D. Move the E-Commerce servers to the WAN module to provide tight security.
E. Use private and public key encryption
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
A global corporation has 2,000,000+ host and 10,000+ routers in their internal network. They also have connectivity to the Internet and do high volumes of traffic with their business partners and the public at large. They have decided to start using IPv6. Which statement best describes a flexible IPv6 strategy for this corporation?
A. IPv6 hosts and IPv6 routers
B. dual stack hosts and dual stack routers
C. dual stack hosts and IPv4 routers
D. IPv4 hosts and IPv6 routers
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
A network that is running Voice over Frame Relay (VoFR) is experiencing delay and delay variation due to sterilization of packets of varying size. This condition is causing voice quality problems. Which solution can be added to the network at the sending end to reduce these problems?
A. dejetter buffers
B. hardware digital signal processors
C. link fragmentation and interleaving
D. coding algorithm
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
An established network is experience DoS attacks against a specific server in E-Commerce module. The operating system on the server has been upgraded and patched and all unnccded services have been tuned off, but the attacks are
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continuing. What action should be recommended to reduce these attacks?
A. Block all UDP traffic to the affected server by using ACLs at the firewall.
B. Add more servers running the same application as the affected server.
C. Block all TCP traffic to the affected server by using ACLs at the firewall.
D. Limit the correction rate to the affected server at the firewall.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Very large organizations hasreceived its IPv6 address range from their Internet Service Provider and intend to only use IPv6 address internally. They will access the Internet through port address translation (PAT). What is required for their Domain Name Servers, DNS?
A. They no longer need DNS servers
B. Their DNS servers need to support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
C. Their DNS servers need to support only IPv6 addresses
D. Their DNS servers need to support only IPv4 addresses
E. They need additional DNS servers in their network just for IPv6 addresses
F. There are no changes required to their DNS servers
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
RST Corporation is planning to upgrade its current network. The chief technology officer (CTO) has supplied a topology diagram and an IP addressing scheme of the current network during an interview. The
company has been growing at about twenty percent per year and it has been difficult to maintain customer
support at a satisfactory level. The RST board has met and directed the CTO to look into network
improvements.
Which two items are most relevant in documenting RST’s business requirements?
A. improved customer support
B. existing network topologies
C. IP addresses assigned by the ISP
D. projected growth
E. frequency of board meetings
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 192
In Cisco VoIP implementation what is used on a router to associate physical voice ports with phone numbers?
A. automatically route selections
B. translation patterns
C. IP telephony
D. dial neers
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
What is the default encapsulation for synchronous serial interfaces on Cisco routers?
A. ATM
B. HDLC
C. PPTP
D. Frame Relay
E. GRE
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
How does Roles Based Access Control (RBAC) enhance manageability in an environment with VSANs?
A. limit operator errors by isolating user management domains within a large physical infrastructure
B. specifies port membership to a specific VSAN
C. configures security options for host ports that are assigned to a VSAN
D. configures VSAN membership for specific trunk ports
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
What is the impact of IPv6 on the BGP protocol?
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A. There is a new version of BGP for IPv6
B. Host converts BGP to IS-IS for IPv6
C. Host converts BGP to IS-IS for IPv6
D. There is no change for BGP between Ipv4 and IPv6
E. BGP cannot be used with IPv6
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 116
Match the corresponding terms and OSI layer.(Not all options are used.) 1.bits 2.packets 3.UDP 4.IP addresses 5.segments 6.MAC addresses 7.windowing 8.routing 9.switching
A. Network Layer II.Transprot Layer
B. I(2,4,9),II(5,7,3)
C. I(1,4,9),II(5,3,7)
D. I(1,4,8),II(2,7,3)
E. I(2,4,8),II(5,7,3)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Three of the following are types of flow control. Which are them? (Choose three.)
A. windowing
B. buffering
C. cut-through
D. congestion avoidance
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 118
The following exhibit displays every device attached to the network. How many collision domains are shown in this network?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 15
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 119
What do you think is the data structure that is described in the graphic?
A. TCP segment
B. FDDI frame
C. Ethernet frame
D. Token Ring frame
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
For the following Layer 4 protocols, which one is used for a Telnet connection?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
Which option is correct about the relationship between the definition and the term? Not all definitions will be used.
1.a protocol that converts human-readable names into machine-readable addresses 2.used to assign IP addresses automatically and set parameters such as subnet mask and default gateway 3.a protocol for using HTTP or HTTPS to exchange XML-based messages over computer networks 4.a connectionless service that uses UDP to transfer files between systems 5.a protocol used to monitor and manage network devices
6.a reliable. Connection-oriented service that uses TCP to transfer files between systems
A. SNMP II.FTP III.TFTP IV.DNS
B. DHCP
C. I-5;II-6;III-4;IV-1;V-2
D. I-5;II-6;III-1;IV-2;V-4
E. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-1;V-2
F. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-2;V-1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
Look at the following exhibit. To interconnect the devices, which types of cables are needed? (Choose three.)
A. rollover cable
B. V.35 cable
C. crossover cable
D. straight-through cable
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 123
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You have added Host A to the network. A certain kind of cable should be used between P4S-S2 and host A. Which is it?
A. console cable
B. crossover cable
C. rollover cable
D. straight-through cable
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 124
Look at the following exhibit. To make the following connections ,what types of cables are recommended?
A. A-crossover B-straight-through C-crossover D-straight-through E-crossover
B. A-rollover B-straight-through C-straight-through D-rollover E-crossover
C. A-straight-through B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
D. A-crossover B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
From which of the following does a small network get its IP network address?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
C. Internet Domain Name Registry (IDNR)
D. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 126
You are a network administrator for certways. By using the Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic,
you connect PC hosts certwaysA and certwaysB directly. You ping certwaysB from
certwaysA, and fails. You are required to enable the connectivity between the two hosts. What can be
done? (Choose two.)
A. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
B. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
C. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
D. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 127
Part of the certways network is shown below:
Please study the exhibit shown above carefully, how many collision domains are shown
A. three
B. two
C. four
D. one
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
What is a necessary to allow host A to ping host B according to the exhibit?
A. a straight-through cable connecting the switches
B. a crossover cable connecting the switches
C. a router connected to the switches with straight-through cables
D. a CSU/DSU connected to the switches with straight-through cables
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 129
You work as a network technician for the P4S company. The displayed wire scheme is terminated at each end with an RJ-45 connector. Which type of cables does the wire diagram represent?
A. a rollover cable
B. an Ethernet straight-through cable
C. a serial crossover cable
D. an Ethernet crossover cable
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
On the basis of the exhibit below. When packets travel from Sara to Bill, which three devices will determine a forwarding path by using the destination MAC address of the packet? (Choose three.)
A. P4S-S1
B. P4S-S2
C. P4S-R2
D. P4S-S3
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 131
Study the exhibit carefully. P4S-Host A is forwarding a packet to P4S-Host B for the first time. Which destination MAC address will be used by P4S-Host A in the ARP request?
A. 255.255.255.255
B. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
C. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
D. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Refer to the following exhibit, Host A should communicate with the email server. Which address will be put in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?
A. the MAC address of Host A
B. the MAC address of P4S-S1
C. the MAC address of E0 of P4S-R
D. the MAC address of E1 of P4S-R
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
The following exhibit shows a planned network. Which three descriptions are true about the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device
C. Network Device B is a hub.
D. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 134
Refer to the graphic. Workstation A in the Sales location is communicating with the server in the Production location. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by workstation A from the server?
A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of the server network interface
C. the MAC address of host A D. the MAC address of router interface e1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
All devices will be connected through Ethernet according to the exhibit from labeled A to E . Which three
device-to-device configurations most likely require the use of a crossover connection?
(Choose three.)
A. exhibit A
B. exhibit B
C. exhibit C
D. exhibit D
E. exhibit E
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 136
Your company has just installed the mail server and P4S-SW2. UDP packets are not permitted outbound on the Fa0/1 router interface due to security reasons. Bob is now examining the new installation at his workstation and can’t establish SMTP communication to the mail server. Which item is the reason for lack of communication between Bob’s workstation and the mail server?
A. The crossover cable should be a straight-through cable.
B. The IP addresses are all on the same network. No router is required.
C. UDP is blocked coming out of the Fa0/1 interface on the router.
D. The server should be directly connected to the router.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
Which two statements best describe the interface configuration according to the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The encapsulation in use on this interface is PPP.
B. This interface is connected to a LAN.
C. The address mask of this interface is 255.255.255.0.
D. The default serial line encapsulation is in use on this interface.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 138
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)
A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. A protocol mismatch exists.
C. The bandwidth is set too low.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 139
Which two statements best describe ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 140
The certways network topology exhibit is shown below:
Please study the exhibit carefully. A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is
unable to ping a server connected to Switch certwaysA. Based on the result of the testing, what could be
the problem?
A. A remote physical layer problem exists.
B. The host NIC is not functioning.
C. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.
D. A local physical layer problem exists.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 141
Examine the following options carefully, which line from the output of the show ip interface command indicates that there is a Layer 1 problem?
A. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is up
B. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down
C. Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down
D. Serial0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
What does flow control accomplish?
A. to ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received
B. to reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device
C. to provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
D. to regulate the size of each segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
For the following transport layer protocols, which one is most suitable for the transport of VoIP data?
A. HTTP
B. UDP
C. RIP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 144
Which three statements correctly describe the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 145
According to the following exhibit. Which two output fields will be helpful when you determine if a broadcast storm has occurred? (Choose two.)
A. collisions
B. no buffer
C. dribble condition
D. ignored
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 146
You are a network technician at P4S, study the exhibit carefully. The ports displayed are the only active ports on the P4S-S. The MAC address table is displayed in its entirety. The Ethernet frame presented reaches the P4S-S. When receiving this frame, which two operations will the P4S-S perform? (Choose two.)
A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 147
Which two characteristics belong to Telnet? (Choose two.)
A. It sends data in clear text format.
B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices.
C. It is more secure than SSH.
D. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 148
Which error condition could be removed at once when troubleshooting a LAN interface operating in full duplex mode?
A. dribble condition
B. giants
C. collisions
D. no buffers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit.
P4S-PCA is sending packets to the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave P4S-RA interface
Fa0/0 forwards P4S-RB.Drag the correct frame and packet address to their place in the table.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 150
Choose from the following two statements that describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method. (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 151
Topic – Implement a small switched network.
Select the appropriate media, cables, ports, and connectors to connect switches to other network devices and hosts Explain the technology and media access control method for Ethernet technologies Explain network segmentation and basic traffic management concepts Explain the operation of Cisco switches and basic switching concepts Perform, save and verify initial switch configuration tasks including remote access management Verify network status and switch operation using basic utilities (including: ping, traceroute,telnet,SSH,arp, ipconfig), SHOW DEBUG commands Implement and verify basic security for a switch (port security, deactivate ports) Identify, prescribe, and resolve common switched network media issues, configuration issues, autonegotiation, and switch hardware failures
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 152
You are a network administrator for the P4S company, study the exhibit carefully. Your company has just configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands displayed in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session is not able to be successfully established from a remote host. How to fix this problem?
A. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
B. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D. Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 153
You are a network administrator at P4S, study the exhibit below carefully. You substitute the NIC in a desktop PC with a new NIC. The NIC in the PC configuration is set to “100 Mb Half.” Now the PC has intermittent connectivity and loss of communication so you start troubleshooting on the switch. According to the switch output displayed, which is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Fast Ethernet is incompatible with a megabit NIC.
B. The counters were not cleared after the hardware was replaced.
C. The switch is set to full-duplex.
D. Input flow control is off.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 154
The following graphic displays the topology and switching table. Host P4S-B forwards a frame to Host P4S-C. What would the switch do with the frame?
A. send an ARP request for Host P4S-C
B. send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host P4S-B
D. record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host P4S-C
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 155
You work as a network technician for P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. After the power-on self test
(POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch becomes amber.
What is the status of the
switch?
A. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
B. The POST was successful.
C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system of the switch from being loaded.
D. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 156
As it is shown in the following exhibit, P4S-SWA receives the frame with the addressing. Based on the command output shown, how will P4S-SWA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will flood the frame out all ports.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which of the following command will set the default gateway to 192.168.12.1 on a Cisco switch?
A. P4S-SW(config)# ip route-default 192.168.12.1
B. P4S-SW(config)# ip route 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0
C. P4S-SW(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.12.1
D. P4S-SW(config)# ip default-network 192.168.12.1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 158
Study the exhibit carefully. Two 2950 switches use a straight-through cable to connect through ports fa0/24. What can be concluded about this network according to the output provided in the exhibit and the information that is given?
A. An IP address and default gateway must be configured on each switch.
B. The switches do not share the same VTP domain.
C. Port fa0/24 must be configured as a trunk in order for the switches to share neighbor information.
D. The switches are cabled incorrectly.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 159
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the P4S-S are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected P4S-R and P4S-S ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Reseat all cables.
D. Ensure the P4S-S has power.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 160
What does it indicate when the system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch?
A. The system is not powered up.
B. The system is malfunctioning.
C. The system is forwarding traffic.
D. The system is powered up and operational.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 161
P4S-SWA receives the frame with the addressing displayed in the exhibit. How will P4S-SWA deal with this frame according to the command output shown in the exhibit?
A. It will flood the frame out all ports.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
D. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 162
The following output was displayed on a certways device:
Study the exhibit above. Switch-certways1 needs to send data to host with a MAC address of
00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-certways1 do with this data?
A. certways1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
B. certways1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. certways1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 163
The following graphic displays the topology and MAC address table. Host P4S-A sends a data frame to host P4S-D. When receiving the frame from host P4S-A, what will the P4S-SWA do?
A. The P4S-SWA will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host P4S-D.
B. The P4S-SWA will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
C. The P4S-SWA will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host P4S-D.
D. The P4S-SWA will discard the frame and send an error message back to host P4S-A.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 164
Examine the following options, which two are effects on network performance of configuring a switch to store an entire frame before forwarding it to the destination? (Choose two.)
A. increase in switch operating speed
B. increased latency
C. filtering of all frame errors
D. filtering of collision fragments only
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 165
The part of certways network is shown below:
According to the diagram, which of the following is true about the internetwork?
A. certways2 is the root bridge.
B. Spanning Tree is not running.
C. No collisions can occur in traffic between certwaysB and certwaysC.
D. certwaysD and certways Server 1 are in the same network.
E. If Fa0/0 is down on certways-R, Pass4usreA cannot access certways Server 1
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 166
Topic- Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office.
Describe the need and role of addressing in a network ” Create and apply an addressing scheme to a network Assign and verify valid IP addresses to hosts, servers, and networking devices in a LAN environment Explain the basic uses and operation of NAT in a small network connecting to one ISP Describe and verify DNS operation Describe the operation and benefits of using private and public IP addressing Enable NAT for a small network with a single ISP and connection using SDM and verify operation using CLI and ping Configure, verify and troubleshoot DHCP and DNS operation on a router.(including: CLI/SDM) Implement static and dynamic addressing services for hosts in a LAN environment Identify and correct IP addressing issues
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 167
Match the corresponding command sequence and configure an IP address on a serial interface.(Not all options are used) 1.P4S# interface s0/0 2.P4S(config)# interface s0/0 3.P4S(config-if)# no shutdown 4.P4S(config-if)# enable interface 5.P4S(config)# ip address 172.16.20.21 255.255.255.0 6.P4S(config-if)# ip address 10.8.5.255 255.255.252.0 7.P4S(config-if)# ip address 198.18.2.63 255.255.255.224 8.P4S(config-if)# description T1 to WAN 9.P4S(config)# banner motd! T1 to WAN! 10.P4S# configure terminal
A. enable the interface II.label the interface III.enter global configuration mode IV.enter interface configuration mode
B. configure the interface IP address
C. I-3,II-8,III-10,IV-2,V-6
D. I-3,II-8,III-10,IV-1,V-6
E. I-3,II-9,III-10,IV-2,V-5
F. I-3,II-9,III-10,IV-1,V-5
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 168
Look at the following exhibit. The diagram is provided by the certways network support staff as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments. The following IP address space has been allocated for this network:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255
192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
There are three problems with this design. What are them? (Choose three.)
A. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
B. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
C. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
D. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 169
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which destination addresses does not need the use of the default gateway for a packet from this local host?
A. 10.69.2.88
B. 10.4.8.2
C. 10.5.2.27
D. 172.16.236.4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 170
Refer to the exhibit. Host P4S-A needs to send data to Host P4S-B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host P4S-A to Host P4S-B?
A. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
D. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 171
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which IP address represents the first server that this computer is trying to contact to resolve an Internet web site URL to an IP address?
A. 10.4.8.1
B. 10.69.2.87
C. 172.16.3.2
D. 172.16.236.1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 172
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. You can successfully ping to the IP address of the primary DNS server configured on the computer. What can you determine concerning the network?
A. The names of all of the routers in the path can be resolved by the configured DNS servers
B. The DNS server is able to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
C. The router with the address 172.16.3.2 has the correct route to the 10.0.0.0 network
D. The router with the address 172.16.236.1 has a route it can use to reach network of the DNS server
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 173
What can be drawn about traffic on the router interface from the statement “The only UDP port allowed on this router interface is 53.” issued by the network manager?
A. DNS traffic is allowed.
B. Telnet traffic is allowed.
C. RIP traffic is allowed.
D. SMTP traffic is allowed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 174
Please study the exhibit, and answer the following question. Choose from the following the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to P4S-R.
A. 192.168.200.15
B. 192.168.200.31
C. 192.168.200.63
D. 192.168.200.127
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 175
On the LAN to which P4S-R is connected, how many hosts can have IP addresses (Including the address on the P4S-R FastEthernet interface)?
A. 6
B. 14
C. 62
D. 126
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 176
Choose from the following two statements that describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
C. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
D. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 177
According to the following exhibit. A customer is not able to reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department have no problem. What most likely causes this problem?
A. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 178
Look at the following exhibit. P4SA should be able to telnet to switch P4S-SW by using router P4S-R for management purposes. To configure this connection successfully, what should be configured?
A. VLAN 1 on P4S-R
B. IP routing on P4S-SW
C. default gateway on P4S-SW
D. cross-over cable connecting P4S-SW and P4S-R
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 179
Look at the following exhibit. The network is designed to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are displayed for each segment. There are three problems with the network design. What are the problems? (Choose three.)
A. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
B. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
C. Interface fa0/3 has an incorrect IP address.
D. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 180
Two of the following describe private IP addresses. Which are them? (Choose two.)
A. a scheme to conserve public addresses
B. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
D. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 181
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which two things can you determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
C. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 182
Which of the following is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.156.0
C. 172.16.128.0
D. 172.16.159.0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 183
Tom works as a network technician for the P4S company. He is tasked to design a small network with redundancy according to the exhibit below which presents this design with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions could be drawn from this design?
A. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
B. This design will function as intended.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 184
The P4S company has required a 300-workstation expansion of its network. These workstations will be
installed in a single broadcast domain. However, each workstation needs to have its own
collision domain. The expansion will be as cost-effective as possible while still satisfying the requirements.
Which three options can correctly fulfill the request? (Choose three).
A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. seven 48-port hubs
C. seven 48-port switches
D. one router interface
Correct Answer: ACD
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QUESTION 159
Which two Cisco router functional planes are protected by Control Plane Policing (CoPP)? (Choose two.)
A. Data plane
B. Control plane
C. Service plane
D. Management plane
E. Hyper plane
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
QoS preclassification is a term used to describe what Cisco IOS feature?
A. AutoQoS
B. Modular QoS Command-Line Interface
C. QoS for VPNs
D. AutoSecure
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 161
Question: 161
What are two steps to define a QoS policy? (Choose two.)
A. Set a minimum bandwidth guarantee.
B. Increase bandwidth.
C. Determine a specific transfer rate.
D. Establish timers.
E. Configure CBWFQ for best-effort traffic.
F. Set a maximum bandwidth limit.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Using the SDM output from the Edit QoS Policy Tab in the Quality of Service Tasks under the Configure
button, answer the following questions:
Case Study# 1 (Questions)
Question:1
Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the Central from the IP Phone
on the local network?
A. 46 (ef)
B. 48 (vs6)
C. 50
D. 56 (cs7)
E. 70
Answer: A
Question: 2 Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the IP Phone on the local network from the Central site?
A. 46 (ef)
B. 48 (cs6)
C. 50
D. 56 (cs7)
E. 70 Answer: A
Question: 3 Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by the SDM wizard for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
Question: 4 During periods of congestion which queuing method will be applied to outbound traffic on the Serial0/3/0 interface?
A. Low Latency Queuing
B. Class-based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Weighted Round Robin
D. Round Robin
E. No queuing is applied to outbound traffic on this interface. Answer: A
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Scenario:
Law Solutions, Inc. is a large, worldwide law firm. Using the AutoQoS feature of IOS, the company recently
implemented QoS policies at one of their Branch locations. As a recent addition to the network engineering
team, you have been tasked with documenting the active QoS configuration at the branch router.
Additionally, the firm is experiencing poor video quality with newly installed video-conferencing equipment.
The video problems at the branch location seem to occur only during peak hours when some network
congestion is expected.
Output:
Topology
Using the show run output of the branch router, answer the following questions:
Case Study# 2 (Questions)
Question: 1
Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to video traffic destined for the Central site from the video
equipment on the local network?
A. 8 (cs1)
B. 10 (af11)
C. 18 (af21)
D. 24 (cs3)
E. 46 (ef)
F. no value
Answer: E
Question: 2 Which two statements most accurately identify what has caused the occasional poor video quality experienced by the Law Solutions, Inc.? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient bandwidth is creating a bottleneck transiting from the FastEthernet0/0 to the Serial0/3/0 interface.
B. Auto-Discovery did not have an opportunity to detect the video traffic.
C. AutoQoS was implemented on the incorrect interface
D. A policy matching DSCP value 46 (ef) was not applied on the outbound interface.
Answer: B, D
Question: 3 Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by Auto QoS for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
Question: 4 During periods of congestion, how has AutoQoS configured the router to facilitate outbound video traffic on the Serial0/3/0 interface?
A. Video traffic will be associated with the priority queue by using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
B. Video traffic will be associated with the AutoQoS-Signaling-Se0/3/0 class and its related policy through use of the H.323 protocol.
C. Video traffic will only be queued on the local FastEthernet0/0 interface using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
D. Video traffic will be associated with the “class-default” and use WFQ.
Answer: D
Question: 5
Network topology exhibit:
You are a network technician at PassGuide.com, examine the exhibit carefully. You need to finalize the
configuration of router PassGuide-R in this scenario. In particular you should decide which interface types
can be used for connecting router PassGuide-R to the phone and fax respective ely.
(Choose two.)
A. Connect the analog phone to an FXS port.
B. Connect the fax to an FXS port.
C. Connect the fax to an FXO port.
D. Connect the analog phone to an FXO port.
Answer: A, B
Question:164 Scenario: Ferrous Plastics,Inc.is a medium sized company,with two locations connected through a serial WAN link.The WAN routers should be configured to only see NBAR to classify traffic interface Fa0/1 prior to using low latency queuing on the outgoing interface s0/1/0.Recently configuration changes were made to the inter-connecting routers WAN-R1 and WAN-R2.The company is now experiencing QoS related problems which they believe are associated with these changes. Router WAN-R2 is not marking traffic correctly on Fa0/1 based on NBAR classification.Which of the following is correct?
Topology:
Case Study# 3 (Questions)
Questions: 1 Router WAN-R2 is not marking traffic correctly on Fa0/1 based on NBAR classification.Which of the following is correct?
A. Protocol discovery is applied to the incorrect interface.
B. CEF is not configured.
C. The service-policy is applied in the wrong direction.
D. The service-policy configured on interface Fa0/1 should be policy.
Answer: D
Question: 2 The network administrator has asked how FTP traffic is being classified on router WAN R1.Which of the following is correct?
A. FTP traffic is marked correctly,but no other active protocols are marked correctly.
B. FTP traffic is marked correctly based on NBAR classification.
C. FTP traffic is marked correctly,but is not using NBAR for classification.
D. FTP traffic is not marked correctly based on NBAR classification as protocol discovery is applied to the incorrect interface.
Answer: C
Question: 3
On router WAN-R1,which protocol is being marked as af21?
A. CITRIX
B. Exchange
C. FTP D. HTTP
E. SQLNET
Answer: E
Question: 4
On rouoter WAN-R1,which protocol is being classified as mission critical?
A. CITRIX
B. Exchange
C. FTP
D. HTTP
E. SQLNET
Answer: A
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Question: 165 Which 802.1x Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) type supports authentication using digital certificates?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. LEAP
D. WPA
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which three configuration tasks are required to successfully deploy NBAR to recognize TCP and UDP stateful protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Over leased lines, use the multilink ppp command to reduce latency and jitter, and to create Distributed Link Fragmentation and interleaving.
B. Use the service-policy command to attach a traffic flow to an interface on the router.
C. Use the ip rsvp bandwidth command to set a strict upper limit on the bandwidth NBAR uses, and to guarantee admission of any flows.
D. Use the policy-map command to define one or more QoS policies (such as shaping, policing, and so on) to apply to traffic defined by a class map.
E. Use the random-detect dscp command to modify the default minimum and maximum thresholds for the DSCP value.
F. Use the class-map command to define one or more traffic classes by specifying the criteria by which traffic is classified.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which two voice-gateway, analog-interface statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A router can use a Foreign Exchange Office (FXO) interface to connect to a PSTN.
B. A router can use a Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) interface to connect to a PBX.
C. An analog tax machine can connect to a Foreign Exchange Office (FXO) interface.
D. An analog telephone can connect to a Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) interface.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Voice activity detection (VAD) suppresses the transmission of silence patterns. On average, and assuming that a link carries at least 24 calls, what percentage of total bandwidth could VAD save?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 25
D. 35
E. 45
F. 55
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Which two steps are executed in the deployment of Cisco AutoQos for Eeterprise?(Choose two.)
A. The customer uses SNMP statistics to create the policy.
B. QoS policy templates are generated and installed on the interface.
C. RTP is used to generate the policy.
D. LLQ, cRTP, and LFI are used to automatically discover the policy.
E. The auto-generated policy is manually optimized before implementation.
F. Auto-discovery is used to determine what traffic is on the interface.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 169
A GRE tunnel is configured between a local and a remote site. Where should the service policy be applied to classify packets based on the pretunnel header?
A. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy and use the qos pre-classify command.
B. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy but do not use the qos pre- classify command.
C. Apply the service policy on the physical interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
D. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
E. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface and use the qos pre-classify command.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 170
Which three statements about classification marking of traffic at Layer 2 are true? (Choose three.)
A. A Frame Relay header includes a 1-bit discard eligible (DE) bit to provide the class of service (CoS).
B. An ATM header includes a 1-bit DE field to provide the CoS.
C. An MPLS EXP field is inserted in the Layer 3 IP precedence field to identify the CoS.
D. The CoS field only exists inside Ethernet frames when 802.1Q or Inter-Switch Link (ISL) trunking is used.
E. In the IEEE 802.Ip standard, three bits are used to identify the user priority bits for the CoS.
F. In the IEEE 802.lq standard, six bits are used to identify the user priority bits for the CoS.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 171
Which functionality in the Cisco IDS software will enable a router to permanently act as a call agent for IP phones?
A. Cisco CallManage
B. Cisco CallManager Express (CME)
C. Cisco CallManager Gateway (CMG)
D. Cisco CallManager Voice Gateway (CMVG)
E. Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP)
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 172
What is true about Quality of Service (QoS) for VPNs?
A. QoS preclassification is only supported on generic routing encapsulation (GRE) and IPsec VPNs.
B. QoS preclassification is not required in Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP), Layer 2 Forwarding (L2F), and Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) VPNs.
C. QoS preclassification is supported on IPsec AH VPNs, but not on IPsec ESP VPNs.
D. The QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS preclassification) is designed for VPN transport interfaces.
E. With IPsec tunnel mode, the type of service (ToS) byte value is copied automatically from the original IP header to the tunnel header.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 173
Which three traffic descriptors are typically used as QoS markings for packets or frames entering the network? (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. cos
C. DSCP
D. IP precedence
E. destination address
F. input interface
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 174
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the configuration an example of?
A. enabling modular QoS over Frame Relay
B. enabling Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
C. enabling distributed compressed Transmission Control Protocol
D. enabling latency and jitter reduction for Transmission Control traffic
E. enabling TCP header compression
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
Which traffic descriptor is used for marking?
A. weighted RED (WRED) orange or green labels
B. modular QoS CU (MQC) application layer tags
C. Deficit Round Robin (DRR) precedence bits
D. header compression tags
E. MPLS experimental bits
F. FIFO Layer 2 descriptor labels (L2DL)
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Refer to the exhibit.
The auto discovery QoS command was configured on this interface 24 hours prior to the above configuration. Which statement is true about the configuration?
A. An IP address is needed on interface serial 1/2
B. The auto discovery qos command should be configured on the subinterface.
C. A generated AutoQoS policy has been applied to serial 1/2.
D. The collection of data has stopped.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Refer to the exhibit.
On the basis of the configuration that is provided,which statement is true?
A. The Auto QoS policies will be attached to the interface.
B. Data about the network traffic will be collected via the use of NBAR-based protocol discovery,and the traffic on the network will be analyzed.
C. The class maps and policy maps will be created and installed on the basis of the information that is collected during the autodiscovery phase.
D. Templates will be created that will be used to create policy maps and class maps to configuer the QoS features on the network.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Cisco provides two enhancements to 802.11 security which protect a WEP key from exploits. Which two technologies provide these security enhancements? (Choose two.)
A. 802.lx
B. Cisco Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (CKIP)
C. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP- FAST)
D. Cisco Message Integrity Check (CMIC)
E. One-Time Passwords (OTP)
F. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 179
What is the maximum number of access points that can be supported from a single Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) console?
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 2000
D. 2500
E. 3000
F. 3500
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 180
1) Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the Central from the IP Phone on the local network?
A. 46 (ef)
B. 4B(vs6)
C. 50
D. 56(cs7)
E. 70
Answer: A
2) Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the IP Phone on the local network from the Central site?
A. 46 (ef]
B. 48(cs6)
C. 5
D. 56(cs7)
E. 70
Answer: B
3) Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by the SDM wizard for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
4) During periods of congestion which queuing method will be applied to outbound traffic on the Serial O/3/0 interface?
A. Low Latency Queuing
B. Class-based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Weighted Round Robin
D. Round Robin
E. No queuing is applied to outbound traffic on this interface.
Answer: A
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
1)
2) Which two statements most accurately identify what has caused the occasional poor video quality experienced by the Law Solutions, Inc.? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient bandwidth is creating a bottleneck transiting from the FastEthernetG/O to the Serial O/3/0 interface.
B. Auto-Discovery did not have an opportunity to detect the video traffic.
C. AutoQoS was implemented an the incorrect interface
D. A policy matching DSCP value 46 (ef) was not applied on the outbound interface.
Answer: BD
3) Which QoS model has been implimented on the Branch router by Auto QoS for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
4) During periods of congestion, haw has AutoQoS configured the router to facilitate outbound video traffic on the SerialO/3/0 interface?
A. Video traffic will be associated with the priority queue by using a DSCP value of 46 (ef}.
B. Video traffic will be associated with the AutoQaS-Signaling-SeO/3/0 class and its related policy through use of the H.323 protocol.
C. Video traffic will only be queued on the local FastEthernetO/0 interface using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
D. Video traffic will be associated with the “class-default” and use WFQ.
Answer: D
A.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 176
Which policy map configuration command can be used to mitigate the problem of TCP global synchronization?
A. random-detect
B. queue-limit 10
C. compression header ip tcp
D. priority 24
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Given the above output, what is the current CIR for this VC?
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 8000
D. 100000
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Which command associates a map class with an interface or subinterface when configuring Frame Relay traffic shaping?
A. frame-relay map
B. frame-relay class
C. map-class frame-relay
D. frame-relay map-class
E. map frame-relay class
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Given the partial configuration, what function does the command dialer watch-group 8 have?
A. Any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, will cause interface BRI0 to dial RouterB
B. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table and there is no other valid route, dialer watch then initiates a call to RouterB.
C. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table, regardless of whether there is another valid route pointing to an interface other than interface BRI0, dialer watch initiates the call to RouterB
D. When the load threshold is met and any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, is destined for 172.22.53.0/24 network, the dialer watch will initiate the call to RouterB.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial configuration shown, how is this router configured?
A. as a PPPoA client
B. as a PPPoE client
C. as an ISDN PRI group interface
D. as an ISDN BRI group interface
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
A network administrator needs to provide telecommuters with access to corporate network services. For security reasons, the asynchronous interface should be configured to provide an in-band PPP connection only and not allow an EXEC connection. What must the administrator configure to accomplish this?
A. Router(config-if)# async mode dedicated
B. Router(config-if)# async mode interactive
C. Router(config-if)# async dynamic address
D. Router(config-line)# autoselect ppp during-login
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Examine the configuration.
When using CBWFQ, what will happen to UDP packets if their destination queue is full?
A. The router will send a BECN message to the host.
B. The packet will be sent to the class-default queue.
C. The host will resend the packet if it does not receive an ACK message
D. Tail dropping will occur.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Which three conditions would suggest using weighted random early detection as an alternative to tail drops when configuring class-based weighted fair queuing? (Choose three.)
A. Your network is designed for a more passive rather than active strategy in discarding packets.
B. You want to enable TCP global synchronization to avoid congestion.
C. You would like to use IP Precedence or DSCP values to make early dropping decisions.
D. The bulk of your traffic is TCP traffic.
E. You would like a chance to decide which packets will be dropped when it becomes necessary.
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Refer to the show ip route output of the exhibit. RIP is configured on R1, R2, and R3. All three routers are able to ping each other. However, R2 is not receiving the routes advertised by R3. What can be done to resolve this problem?
A. Configure frame-relay inverse-arp on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
B. Configure no frame-relay inverse-arp on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
C. Configure ip slit-horizon on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
D. Configure no ip slit-horizon on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
E. Configure ip slit-horizon on R2 and the R3 serial0 interfaces.
F. Configure no ip slit-horizon on R2 and the R3 serial0 interfaces.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
When a PPP connection is being established, which three configuration features are negotiated through the LCP? (Choose three.)
A. callback
B. multilink
C. encryption
D. compression
E. protocol multiplexing
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Identify two characteristics of the RADIUS protocol when associated with AAA? (Choose two.)
A. uses TCP
B. fully encrypts the body of the packet
C. based upon open standards
D. allows router commands to be grouped on a per-user or per-group basis
E. combines the functions of authorization and authentication
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which statement best describes the following configuration ?
policy-map-Policy1 class Class1 priority 10 class Class2 bandwidth 20 queue-limit 45 class Class3 bandwidth 30 random-detect A. WRED is used in Class1 and Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be dropped.
B. WRED is used in Class1 and Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be best effort by a default class
C. WRED is used in Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be dropped
D. WRED is used in Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be handled by the class-default class
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
Given the above configuration commands, when will additional B channels be added to the multilink PPP bundle?
A. when the total load of outbound traffic reaches 128 k
B. when the total load of inbound traffic reaches 128 k
C. when the maximum calculated load as the larger of the outbound and inbound loads reaches 128 k
D. when the total load of inbound traffic reaches 50 percent of bandwidth utilization
E. when the total load of outbound traffic reaches 50 percent of bandwidth utilization
F. when the load of the inbound or outbound traffic reaches 50% utilization
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
Which two encapsulation methods require that an 827 ADSL router be configured with a PPP username and CHAP password? (Choose two.)
A. PPPoE with the 827 configured as a bridge
B. PPPoE with the 827 configured as the PPPoE client
C. PPPoA
D. RFC 1483 Bridged with the 827 configured as the PPPoE client
E. RFC 1483 Bridged with the 827 configured as a bridge
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Which command will allow RTA to test its legacy DDR configuration without having any dialer map statements configured?
A. isdn test call interface bri 0 5551234 speed 56
B. ping 10.10.10.2
C. debug isdn q931
D. debug isdn q921
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
In Frame Relay traffic shaping, what does the term committed burst (Bc) refer to?
A. the rate, in bits per second, at which the Frame Relay switch agrees to transfer data
B. the maximum number of bits that the switch agrees to transfer during any Tc
C. the maximum number of uncommitted bits that the Frame Relay switch attempts to transfer beyond the CIR for the first time interval only
D. the number of bits, during any Tc, over the CIR that can be transmitted but will be marked DE
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
Given the partial configuration, what function does the command dialer watch-group 8 have?
A. Any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, will cause interface BRI0 to dial RouterB
B. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table and there is no other valid route, dialer watch then initiates a call to RouterB.
C. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table, regardless of whether there is another valid route pointing to an interface other than interface BRI0, dialer watch initiates the call to RouterB.
D. When the load threshold is met and any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, is destined for 172.22.53.0/24 network, the dialer watch will initiate the call to RouterB.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles.
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from noise or other signals.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output generated by the debug dialer command, what solution can be configured on R1 to correct the problem?
A. Configure a dialer-list in global configuration mode.
B. Configure the dialer-group command on the dialer interface.
C. Configure the dialer-group command on the BRI0 physical interface.
D. Configure the dialer pool command on the dialer interface.
E. Configure the dialer pool-member command on the dialer interface.
F. Configure a local username entry for R2.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
In the exhibit, R1 is connected over a Frame Relay cloud to R2 and a non-Cisco device, R3. What must be configured on the R1 S0 interface to achieve full connectivity with the spoke routers?
A. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
B. encapsulation frame-relay ietf frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
C. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast ietf frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
D. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast ietf
E. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast cisco frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Given the output shown in the exhibit, which three statements are true about PPP compression? (Choose three.)
A. The interface is configured with TCP header compression.
B. The interface is configured with STAC compression.
C. The interface is configured with Predictor compression.
D. The actual data throughput of the router is less than what it would be if compression were not being applied.
E. The total amount of data to be transmitted before applying compression is 160,000.
F. The total amount of data to be transmitted after applying compression is 40,000.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. Which policy-map configuration will best ensure that packets classified as voice are not dropped in favor of other network traffic?
A. POLICY-1
B. POLICY-2
C. POLICY-3
D. POLICY-4
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Which type of remote-user VPN has users dial in to an Internet service provider (ISP) where an ISP-owned device establishes a secure tunnel to the users’ enterprise network?
A. client initiated VPN
B. network access server (NAS) initiated VPN
C. intranet VPN
D. extranet VPN
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
Which set of commands will accomplish the tasks below?
-Make bri0/0 a backup interface to serial0/0.
–
Activate the backup interface 5 seconds after the primary link fails and deactivate the backup interface 10 seconds after the primary link is re-established.
A.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10
B.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10
C.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5
D.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 201
When a cable modem is being provisioned to operate with a host system for Internet services, which two options must occur before Layer 1 and 2 connectivity can occur? (Choose two.)
A. The cable modem must request an IP address and core configuration information from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server
B. The cable modem powering up must scan and lock on the RF data channel in the downstream path.
C. The modem must request a DOCSIS configuration file from a TFTP server.
D. The cable modem must register with the CMTS.
E. The modem must read specific maintenance messages in the downstream path.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 202
From the CBWFQ configuration referenced in the display, what is the queue-limit for class2?
A. no limit
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
E. 128
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 131
When QoS levels in the Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) are entered, which profile names are used to identify the access categories?
A. platinum, gold, silver, and bronze
B. voice, gold, silver, and bronze
C. low delay, network critical, business, best effort
D. voice, video, background gold, background silver, and best effort
E. voice, video, best effort, and background F. voice, video, best effort, background, and scavenger
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct about the implementation of QoS across the WANs that are shown? (Choose two.)
A. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN A.
B. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN A.
C. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN A.
D. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN B
E. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN B.
F. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN B.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the diagram has contracted with a service provider for the QoS levels that are shown. Which statement is correct about the QoS requirements for the campus and remote branch?
A. Because adequate levels of service are provided across the WAN, campus and remote branch QoS will not be required.
B. The enterprise campus can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
C. The enterprise remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
D. The enterprise campus plus the remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which of the items stated is typically the most expensive method of improving QoS across WAN links?
A. advanced queuing
B. data compression
C. header compression
D. increasing link capacity
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which three functions can an Integrated Services Router perform in a VoIP network? (Choose three.)
A. voice stream mixing for conference calling
B. voice gateway
C. call admission control
D. analog or digital phone interfaces
E. XML application services
F. large scale dial plan application
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Using the fewest commands possible, drag the commands on the left to the blanks on the right to configure and apply a QoS policy that guarantees that voice packets receive 20 percent of the bandwidth on the S0/1/0 interface.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
To configure Control Plan Policing(CoPP) to deny Telnet access only from 10.1.1.1, drag the commands on the left to the boxes on the right and place the commands in the proper order.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Drag each descriptor on the left to the QoS model on the right to which the descriptor applies. Not all descriptors apply.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
Drag the wireless 802.1e priority level groupings on the left to the appropriate Wi-Fi Multimedia(WMM) access categories on the right.(Not all groupings will be used) Answer
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Drag each term on the left to its time definition on the right. There will be one term unused.
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Add a new wireless LAN controller (WLC) to the WCS wireless management server. From the left, drag each procedure to its step sequence on the right.
Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Drag each wireless EAP authentication protocol above to its definition below.
Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Drag each WLSE feature above to its benefit below.
Answer: A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Drag Drop Drag the steps required to convert compressed digital signals to analog signals to their correct order on the right.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 145
Exhibit:
Answer:
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Hotspot Answer:
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Questions:162 Topology
QUESTION 147
Which three characteristics of the traffic flow are taken into consideration when the QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS pre-classify) provides packet classification and applies appropriate QoS service on tunnel interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. IP precedence bits
B. DSCP bits
C. Original port numbers
D. DE bits
E. Source IP address
F. Destination IP address
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which two statements about Cisco AutoQoS are true? (Choose two.)
A. A QoS service policy must already be enabled on the interface before Cisco AutoQoS can be enabled.
B. Any interface at or below 1.54 Mbps is classified as a low-speed interface.
C. AutoQoS uses Cisco network-based application recognition (NBAR) to identify various applications and traffic types
D. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC.
E. Cisco NBAR is a prerequisite for CEF.
F. On a serial interface, before AutoQoS is enabled, the clock rate command must be used to specify a bandwidth other than the default 1.54Mbps.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 149
When a router converts analog signals to digital signals as part of the VoIP process, it performs
four steps.
Which set of steps contains the steps in their correct sequence?
A. encoding optional compression quantization sampling
B. encoding quantization optional compression sampling
C. optional compression encoding sampling quantization
D. optional compression sampling encoding quantization
E. sampling quantization encoding optional compression
F. sampling quantization optional compression encoding
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Question: 150
What are three staid Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) types? (Choose three.)
A. LEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-AES
E. WEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
What are three benefits of the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)? (Choose three.)
A. The decentralized nature of WLSE helps reduce the time and resources that are required to manage a large number of WLAN devices.
B. WLSE helps simplify large-scale deployments by providing automatic configuration of new APs.
C. WLSE minimizes security vulnerabilities by providing security policy misconfiguration alerts and rogue AP detection.
D. WLSE provides AP utilization and client association reports, features which help with capacity planning.
E. WLSE can respond to required changes that are requested by APs.
F. WLSE increases productivity through customization with three possible levels of managemen lightweight, extended, and advanced.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
What is link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI)?
A. LFI is a QoS mechanism that allots bandwidth and enables the differentiation of traffic according to a policy.
B. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
C. LFI is a Layer 3 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
D. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which large frames are broken into small, equal-sized fragments and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
E. LEI is a Layer 2 technique in which smaller fragments are combined into large, equal-sized frames, and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Which two statements about packet marking at the data link layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. Through the use of DE markings, Frame Relay QoS supports up to 10 classes of service.
B. Frames maintain their class of service (CoS) markings when transiting a non-802.1p link.
C. IEEE 802.1p supports up to 10 class of service (CoS) markings.
D. In an 802.1q frame, the 3-bit 802.1p priority field is used to identify the class of service (CoS) priority.
E. The 802.1p CoS markings are preserved through the LAN, but are not maintained end to end.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which two statements are true about traffic shaping and traffic policing? (Choose two.)
A. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing cause retransmissions of connection-oriented protocols such as TCP.
B. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing support the marking and re-marking of traffic.
C. The effects of traffic shaping and traffic policing when configured on a router are applied to outgoing traffic.
D. Traffic shaping queues excess traffic whereas traffic policing discards excess traffic.
E. Traffic shaping allows the traffic to exceed the bit rate whereas traffic policing prevents the traffic from exceeding the bit rate.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which two queuing methods will allow a percentage of the available bandwidth to be allocated to each queue? (Choose two.)
A. First-in, first-out queuing (FIFO)
B. Priority queuing (PQ)
C. Custom queuing (CQ)
D. Weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
E. Class-based WFQ (CBWFQ)
F. Low latency queuing (LLQ)
Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Which classification tool can be used to classify traffic based on the HTTP URL?
A. Class-based policing
B. Policy-based routing (PBR)
C. Committed access rate (CAR)
D. Network-based application recognition (NBAR)
E. Dial peers
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
What three types of interfaces do voice gateways use to connect to analog interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. E and M
B. E1 CCS
C. FXS
D. FXO
E. serial
F. T1 CAS
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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