Exam A
QUESTION 1
According to the following exhibit, company 1 contains two autonomous systems (AS1 and AS2) connected via ISP A, which has an AS number of 100. Router B and Router C are advertising an aggregate of X.X.X.0/23 so that AS1 is able to reach the two server farms. The two links from AS2 are not being used efficiently.
How can AS2 use both of the links coming into it?
Exhibit:
A. advertise each X.X.X.0/24 independently from Router B and Router C
B. create another link between Router A in AS1 and ISP A
C. configure iBGP between Router B and Router C to load-share traffic once it reaches AS2
D. configure two static routes in Router A for X.X.X.0/23 pointing to Router B and Router C
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Study the topology provided in this exhibit. Which configuration change will maximize the efficiency of both the routing design and data forwarding plane?
Exhibit: A. Configure Router B with a static route for the aggregate to Null0
B. Configure Router A to advertise 10.0.0.0/8 instead of the default route to Router B
C. Configure Router B to advertise the more specific prefixes in addition to the aggregate
D. Configure Router B to advertise the more specific prefixes instead of the aggregate
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two reasons are valid for aggregating routing information within a network? (Choose two)
A. To reduce the amount of information any specific Router within the network must store and process
B. To isolate the impact of DDoS attacks
C. To improve optimal routing within the network
D. To reduce the impact of topology changes
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4
Which three statements are correct about OSPF route summarization? (Choose three.)
A. Route summarization can lead to a more stable network.
B. A flat addressing scheme is required in order to summarize OSPF routes.
C. OSPF type 5 external routes can be summarized only at the ASBRs.
D. OSPF internal routes can be summarized only at the ABRs.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 5
EIGRP performs route summarization at the interface level with the “ip summary-address” command. Which three statements correctly describe EIGRP route summarization? (Choose three)
A. By default, EIGRP automatically summarizes internal routes, but only each time a major network boundary is crossed.
B. EIGRP route summarization can reduce the query diameter to help prevent SIA problems.
C. Summary routes are inserted in the routing table with a next hop of null 0 and a high administrative distance, to prevent black holing of traffic.
D. The metric for each summarized route is inherited from the lowest metric of the component routes.
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 6
Why build link state flooding domain boundaries in large-scale networks running OSPF or IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. Doing so provides logical break points at which to troubleshoot individual parts of the network, rather than trying to troubleshoot the whole network at once.
B. Doing so limits the extent of SPF and allows the use of PRC for some best path calculations.
C. Flooding domain borders block the transmission of external routing information in the network, which improves scaling and convergence times.
D. Network administrators can quickly find specific destinations when detailed link state information is sorted by flooding domain in the link state database.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
Which two options are true about the impact flooding domain boundaries have when built in OSPF? (Choose two)
A. They decrease convergence time by reducing the complexity and size of the shortest path trees in the individual areas.
B. They isolate network failures within a domain.
C. They decrease convergence time by automatically summarizing reachability information transmitted through the network, thereby decreasing the number of routes that must be installed in each Router’s routing table.
D. They increase convergence time by adding the time required to run two full Shortest Path First computations on the area border Routers.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
Which two reasons are correct about building a flooding domain boundary in a link-state network? (Choose two.)
A. To provide an administrative boundary between portions of the network
B. To segregate complex and rapidly changing portions of the network from one another
C. To aggregate reachability information
D. To increase the size of the Shortest Path First tree
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
What are three reasons to summarize link state topology information? (Choose three)
A. To reduce the amount of routing information being advertised
B. To create boundaries for containing potential network changes and instabilities
C. To permit traffic engineering between areas
D. To hide detailed topology information
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?
A. Redundant servers at the access level
B. High port densities at the access level
C. Modular block design at the access level
D. Up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
There are two hub-and-spoke networks in the following exhibit. Each has about 60 branches spread over a wide area. Connect Routers E and F to two different frame providers. Problems with one provider have impacted branches connected to the other provider and reaching the data center.
Which is the best place to build flooding domain boundaries to isolate these WAN issues?
Exhibit:
A. At Routers D, E, and F, because this will provide good route aggregation and also separate complex topologies within the network from one another
B. At Routers B and C, because this will provide a good balance between separating the complex topologies behind Routers D, E, and F from the core and good route aggregation
C. At Routers B and F, because this will provide good route aggregation and prevent routing along suboptimal paths in the case of link failure
D. At Router A, because this will provide optimal route aggregation and prevent suboptimal routing in the case of link failure
Correct Answer: A
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the components below. Which data center design layer contains these components?
–
Cisco UCS 6100 Fabric Interconnect
–
Cisco Nexus 1000V
–
Cisco UCS 5100 Blade Chassis
A.
the Virtualization layer
B.
the Management layer
C.
the Compute layer
D.
the Services layer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which two options describe virtualized multi-tenancy? (Choose two.)
A. dedicated infrastructure for each tenant
B. shares a common infrastructure between tenants
C. agreement between tenants with rules about sharing DC resources
D. tenants using virtualization technologies to separate from each other
E. data centers using virtualization technologies to separate tenants
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3
Which three statements best describe the Cisco Unified Fabric solution for the data center? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches provide the capability to consolidate LAN and SAN traffic on a unified fabric over Ethernet.
B. The unified fabric is delivered through technologies such as FCoE and DCB.
C. FCoE allows transmission of Fibre Channel traffic over Ethernet by encapsulating native Fibre Channel frames into GRE and transporting them across the Ethernet network.
D. FCoE allows consolidating Fibre Channel traffic from multiple VSANs into the same Ethernet “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2 Cisco 351-080 Exam VLAN to be transported across the fabric. PFC ensures lossless transport of the FC traffic over Ethernet.
E. PFC allows user priorities to be defined on a single physical link, each of which can have its own logical lane that can be paused independently of the others.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 4
Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches are best positioned at which layer?
A. access layer, as an end-of-row switch for FCIP and iSCSI aggregation
B. distribution layer, with multiples of 10 Gb/s ports
C. access layer, as a top-of-rack switch for server I/O consolidation with FCoE
D. aggregation layer, supporting virtual security and application services
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which component of the Cisco Nexus 7010 architecture provides out-of-band management, an always-on microprocessor for disaster recovery, and remote restart capabilities?
A. central arbiter
B. Connectivity Management Processor
C. supervisor engine
D. dedicated service modules
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which two Cisco devices form the virtual access layer in the Cisco Data Center Architecture? (Choose two.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 351-080 Exam
A. Cisco Nexus 7000
B. Cisco Nexus 5000
C. Cisco Nexus 1010
D. Cisco Nexus 2000
E. Cisco Nexus 1000V
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Which three components does a data center network layer have? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco GSR
B. Cisco CRS-1
C. Cisco Nexus 7000
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. Cisco Nexus 2000
F. Cisco ASR 9000
G. Cisco Nexus 5000
Correct Answer: CEG
QUESTION 8
On a 32-port 10 Gigabit Ethernet module, each set of four ports can handle 10 Gb/s of bandwidth. What can you use the rate-mode parameter for?
A. to limit the speed on any port
B. to dedicate all the group bandwidth to the first port
C. to dedicate all the group bandwidth to the last port
D. to limit the speed on all ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4 Cisco 351-080 Exam On a Cisco Nexus 7000, a CoPP can be applied separately to each VDC.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
The persistent storage service (PSS) is used by which function?
A. storage of log files across reloads of the system
B. storage of license files in the backplane EEPROM
C. storage of the process-specific state for stateful process recovery
D. storage of core dump files from crashed processes
Correct Answer: C
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing. Which function is of NetFlow?
A. monitor configuration changes
B. monitor CPU utilization
C. monitor link utilization
D. generate traps for failure conditions
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
The P4S company is deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites needn??t to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a concern). How to configure OSPF for this topology in order to minimize the additional routing information injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum?
A. Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a neighbor.
B. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router.
C. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers.
D. Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF point-to-point.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
What is high availability?
A. redundant infrastructure
B. clustering of computer systems
C. reduced MTBF
D. continuous operation of computing systems
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What is the way that an OSPF ABR uses to prevent summary route information from being readvertised from an area into the network core (Area 0)?
A. It advertises only inter-area summaries to the backbone.
B. It uses poison reverse and split horizon.
C. It only sends locally originated summaries to the backbone.
D. It compares the area number on the summary LSA to the local area.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Connecting an IS-IS router to four links and redistributing 75 routes from RIP. How many LSPs will be originated by this router?
A. one LSP: containing the router information, internal routes, and external routes
B. six LSPs: one for each link, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
C. two LSPs: one containing router information and internal routes and one containing external routes
D. three LSPs: one containing all links, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
According to the network in this exhibit, traffic directed towards 10.1.5.1 arrives at P4S-R4. Which path will the traffic take from here?
A. It will take P4S-R2.
B. It will not take any path. P4S-R4 will drop the traffic.
C. It will take P4S-R3.
D. It will load share between P4S-R2 and P4S-R3.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You are the Cisco Network Designer in P4S. Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
The IGP next-hop reachability for a BGP route is lost but a default route is available. Assuming that BGP connectivity is maintained, what will happen to the BGP route?
A. It will be put in a hold-down state by BGP until the next hop has been updated.
B. It will be removed from the BGP table.
C. It will be considered a valid route.
D. It will be considered invalid for traffic forwarding.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the topology table at Router P4S-RC, you see only one path towards 10.1.1.0/24. Why Router P4S-RC only has one path in its topology table?
A. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to split horizon.
B. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC because Router P4S-RC is its feasible successor.
C. Router P4S-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC due to split horizon.
D. Router P4S-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router P4S-RC because Router P4S-RC is its feasible successor.
Correct Answer: C