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Exam A
QUESTION 1
The network operations center has received a call stating that Users in VLAN 107 are unable to access resources through R1. From the information contained in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. spanning tree is not enabled on VLAN 107
B. VTP is pruning VLAN 107
C. VLAN 107 does not exist on switch SA
D. VLAN 107 is not configured on the trunk
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
“VLAN allowed on trunk” Each trunk allows all VLANs by default. However, administrator can remove or add to the list by using the “switchport trunk allowed” command.
“VLANs allowed and active in management” To be active, a VLAN must be in this list.
“VLANs in spanning tree forwarding state and not pruned” This list is a subset of the “allowed and active” list but with any VTP-pruned VLANs removed.
All VLANs were configured except VLAN 101 so D is not correct. VLAN 107 exists in the “allowed and active” section so A and C are not correct, too. In the “forwarding state and not pruned” we dont see VLAN 107 so the administrator had wrongly configured this VLAN as pruned.
QUESTION 2
Study the diagram below carefully, which three statements are true? (Choose three)

A. DTP packets are sent from Switch SB.
B. DTP is not running on Switch SA.
C. A trunk link will be formed.
D. The native VLAN for Switch SB is VLAN 1.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is the Cisco-proprietary that actively attempts to negotiate a trunk link between two switches. If an interface is set to switchport mode dynamic desirable, it will actively attempt to convert the link into trunking mode. If the peer port is configured as switchport mode trunk, dynamic desirable, or dynamic auto mode, trunking is negotiated successfully -> C is correct.
SB is in “dynamic desirable” mode so it will send DTP packets to SA to negotiate a trunk link -> A is correct.
On an 802.1Q trunk, DTP packets are sent on the native VLAN. By default, it is VLAN 1 (notice that SAs native VLAN is 5) -> D is correct.
(Note: an 802.1Q trunks native VLAN is the only VLAN that has untagged frames)
Below is the switchport modes for easy reference:
Mode Function
Dynamic Auto Creates the trunk based on the DTP request from the neighboring switch.
Communicates to the neighboring switch via DTP that the interface would Dynamic like Desirable to become a trunk if the neighboring switch interface is able to become a trunk.
Automatically enables trunking regardless of the state of the neighboring Trunk switch and regardless of any DTP requests sent from the neighboring switch.
Trunking is not allowed on this port regardless of the state of the neighboring switch interface and regardless of any DTP requests sent from the Access neighboring switch.
Prevents the interface from generating DTP frames. This command can be used only when the interface switchport mode is access or trunk. You must Nonegotiate manually configure the neighboring interface as a trunk interface to establish a trunk link.
QUESTION 3
Regarding the exhibit and the partial configuration of switch SA and SB. STP is configured on all switches in the network. SB receives this error message on the console port:
00:06:34:
%CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/5 (not half duplex), with SA FastEthernet0/4 (half duplex), with TBA05071417(Cat6K-B) 0/4 (half duplex).

A.
The root port on switch P4S-SB will fall back to full-duplex mode.

B.
The interfaces between switches P4S-SA and P4S-SB will transition to a blocking state

C.
The root port on switch P4S-SA will automatically transition to full-duplex mode.

D.
Interface Fa0/6 on switch SB will transit to a forwarding state and create a bridging loop.
What would be the possible outcome of the problem?

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
From the output, we learned that the interfaces on two switches are operating in different duplex modes: Fa0/4 of SA in half-duplex mode & Fa0/5 of SB in full-duplex mode. In this case, because SB is operating in full duplex mode, it does not check the carrier sense before sending frames (CSMA/CD is not used in full-duplex mode). Therefore, SB can start to send frames even if SA is using the link and a collision will occur. The result of this is SA will wait a random time before attempting to transmit another frame. If B sends enough frames to A to make every frame sent from A (which includes the BPDUs) get dropped then SB can think it has lost root bridge (B does not receive BPDUs from A anymore). Therefore SB will unblock its Fa0/6 interface for transmitting and cause a bridging loop.
QUESTION 4
What is a characteristic of multi-VLAN access ports?
A. The port has to support STP PortFast.
B. The auxiliary VLAN is for data service and is identified by the PVID.
C. The port hardware is set as an 802.1Q trunk.
D. Both the voice service and data service use the same trust boundary.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The multi-VLAN port feature on the Catalyst 2900 XL/3500 XL switches allows for configuring a single port
in two or more VLANs. This feature allows users from different VLANs to access a server or router without
implementing InterVLAN routing capability. A multi-VLAN port performs normal switching functions in all its
assigned VLANs. VLAN traffic on the multi- VLAN port is not encapsulated as it is in trunking -> The port is
set as an 802.1Q trunk -> C is correct.

Note: The limitations of implementing multi-VLAN port features are listed below.

1) You cannot configure a multi-VLAN port when a trunk is configured on the switch. You must connect the
multi-VLAN port only to a router or server. The switch automatically transitions to VTP transparent mode
when the multi-VLAN port feature is enabled, making the VTP disabled.

2) The multi-VLAN port feature is supported only on the Catalyst 2900 XL/3500 XL series switches. This
feature is not supported on the Catalyst 4000/5000/6000 series or any other Cisco Catalyst switches.

The following example shows how to configure a port for multi-VLAN mode:
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode multi
The following example shows how to assign a multi-VLAN port already in multi mode to a range of VLANs:
Switch(config-if)# switchport multi vlan 5-10

QUESTION 5
The Company LAN switches are being configured to support the use of Dynamic VLANs. Which of the following are true of dynamic VLAN membership? (Choose two)
A. VLAN membership of a user always remains the same even when he/she is moved to another location.
B. VLAN membership of a user always changes when he/she is moved to another location.
C. Membership can be static or dynamic.
D. Membership can be static only.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Please read the explanation of
QUESTION 6
Static VLANs are being used on the Company network. What is true about static VLANs?
A. Devices use DHCP to request their VLAN.
B. Attached devices are unaware of any VLANs.
C. Devices are assigned to VLANs based on their MAC addresses,
D. Devices are in the same VLAN regardless of which port they attach to.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The VLAN tags are only added/removed at the switches. Attached devices are unaware of the existence of VLAN in the network.
QUESTION 7
The Company LAN is becoming saturated with broadcasts and multicast traffic. What could you do to help a network with many multicasts and broadcasts?
A. Creating smaller broadcast domains by implementing VLANs.
B. Separate nodes into different hubs.
C. Creating larger broadcast domains by implementing VLANs.
D. Separate nodes into different switches.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
By default, switches flood multicasts out all ports (same as broadcasts). However, many switches and routers can be configured to support multicast traffic, and that support is based on the network addresses uses by multicasts. By implementing VLANs, broadcasts and multicast traffic are only sent to ports in the same VLAN of the sending device.
QUESTION 8
You have configured a Cisco Catalyst switch to perform Layer 3 routing via an SVI and have assigned that interface to VLAN 20. To check the status of the SVI, you issue the show interfaces vlan 20 command at the CLI prompt. You see from the output display that the interface is in an “up/up” state. What must be true in an SVI configuration to bring the VLAN and line protocol up?
A. The port must be physically connected to another Layer 3 device.
B. At least one port in VLAN 20 must be active.
C. The Layer 3 routing protocol must be operational and receiving routing updates from neighboring peer devices.
D. Because this is a virtual interface, the operational status will always be in an “up/up” state.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To be “up/up,” a router VLAN interface must fulfill the following general conditions:
*
The VLAN exists and is “active” on the VLAN database of the switch.

*
The VLAN interface exists on the router and is not administratively down.

*
At least one Layer 2 (access port or trunk) port exists, has a link “up” on this VLAN and is in spanning-tree forwarding state on the VLAN.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12.2/37sg/configuration/guides/l3_i nt.html)
Lets see an example of configuring Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) to perform interVLAN routing between PC0 & PC1:

Configuration //Create two VLANs L3Switch(config)#vlan 10
L3Switch(config-vlan)#vlan 20
L3Switch(config-vlan)#exit L3Switch(config)#interface fa0/1 L3Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access L3Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 10
L3Switch(config)#interface fa0/2 L3Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access L3Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 L3Switch(config-if)#exit
//Enable IP routing on this Layer 3 Switch L3Switch(config)#ip routing //Create two SVIs for interVLAN routing: L3Switch(config)#interface vlan 10
L3Switch(config-if)#ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
L3Switch(config)#interface vlan 20 L3Switch(config-if)#ip address 20.0.0.1 255.255.255.0 On PC0, assign the IP address 10.0.0.2 255.255.255.0 and the default gateway: 10.0.0.1 On PC1, assign
the IP address 20.0.0.2 255.255.255.0 and the default gateway: 20.0.0.1 Now we can ping from PC0 to PC1: PC0>ping 20.0.0.2 Pinging 20.0.0.2 with 32 bytes of data: Reply from 20.0.0.2: bytes=32 time=40ms TTL=127
Reply from 20.0.0.2: bytes=32 time=40ms TTL=127 Reply from 20.0.0.2: bytes=32 time=40ms TTL=127 Reply from 20.0.0.2: bytes=32 time=40ms TTL=127
QUESTION 9
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two)
A. Ports in VLAN 5
B. Utilization
C. VLAN information on port 0/5
D. Filters
E. MTU and type
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The show vlan id vlan-id command display information about a particular VLAN. But notice that this command will also list trunk ports that allow this VLAN to run on. An example of the “show vlan id” command is shown below:

QUESTION 10
What are some virtues of implementing end-to-end VLANs? (Choose two)
A. End-to-end VLANs are easy to manage.
B. Users are grouped into VLANs independent of a physical location.
C. Each VLAN has a common set of security and resource requirements for all members.
D. Resources are restricted to a single location.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
There are two kinds of VLANs:

*
End-to-end VLANs: also called campuswide VLANs, span the entire switch fabric of a network. They are positioned to support maximum flexibility and mobility of end devices. Users can be assigned to VLANs regardless of their physical location. As a user moves around the campus, that users VLAN membership stays the same. End-to-end VLANs should group users according to common requirements. All users in a VLAN should have roughly the same traffic flow patterns

*
Local VLANs: based on geographic locations by demarcation at a hierarchical boundary (core, distribution, access)
(Reference: CCNP SWITCH 642-813 Official Certification Guide)
QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is normally created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Catalyst L2 fixed configuration switches that run Cisco IOS Software have only one configurable IP management interface, which by default is interface VLAN 1. Pure layer 2 switches can have only one interface VLAN up at the time. This is called the management VLAN (in IOS) or the sc0 interface (in CatOS). The main purpose of this interface is management (telnet, SNMP, etc). If the switch is a Layer 3 switch, you can configure multiple VLANs and route between them. An L3 switch can handle multiple IPs, so there is no specific management VLAN on the switch.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/products_tech_note09186a008010e9c a.shtml)
QUESTION 12
Two switches SA and SB are connected as shown below. Given the below partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose two)

A. VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down.
B. VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10.
C. VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
D. VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Lets assume that SA is the root bridge for all VLANs, it will make the explanation a bit clearer…
First we should understand what will happen if nothing is configured (use default values). Because we assumed that SA is the root bridge so all of its ports will forward. SB will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But how does SB select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from SA. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1.
A lower Root Bridge ID

2.
A lower path cost to the Root

3.
A lower Sending Bridge ID

4.
A lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by SA have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index). If using default values, the default port prioritys value is 32 or 128 (128 is much more popular today but 32 is also a default port prioritys value), so SB will compare port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/10, SB will select the port connected with Fa0/10 (of SA) as its root port and block the other port.

To change the default decision of selecting root port, we can change the port priority of each interface. The above picture is true for VLAN 1-5 because port Fa0/10 has a lower port-priority so the peer port will be chosen as the root port. For VLAN 6-10, port Fa0/12 has higher priority ID (lower port priority value) so SB will block its upper port.
For answer A “VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down” is not correct because if Fa0/10 goes down, SB will unblock its lower port therefore VLANs 1-5 will still operate.
For answer B “VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10 is not always correct because VLAN 6-10 can have a different port priority (of 32) according to the Ciscos link below.
Answer C is correct because VLAN 6-10 uses Fa0/12 link as it main path. Fa0/10 is the backup path and is only opened when port Fa0/12 fails.
Answer D is correct because this configuration provide load-balance traffic based on VLAN basis. VLANs 1-5 use Fa0/10 and VLANs 6-10 use Fa0/12 as their main paths.
Note: We can not assure the answer B is always correct so we should choose C and D if the question asks us to give only 2 choices).
Reference (and good resource, too):
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00800ae96a.shtml
QUESTION 13
You have just created a new VLAN on your network. What is one step that you should include in your VLAN based implementation and verification plan?
A. Verify that trunked links are configured to allow the VLAN traffic.
B. Verify that the switch is configured to allow for trunking on the switch ports.
C. Verify that each switch port has the correct IP address space assigned to it for the new VLAN.
D. Verify that different native VLANs exist between two switches for security purposes.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
A VLAN-based implementation and verification plan should include:
*
Verification that trunked links are configured to allow the newly created VLANs.

*
Verification that the SVI has already been created and that it shows up on all required switches using the show vlan command.
QUESTION 14
The network administrator needs to enable VTP pruning within the network. What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?
A. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
B. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
C. Enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
You have just created a new VLAN on your network for inter-VLAN routing. What is one step that you should include in your VLAN-based implementation and verification plan?
A. Verify that different native VLANs exist between two switches for security purposes.
B. Verify that the switch is configured to allow for trunking on the switch ports.
C. Verify that each switch port has the proper IP address space assigned to it for the new VLAN.
D. Verify that the VLAN virtual interface has been correctly created and enabled.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Under what circumstances should an administrator prefer local VLANs over end-to-end VLANs?
A. Eighty percent of traffic on the network is destined for Internet sites.
B. There are common sets of traffic filtering requirements for workgroups located in multiple buildings.
C. Eighty percent of a workgroups traffic is to the workgroups own local server.
D. Users are grouped into VLANs independent of physical location.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation End-to-end VLAN follows the 80/20 rule in which 80 percent of user traffic stays within the local workgroup, whereas 20 percent is destined for a remote resource in the campus network (like Internet…).
In contrast to end-to-end-VLAN, local VLAN follows the 20/80 rule: only 20 percent of traffic is local, whereas 80 percent is destined to a remote re-source across the core layer -> A is correct.
(Reference: CCNP SWITCH 642-813 Official Certification Guide)
QUESTION 17
You are assigning VLANs to the ports of switch R1. What VLAN number value is an assigned to the default VLAN?
A VLAN 1003
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN ON
C. VLAN A
D. VLAN 0
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is a characteristic of a static VLAN membership assignment?
A. VMPS server lookup is required
B. Easy to configure
C. Ease of adds, moves, and changes
D. Based on MAC address of the connected device
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
There are two types of VLAN membership assignment:
*
Static VLAN: switch ports are assigned to specific VLANs manually

*
Dynamic VLAN: switch automatically assigns the port to a VLAN using information from the user device like MAC address, IP address etc. When a device is connected to a switch port, the switch must, in effect, query a database to establish VLAN membership.
Static VLAN assignment provides a simple way to assign VLAN to a port while Dynamic VLANs allow a great deal of flexibility and mobility for end users but require more administrative overhead.
QUESTION 19
Which two statements are true about best practices in VLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing may be performed at all layers but is most commonly done at the core and distribution layers.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be local to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
First lets review main characteristics of three layers in a campus network:
* Access layer:

+
Low cost per switch port
+
High port density
+
Scalable uplinks to higher layers
+
User access functions such as VLAN membership, traffic and protocol filtering, and quality of service
(QoS)
+
Resiliency through multiple uplinks

* Distribution Layer:

+
Aggregation of multiple access-layer devices
+
High Layer 3 throughput for packet handling
+
Security and policy-based connectivity functions through access lists or packet filters + QoS features
+
Scalable and resilient high-speed links to the core and access layers

* Core layer:

+
Very high throughput at Layer 3
+
No costly or unnecessary packet manipulations (access lists, packet filtering) + Redundancy and
resilience for high availability
+
Advanced QoS functions
We can see at Distribution and Core layers, Layer 3 throughput (routing) is very high -> B is correct.

Nowadays, end-to-end VLANs are not recommended in an enterprise network, unless there is a good reason. In an end-to-end VLAN, broadcast traffic is carried over from one end of the network to the other, creating the possibility for a broadcast storm or Layer 2 bridging loop to spread across the whole extent of a VLAN. This can exhaust the bandwidth of distribution and core-layer links, as well as switch CPU resources. Now the storm or loop has disrupted users on the end-to-end VLAN, in addition to users on other VLANs that might be crossing the core.
When such a problem occurs, troubleshooting becomes more difficult. In other words, the risks of end-to-end VLANs outweigh the convenience and benefits.
From that we can infer VLAN traffic should be local to the switch -> D is correct.
(Reference: CCNP SWITCH 642-813 Official Certification Guide)
QUESTION 20

Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence would correct the problem?
A. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# no shut
B. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10
C. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
D. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# state active
E. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# no shut

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Cisco 642-813 Exam Certification Guide presents you with an organized test preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques.“Do I Know This Already?”quizzes open each chapter and allow you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section.Cisco 642-813 lists and Foundation Summary tables make referencing easy and give you a quick refresher whenever you need it.Challenging Cisco 642-813 review questions help you assess your knowledge and reinforce key concepts.Cisco 642-813 exercises help you think about exam objectives in real-world situations, thus increasing recall during exam time.

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Cisco 642-813 Questions, Sale Cisco 642-813 Certification Covers All Key PointsCisco 642-813 Questions, Sale Cisco 642-813 Certification Covers All Key Points

May 25, 2016 newcertskey 2:51 am

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which optional feature of an Ethernet switch disables a port on a point-to-point link if the port does not receive traffic while Layer 1 status is up?
A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Loop Guard
D. UDLD aggressive mode
E. Fast Link Pulse bursts
F. Link Control Word
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which three statements about routed ports on a multilayer switch are true? (Choose three.)
A. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces.
B. A routed port takes an IP address assignment.
C. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols.
D. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch.
E. A routed port is associated only with one VLAN.
F. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch.
Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which three statements about Dynamic ARP Inspection are true? (Choose three.)
A. It determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the DHCP snooping database.
B. It forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface without any checks.
C. It determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the CAM table.
D. It forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface after verifying and inspecting the packet against the Dynamic ARP Inspection table.
E. It intercepts all ARP packets on untrusted ports.
F. It is used to prevent against a DHCP snooping attack.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
A network administrator wants to configure 802.1x port-based authentication, however, the client workstation is not 802.1x compliant. What is the only supported authentication server that can be used?
A. TACACS with LEAP extensions
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with EAP extensions
D. LDAP “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 4 Cisco 642-813 Exam
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Why are users from VLAN 100 unable to ping users on VLAN 200?

A. Encapsulation on the switch is wrong.
B. Trunking needs to be enabled on Fa0/1.
C. The native VLAN is wrong.
D. VLAN 1 needs the no shutdown command.
E. IP routing needs to be enabled on the switch.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
The following command was issued on a router that is being configured as the active HSRP router.
standby ip 10.2.1.1
Which statement about this command is true?
A. This command will not work because the HSRP group information is missing.
B. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000.0c07.ac00.
C. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000.0c07.ac01.
D. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000.070c.ac11.
E. This command will not work because the active parameter is missing. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5 Cisco 642-813 Exam
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
What does the interface subcommand “switchport voice vlan 222” indicate?
A. The port is configured for data and voice traffic.
B. The port is fully dedicated to forwarding voice traffic.
C. The port operates as an FXS telephony port.
D. Voice traffic is directed to VLAN 222.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which statement is a characteristic of multi-VLAN access ports?
A. The port has to support STP PortFast.
B. The auxiliary VLAN is for data service and is identified by the PVID.
C. The port hardware is set as an 802.1Q trunk.
D. The voice service and data service use the same trust boundary.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. BPDUGuard is enabled on both ports of SwitchA. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements about the possible result of attaching the second link are true? (Choose two.)

A. The switch port attached to LinkB does not transition to up.
B. One or both of the two switch ports attached to the hub goes into the err-disabled state when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub transitions to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 6 Cisco 642-813 Exam
E. The switch port attached to LinkA immediately transitions to the blocking state.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about recommended practices that are to be used in a local VLAN solution design where layer 2 traffic is to be kept to a minimum? (Choose two.)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing may be performed at all layers but is most commonly done at the core and distribution layers.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be local to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?
A. Enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain.
B. Enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain.
C. Enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain.
D. Enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 12
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 13
In the hardware address 0000.0c07.ac0a, what does 07.ac represent?
A. vendor code
B. HSRP group number
C. HSRP router number
D. HSRP well-known physical MAC address
E. HSRP well-known virtual MAC address
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 7 Cisco 642-813 Exam
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access resources through router 1. What is the cause of this problem?

The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access resources through router 1. What is the cause of this problem?
A. VLAN 107 does not exist on switch A.
B. VTP is pruning VLAN 107.
C. VLAN 107 is not configured on the trunk.
D. Spanning tree is not enabled on VLAN 107.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
Which protocol will enable a group of routers to form a single virtual router and will use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 8 Cisco 642-813 Exam
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 16
On a multilayer Cisco Catalyst switch, which interface command is used to convert a Layer 3 interface to a Layer 2 interface?
A. switchport
B. no switchport
C. switchport mode access
D. switchport access vlan vlan-id
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?

A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.112.
D. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.111.
E. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
F. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 9 Cisco 642-813 Exam
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. All network links are FastEthernet. Although there is complete connectivity throughout the network, Front Line users report that they experience slower network performance when accessing the server farm than the Reception office experiences. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 4096 would improve network performance.
B. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 36864 would improve network performance.
C. Changing the bridge priority of S2 to 36864 would improve network performance.
D. Changing the bridge priority of S3 to 4096 would improve network performance.
E. Disabling the Spanning Tree Protocol would improve network performance.
F. Upgrading the link between S2 and S3 to Gigabit Ethernet would improve performance.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 19
What two things occur when an RSTP edge port receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
A. The port immediately transitions to the forwarding state.
B. The switch generates a Topology Change Notification BPDU.
C. The port immediately transitions to the err-disable state.
D. The port becomes a normal STP switch port. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 10 Cisco 642-813 Exam

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 20
What is the effect of configuring the following command on a switch?
Switch(config) # spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
A. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, then PortFast is disabled and the BPDUs are processed normally.
B. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, they are ignored and none are sent.
C. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, the port transitions to the forwarding state.
D. The command enables BPDU filtering on all ports regardless of whether they are configured for BPDU filtering at the interface level.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

The Cisco contains more than 400 practice questions for the Cisco 642-813 exams,including simulation-based questions.Also contains hands-on exercises and a customized copy of the Cisco 642-813 exams network simulation software.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
For which purpose is the command mpls ldp maxhops used?
A. In large ATM-MPLS networks, the LFIB can become too large and it may be necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS LSPs.
B. Because downstream-on-demand label allocation uses hop count to control loop detection, it maybe necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS network.
C. Because end-to-end delay can cause problems with some voice applications, it may be necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS network.
D. When interconnecting large frame mode MPLS and cell mode networks it may be necessary to limit the maximum network diameter to prevent forwarding loops.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the diagram. What problem can be caused by the second P router summarizing the loopback address of the egress PE router?

A. The first P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
B. The second P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
C. The egress PE router will not be able to establish a label switch path (LSP) to the ingress PE router.
D. A label switch path (LSP) will be established from the ingress PE router to the egress PE router, an event that is not desirable.
E. The ingress PE router will not be able to receive the VPN label from the egress PE router via MP-IBGP.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3
In a central services topology, which routes do client VRFs contain?
A. routes from the client site, but not from the server site
B. routes from the server site, but not from the client site
C. routes from both the client site and the server site
D. only EBGP routes from either the client site or the server site
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
On a dedicated subinterface implementation, PE-2 must establish an address-family vrf IPv4 BGP neighbor relationship with which router?

A. CE-1
B. CE-2
C. PE-1
D. PE-IG
E. CE-1 and CE-2
F. PE-1 and PE-IG
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5
What are three drawbacks of a peer-to-peer VPN using a shared provider edge (PE) router? (Choose three.)
A. A full mesh of virtual circuits is required between the customer sites.
B. All the customers have to share a common IP address space.
C. Optimal routing between customer sites cannot be guaranteed.
D. The shared PE router has to know all routes for all customers.
E. Packet filters are required on the PE routers.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which two of the following statements regarding LDP are true? (Choose two.)
A. LDP can also be used between nonadjacent routers using multicast LDP hello messages.
B. LDP does not require periodic hello messages once the LDP session has been established between the LDP peers.
C. LDP hello messages use TCP packets with a destination port number of 646.
D. Multiple sessions can be established between a pair of LSRs if they use multiple label spaces.
E. Per-platform label space can be identified by a label space ID of 0 in the LDP identifier field.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of the following statements about the MPLS configurations are true? (Choose two.)

A. The VPI range being configured is the default VPI range.
B. The router is missing the mpls label protocol ldp configuration command on its ATM 0/0.1 subinterface to make it an LC-ATM enabled subinterface.
C. There is a problem with the configurations because the control VC should be set to 0 32 instead.
D. The ATM switch is using VC merge since VC merge is enabled by default.
E. For MPLS label allocations, both VPI 6 and 7 can be used.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
What does the following command accomplish? sanjose#clear ip bgp 10.1.1.1 in prefix-filter
A. The sanjose router will perform an outbound soft reconfig to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
B. The sanjose router will send out the ORF prefix-list so that a new route refresh will be received from the
1.1.1 neighbor.
C. The 10.1.1.1 router will perform an inbound soft reconfig on the updates from the sanjose neighbor.
D. The 10.1.1.1 router will send out the ORF prefix-list so that a new route refresh will be received from the sanjose neighbor.
E. The bgp session between the sanjose and the 10.1.1.1 router will be reset so that all the new bgp updates from the 10.1.1.1 router can be processed by the inbound prefix-list at the sanjose router.
F. The bgp session between the sanjose and the 10.1.1.1 router will be reset so that all the new bgp updates from the sanjose router can be processed by the inbound prefix-list at the 10.1.1.1 router.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Based on the topology diagram shown in the exhibit, when should BGP be used as the routing protocol between the customer and the ISP?

A. If physical link failures can not be detected by the link-level procedures.
B. If the customer wants to affect how the ISP will route the customer’s traffic out to the rest of the Internet.
C. If the ISP does not support static routing with the customer.
D. If the customer is using provider-assigned (PA) addresses inside the customer’s network.
E. If the customer is using private addresses inside the customer’s network.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, what is the correct configuration on the customer edge router used to conditionally announce the customer networks to the ISP?

A. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown network 192.168.8.0 mask 255.255.252.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
B. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
C. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown network 192.168.8.0 network 192.168.9.0 network 192.168.10.0 network 192.168.11.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.9.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.11.0 255.255.255.0 null0
D. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only ! router ospf 1 network 192.168.8.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
E. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 null0
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two statements about a transit AS are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A transit AS has eBGP connection(s) to only one external AS.
B. Routes between ASs are always exchanged via eBGP.
C. A transit AS uses an IGP like OSPF or ISIS to propagate the external networks within the transit AS.
D. Core routers within a transit AS normally use default routing to reach the external networks.
E. iBGP sessions can be established between non directly connected routers.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, both R5 and R6 are clients of the R2 RR. When the 0.0.0/8 iBGP update from R3 is received by the R2 RR, which router(s) will R2 reflect the update to?

A. R1 only
B. R5 and R6
C. R5, R6 and R1
D. R4, R5 and R6
E. R4, R5, R6 and R1
F. to no other router
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which show command can be used to display the originator ID and cluster-list?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp sum
C. show ip route bgp
D. show ip route {prefix}
E. show ip bgp {prefix}
F. show ip bgp neighbors {ip address}
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which command is used to configure the external, confederation-wide AS number?
A. router(config)#router bgp {as-number}
B. router(config-router)#bgp confederation peers {as-number}
C. router(config-router)#bgp confederation identifier {as-number}
D. router(config-router)#bgp cluster-id {as-number}
E. router(config-router)#neighbor {ip address} remote-as {as-number}
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
As the penalty for a flapping route decreases and falls below a certain limit, the route is unsuppressed. What is the name of that limit?
A. half-life limit
B. suppress limit
C. max-suppress-time limit
D. reuse limit
E. unsuppress limit
F. penalty limit
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
What is the difference in implementation between a managed CE services MPLS VPN and a central services MPLS VPN?
A. RD assignment
B. selective routes export
C. selective routes import
D. MP-BGP route redistribution filtering
E. CE-PE routing process
F. none
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
In a Transit AS, how do the internal routers within the Transit AS forward packets destined for the external networks using a scalable solution?
A. using the default route
B. using the IGP routes where the external networks are redistributed into the IGP by the edge routers
C. using the EBGP routes where the external networks are redistributed into the IBGP by the edge routers
D. using the IBGP routes, then using recursive lookup based on IGP information to resolve the BGP next-hop
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Given the following configurations, R2 and R3 are not able to successfully establish the IBGP session using the loopback 0 interfaces. What could be the cause of this problem?

! output omitted
!
hostname R2 ! interface loopback 0 ip address 2.2.2.2 ! interface e0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 no shut ! interface e1 ip address 10.2.2.1 255.255.255.0 no shut ! router bgp 65101 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65100 neighbor 3.3.3.3 remote-as 65101 ! router eigrp 101 network 10.0.0.0 network 2.0.0.0 ! !
! output omitted !
hostname R3 ! interface loopback 0 ip address 3.3.3.3 ! interface e0 ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 no shut ! interface e1 ip address 10.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 no shut ! router bgp 65101 neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 65102 neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 65101 ! router eigrp 101 network 10.0.0.0 network 3.0.0.0 !
A. The “No Sync” BGP configuration command is missing.
B. R2 and R3 are not using the loopback0 IP address as the source address for the BGP messages to each other.
C. The “network 2.0.0.0” BGP configuration command is missing on R2 and the “network 3.0.0.0” BGP configuration command is missing on R3.
D. The “neighbor 2.2.2.2 ibgp-multihop 2” BGP configuration command is missing on R3 and the “neighbor 3.3.3.3 ibgp-multihop 2” BGP configuration command is missing on R2.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
AS-Path prepending is used in AS1 in order to influence the return traffic path from AS 5 to AS 1 through the higher speed path via AS 2. _____ needs to be configured for AS-Path prepending and a minimum of _____ of the AS number should be prepended.

A. R1; one copy
B. R2; one copy
C. R1; two copies
D. R2; two copies
E. R2; three copies
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
In a multihomed environment with two ISP connections, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The customer should not be configured to act as a transit AS between the two ISPs.
B. It is recommended that the multi-homed customer use a registered (public) AS number.
C. AS-Path prepending can be configured on the customer’s edge router to influence the BGP path selection process for the outbound traffic (traffic from the customer to the ISPs).
D. The customer can use Local Preference on the customer’s edge routers to influence the BGP path selection process for the inbound traffic (traffic from the ISPs to the customer).
E. The advertisement of the customer’s IP address space can be conditioned by the customer’s edge routers by using a static route to the null0 interface and by using the proper network statement under router bgp.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

This volume is part of the Exam Certification Guide Series from Cisco 642-691.Cisco 642-691 in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help Cisco 642-691 Certification candidates identify weaknesses,concentrate their study efforts,and enhance their confidence as Cisco 642-691 exam day nears.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, both R5 and R6 are clients of the R2 RR. When the 10.0.0.0/8 iBGP update from R3 is received by the R2 RR, which router(s) will R2 reflect the update to?

A. R1 only
B. R5 and R6
C. R5, R6 and R1
D. R4, R5 and R6
E. R4, R5, R6 and R1
F. to no other router

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Based on this configuration, which two peering router neighbor statements are correct? (Choose two.) router bgp 50001 neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 50001 neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 50002 neighbor
10.1.1.1 local-as 50003 ! output omitted
A. EBGP – neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 50003
B. EBGP – neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 50001
C. EBGP – neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 50001 and neighbor 10.1.1.2 local-as 50003
D. IBGP – neighbor 192.168.1.2 remote-as 50001
E. IBGP – neighbor 192.168.1.2 remote-as 50003
F. IBGP – neighbor 192.168.1.2 remote-as 50003 and neighbor 192.168.1.2 local-as 50001
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about a transit AS are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A transit AS has eBGP connection(s) to only one external AS.
B. Routes between ASs are always exchanged via eBGP.
C. A transit AS uses an IGP like OSPF or ISIS to propagate the external networks within the transit AS.
D. Core routers within a transit AS normally use default routing to reach the external networks.
E. iBGP sessions can be established between non directly connected routers.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit and the following connectivity requirements. How many different VRFs are required? Sites CE1A, CE1B, CE1C, and CE1D require connectivity among them. Sites CE2A and CE2B require connectivity between them. Site CE12A requires connectivity to sites CE1A, CE1B, CE1C, CE1D, and CE12B. Site CE12B requires connectivity to sites CE2A, CE2B, and CE12A.

A. 2 VRFs
B. 3 VRFs
C. 4 VRFs
D. 6 VRFs
E. 8 VRFs
F. 10 VRFs

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. A diagram of a router connected to an MPLS-enabled ATM switch via an LC-ATM MPLS interface, and a partial configuration for the MPLS-enabled ATM switch and router are shown. Which statement describes what is incorrect about the configuration shown?

A. CEF has not been enabled on the router.
B. The VPI range of 2-3 is invalid.
C. The control VPI/VCI has not been set to 0/32 on the router.
D. VC-merge has not been enabled on the ATM switch interface.
E. The router has not been configured to specifically use LDP.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
When using MPLS unicast IP forwarding, what will happen if an LSR receives an incoming labeled packet but the LSR can’t find that incoming label in its LFIB?
A. The packet will be forwarded using the FIB.
B. The packet will be forwarded using the LIB.
C. The packet will be process switched by performing a route lookup in the routing table.
D. The packet will be forwarded using the LFIB with an imp-null outgoing label.
E. The packet will be dropped even if the IP destination exists in the FIB.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the show outputs, which condition could be preventing the P1 router from establishing TDP adjacency with its neighbor over the s0/0.211 and s0/0.212 subinterfaces?

A. The s0/0.211 and s0/0.212 subinterfaces line protocol are in the down state.
B. The P1 router cannot establish a TCP session with its neighbors.
C. The P1 router is missing the mpls label protocol LDP command.
D. The show mpls tdp neighbor command needs to be used to view the TDP neighbor status.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
LAB A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 10
What is the correct command to set the BGP scanner interval to two minutes?
A. bgp scan-time 2
B. bgp scan-time 120
C. bgp scan-time 2 60
D. The maximum scanning interval cannot exceed one minute.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Given the AS-path of (51002 51003) 51001 i from the show ip bgp output, what is the origin?
A. AS 51001
B. AS 51002
C. AS 51003
D. (51002 51003)
E. IGP
F. IBGP

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What best describes the following configuration example of allowas-in? router bgp 100 address-family ipv4 vrf CustomerAneighbor 195.12.4.5 remote-as 123 neighbor 195.12.4.5 activateneighbor 195.12.4.5 allowas-in 2
A. permits incoming BGP updates defined by access-list 2
B. permits incoming BGP updates defined by class-map 2
C. permit incoming BGP updates defined by route-map 2
D. permits incoming BGP updates with no more than two occurrences of AS 100 in the AS path
E. permits incoming BGP updates with no more than two occurrences of AS 123 in the AS path

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
In the diagram, the customer is using static routing to connect to the ISP. Which configuration on the ISP edge routers will enable load balancing and backup of the traffic to the customer?

A. ! R1 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.128 serial 0 ! R2 ip route 10.1.1.128 255.255.255.128 serial 0
B. ! R1 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0 ! R2 ip route 10.1.1.128 255.255.255.0 serial 0
C. ! R1 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.128 serial 0 ip route 10.1.1.128 255.255.255.128 serial 0 ! R2 ip route 10.1.1.128 255.255.255.128 serial 0 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.128 serial 0
D. ! R1 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.128 serial 0 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0 ! R2 ip route
10.1.1.128 255.255.255.128 serial 0 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
When using the redistribute ospf {process-id} command, which types of OSPF routes will be redistributed into BGP?
A. all internal (interarea and intra-area) OSPF routes
B. all external OSPF routes
C. all external OSPF routes except type 7 LSAs
D. both internal and external OSPF routes
E. only classful OSPF routes without the subnet option
F. only external OSPF routes without the match option

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, what is the correct configuration on the customer edge router used to conditionally announce the customer networks to the ISP?

A. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown network 192.168.8.0 mask 255.255.252.0 ! ip route
192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
B. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
C. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown network 192.168.8.0 network 192.168.9.0 network
192.168.10.0 network 192.168.11.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.9.0
255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.11.0 255.255.255.0 null0
D. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only ! router ospf 1 network 192.168.8.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
E. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 null0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
When configuring Internet access using a separate MPLS VPN, which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. The Internet backbone is separate from the MPLS VPN backbone.
B. Two dedicated physical or logical links between the PE and the CE routers are required.
C. An Internet gateway is connected as a CE router to the MPLS VPN backbone.
D. An Internet gateway shall insert full Internet routing into the Internet VPN to achieve optimal routing.
E. The customer’s Internet access is enabled by combining the Internet VPN with the Customer VPN using overlapping VPN topology.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
What is the difference in implementation between a managed CE services MPLS VPN and a central services MPLS VPN?
A. RD assignment
B. selective routes export
C. selective routes import
D. MP-BGP route redistribution filtering
E. CE-PE routing process
F. none

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which four attributes are used by BGP to detect routing loops? (Choose four.)
A. AS-Path
B. Cluster ID
C. Cluster List
D. Originator ID
E. Community ID

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which configuration task requires configuring the bgp cluster-id {cluster-id} command?
A. configuring the member ASs within a BGP confederation
B. configuring the BGP confederation ID
C. configuring hierarchical BGP confederations
D. configuring redundant BGP confederations
E. configuring hierarchical route reflectors
F. configuring redundant route reflectors

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
During the autonomous system number migration process, which BGP feature allows a BGP router to act as a router within one autonomous system to some BGP neighbors but also appear to be in another autonomous system to other neighbors?
A. remove-private-as
B. local-as
C. as-path prepending
D. AS override
E. Site-of-Origin (S00)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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