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QUESTION 51
The IT department of your company must perform a custom-built TCP application within the clientless SSL
VPN portal configured on your Cisco ASA security appliance. The application should be run by users who
have either guest or normal user mode privileges.
In order to allow this application to run, how to configure the clientless SSL VPN portal?
A. configure a smart tunnel for the application
B. configure a bookmark for the application
C. configure the plug-in that best fits the application
D. configure port forwarding for the application
Correct Answer: A Section: VPN Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Which major benefit do digital certificates provide when deploying IPsec VPN tunnels?
A. Resiliency
B. Obfuscation
C. Simplification
D. Scalability
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit. As the administrator of a Cisco ASA security appliance for remote access IPsec VPNs,
you are assisting a user who has a digital certificate that is configured for the Cisco VPN Client.
Based on the exhibit, how would you find the MD5 and SHA-1 thumb print of the certificate?
A. Choose the certificate and then click the Certificate drop-down menu.
B. Choose the certificate and then click Options > Properties.
C. Choose the certificate and then click the View button.
D. Choose the certificate and then click the Verify button.
Correct Answer: C Section: Cert Authentication Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring a laptop with the Cisco VPN Client, which will use digital certificates for authentication. Which protocol will the Cisco VPN client use to retrieve the digital certificate from the CA server?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. TFTP
D. LDAP
E. SCEP
Correct Answer: E Section: Cert Authentication Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit. A junior Cisco ASA security appliance administrator has asked for your help in configuring a Cisco ASA security appliance for an identity certificate to be used for IPsec VPNs. Based on the two Cisco ASDM configuration screens that are shown, what is needed to configure the Cisco ASA security appliance for an identity certificate?
Exhibit:
A. To retrieve an identity certificate, a new pair of RSA keys must be created.
B. To retrieve an identity certificate, the Cisco ASA security appliance must have the certificate of the CA.
C. To retrieve an identity certificate, the common name must be an FQDN.
D. The Cisco ASA security appliance doesn’t need to retrieve an identity certificate. It can use a self-signed identity certificate for IPsec.
E. Because of the lack of a CA certificate, the administrator must import the identity certificate from a file.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
SSL VPNs can provide increased flexibility over IPsec VPNs, based on the location of the client and ownership of the endpoint. However, security of the endpoint is a potential problem. Which three of these potential security issues can the Cisco ASA security appliance address through SSL VPN policies or features? (Select three.)
A. SSL attacks
B. Malware
C. Phishing
D. Spoofing
E. Viruses
F. Spyware
Correct Answer: BEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
You have been tasked with configuring access for development partners using the clientless SSL VPN portal on your Cisco ASA security appliance. These partners need access to the desktop of internal development servers. Which three of these configurations for the clientless SSL VPN portal would allow these partners to access the desktop of remote servers? (Choose three.)
A. RDP bookmark using the RDP plug-in
B. Xwindows bookmark using the Xwindows plug-in
C. Telnet bookmark using the Telnet plug-in
D. Citrix plugin using the Citrix plug-in
E. SSH bookmark using the SSH plug-in
F. VNC bookmark using the VNC plug-in
Correct Answer: ADF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
You are the administrator for Cisco ASA security appliances that are used for site-to-site VPNs between remote and corporate offices. You have used the Service Policy Rule Wizard within ASDM to configure low-latency queuing for unified communications on all the appropriate ASAs. Users are still having issues with unified communications between the remote and corporate offices. Assuming that the Cisco Unified Communications equipment is functioning properly and that the VPN configurations are correct, which of these choices is most likely the cause of the problems?
A. The DSCP, expedite forward, ef (46), was used to determine unified communications traffic within the Service Policy Rule Wizard.
B. The tunnel group and DSCP traffic matching criteria were configured within the Service Policy Rule Wizard.
C. Both a policing and priority queue must be applied on the interface to expedite the voice and control data flows.
D. A priority queue must be created on the interface where the site-to-site VPN tunnel is terminated.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
You have been tasked with examining the current Cisco Modular Policy Framework configurations on the LA-ASA Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) using the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM). Answer the multiple-choice questions in this simulation using the appropriate Cisco ASDM configuration screens.
Which two actions does the Cisco Adaptive Security Applicance take on HTTP traffic entering its outside interface? (Choose two.)
A. Drops HTTP request messages whose request method is post and whose user-agent field contains either the string Some_New_P2P_Client1 or the string Some_New_P2P_Client2.
B. Logs HTTP request messages whose request method is post and whose user-agent field contains either the string Some_New_P2P_Client1 or the string Some_New_P2P_Client2.
Correct Answer: AB Section: Case Study Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
You have been tasked with examining the current Cisco Modular Policy Framework configurations on the LA-ASA Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) using the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM). Answer the multiple-choice questions in this simulation using the appropriate Cisco ASDM configuration screens.
What is the effect of the FTP inspection policy named MY-FTP-MAP on FTP traffic entering the partnernet interface?
A. Has no effect on the behavior of the Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance.
Correct Answer: A Section: Case Study Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
You have been tasked with examining the current Cisco Modular Policy Framework configurations on the LA-ASA Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) using the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM). Answer the multiple-choice questions in this simulation using the appropriate Cisco ASDM configuration screens.
What are the two effects of the policy map named PARTNERNET-POLICY on FTP traffic entering the partnernet interface?
A. Resets connections that send embedded commands.
B. Blocks the FTP request commands DELE, MKD, PUT, RMD, RNFR, and RNTO.
Correct Answer: AB Section: Case Study Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
You have been tasked with examining the current Cisco Modular Policy Framework configurations on the LA-ASA Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) using the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM). Answer the multiple-choice questions in this simulation using the appropriate Cisco ASDM configuration screens.
Which statement is true about HTTP inspection on the Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance?
A. HTTP traffic is inspected as it enters or exits the outside interface.
Correct Answer: A Section: Case Study Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
You have been tasked with examining the current Cisco Modular Policy Framework configurations on the LA-ASA Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) using the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM). Answer the multiple-choice questions in this simulation using the appropriate Cisco ASDM configuration screens.
Which action does the Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance take on FTP traffic entering its outside interface?
A. Translates embedded IP addresses.
Correct Answer: A Section: Case Study Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 50
Which protocol is required for the administrative workstation to communicate with the CSA MC?
A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. SSL
D. IPSec
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
How can the Agent kit be sent out to host machines?
A. via a URL that is e-mailed to clients
B. via a TFTP server
C. via an FTP server
D. via a Telnet server
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
What is the purpose of the sniffer and protocol detection rule?
A. to stop sniffers from running on a network
B. to allow sniffers to run on a network
C. to cause an event to be logged when non-IP protocols and sniffer programs are detected running on systems
D. to deny non-IP protocols and sniffer programs from running on systems
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
What are three types of variables used for CSA? (Choose three.)
A. global sets
B. file sets
C. API sets
D. data sets
E. network address sets
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
What is the purpose of connection rate limit rules?
A. to limit the number of connections to an application
B. to limit the number of calls to the kernel in a specified time frame
C. to limit the number of network connections within a specified time frame
D. to limit the number of malformed connection requests to a web server
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which port is used to access the CSA MC from the administrative workstation?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 1741
D. 1802
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which two of the following file access rule criteria can you use to allow or deny the operations that the selected applications can perform on files? (Choose two.)
A. the application attempting to access the file
B. the application attempting to access the service or address
C. the operation attempting to act on the file
D. the direction of the communications
E. the address with which a system is attempting to communicate
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
What action is taken on user query windows when the Agent UI is not present on a system?
A. The default action is always taken.
B. All actions are denied.
C. All actions are allowed.
D. All actions are allowed and logged.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which three make up the CSA architecture model? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Trust Agent
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Security Agent Management Center
D. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
E. an administrative workstation
F. a syslog server
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Which two of the following network access rules can you use to control access to specified network services? (Choose two.)
A. the application attempting to access the file
B. the application attempting to access the service or address
C. the operation attempting to act on the file
D. the direction of the communications
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
What is the purpose of the rootkit/kernel protection rule?
A. to restrict access to the operating system
B. to log access to the operating system
C. to restrict user access to the operating system
D. to restrict administrator access to the operating system
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Drag Drop question A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which definitions can be used to allow consistent configuration of policies across multiple systems and can also be used for event reporting purposes?
A. hosts
B. software updates
C. Agent kits
D. registration control
E. groups
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Which two items make up Agent kits? (Choose two.)
A. groups
B. hosts
C. policies
D. rules
E. network shim
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Which two types of rules apply to Windows systems only? (Choose two.)
A. Agent service control rules
B. clipboard access control rules
C. Agent UI control rules
D. COM component access control rules
E. data access control rules
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which portion of an HTTP request is examined by data access control rules?
A. the TCP header
B. the UDP header
C. the URI portion of the request
D. the URL portion of the request
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Which two types of rules are UNIX-only rules?
A. network interface control rules
B. COM component access control rules
C. connection rate limit rules
D. file access control rules
E. rootkit/kernel protection rules
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Choose three types of rules that apply to both Windows and UNIX systems.
(Choose three.)
A. Agent service control rules
B. Agent UI control rules
C. application control rules
D. COM component access control rules
E. file version control rules
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
What application is installed on the server after the CSA MC is installed?
A. Cisco Trust Agent
B. ACS
C. SQL
D. CSA
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which two attacks could an attacker use during the penetrate phase of an attack? (Choose two.)
A. install new code
B. modify configuration
C. ping scans
D. buffer overflow
E. erase files
F. e-mail attachment
Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 21
What defines a class named Car that receives additional properties and methods from a superclass named Vehicle?
A. class Car uses Vehicle {}
B. class Car inherits Vehicle {}
C. class Car derives Vehicle {}
D. class Car extends Vehicle {}
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
What method loads external JPGs into a MovieClip instance?
A. getURL()
B. loadMovie()
C. loadImage()
D. loadMovieNum()
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
A phone supporting SMS is selected in the device profile of the mobile emulator. What does the command trace(_capSMS); return when run?
A. 1
B. 0
C. nothing
D. undefined
E. A syntax error occurs
F. A compile time error occurs
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Your are using the attachMovie method. What happens when you attach two MovieClips at the same depth?
A. The second MovieClip replaces the first
B. Both MovieClips are unloaded and a run time error is created
C. The second attempt to attach a MovieClip produces a run time error
D. The first MovieClip remains in place and the constructor of the second MovieClip calls the getNextHighestDepth( ) method as a replacement for the value of 1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
What happens when this code is executed? (Choose TWO) retval = fscommand2( “GetDeviceID”, “ID” );
A. Flash player crashes
B. retval contains the IMEI string
C. ID contains the IMEI string for the phone
D. retval comes back with a numerical value
E. ID contains the unique phone number for the device
F. An error occurs, there is a compile time syntax problem
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 26
Which two classes natively support the length property in Flash Lite 2.0/2.1? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. Array
C. String
D. XMLNode
E. LoadVars
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 27
An event object is generated:
A. Whenever a user event, such as mouse press, occurs.
B. Event objects are generated when any type of event occurs.
C. Whenever a system event, such as XML data being loaded, occurs.
D. Event objects are only generated when custom events are dispatched.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
How does the mobile emulator in the Flash 8 authoring tool test device video?
A. The video is tested using MPEG4.
B. The video is tested using the FLV format.
C. The video is tested using the device capabilities, in the XML profile for the device.
D. The video is tested using QuickTime which means it may work in the emulator and not on the device.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You have selected a device in the Flash Lite emulator and you have ActionScript that loads in an image. However, this image type is unsupported in the device you have selected. What happens when you test the application in the emulator?
A. You cannot test image loading in the emulator.
B. The emulator loads the image and displays an error message in the output panel
C. The emulator does not load an image but does not display an error message either.
D. The emulator loads the unsupported image format but it does not work when the file is transferred to the device.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Which is a network operator that owns it’s infrastructure?
A. Nokia
B. Samsung
C. Handango
D. Amp’d Mobile
E. NTT DoCoMo
F. Sony Ericsson
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 31
An application needs to run on two different devices. Each device requires different, optimized ActionScript to run. What command is needed to detect the device that the content is being run on so different sets of ActionScript run properly?
A. $device
B. $version
C. _deviceid
D. _devicename
E. fscommand2( “DeviceID”, “ID” );
F. fscommand2( “GetDevice”, “devicename” );
G. fscommand2( “DeviceName”, “devicename” );
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 32
What unique code is used to distinguish each Symbian based application installed on a device?
A. UID
B. IMEI
C. SymbianID
D. SID
E. SSID
F. DeviceID
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
What does the file extension SIS refer to when packaging Flash Lite applications for deployment on a device?
A. Small installation system
B. Small information system
C. Scalable installation system
D. Symbian installation system
E. Symbian information system
F. Scalable information system
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
How does the emulator in the Flash authoring tool handle testing device video?
A. Using Flash Video (FLV) files.
B. Using the capabilities of Quicktime.
C. Using the native video capabilities of the testing device.
D. Using the video capabilities in the Nokia multimedia tools.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
When attempting to access a network connection from the Flash Lite player, what happens on a BREW player versus a Nokia player?
A. Flash Lite 2.0/2.1 players do not display warning messages when a network connection is made.
B. Both players will display warning messages to the end user each time a network connection is made.
C. Both players will display warning messages to the end user only the first time a network connection is made.
D. The Nokia player will display a warning message to the end user explaining a network connection will be made, while the BREW player will not.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 36
What file type is used to install games and applications to Symbian handsets?
A. ZIP
B. MSI
C. SIS
D. TAR
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
An application that you have written is attempting to load 100kb of XML data from an external source into the Flash Lite player. However, the device has only allocated 30kb to handle incoming data streams. What happens?
A. The data is automatically displayed in 30kb chunks.
B. The 100kb of data is displayed but the application runs very slowly.
C. The Flash Lite player displays an out of memory error to the user.
D. The Flash Lite player displays an an unable to load data error to the user.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
Does Flash Lite support https protocol?
A. Flash Lite supports https protocol
B. Flash Lite only supports WAP protocol
C. Flash Lite does not support https protocol
D. Flash Lite supports https protocol but it can be used only if the mobile phone
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
Click the Exhibit button.
Which labeled keys are unavailable for access from Flash Lite content?
A. D, E, F
B. A, B, C
C. A, B, E
D. A, D, E
E. B, E, F
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
What does GSM stand for in the mobile industry?
A. Global System for Mobile
B. Global Service for Mobile
C. Geographic Service for Mobile
D. Geographic System for Mobile
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
You are creating an application. When should you use a a graphic symbol instead of a MovieClip symbol?
A. when you have multiple nested MovieClips that contain
B. when you have a static background with NO ActionScript
C. when you have multiple frames of ActionScriptActionScript
D. when you have an animation that is independent of the main timeline
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 42
What actions will most significantly improve content performance on a device? (Choose two)
A. grouping drawn objects
B. reducing the vector graphics nodes
C. using more raster images than vectors
D. avoiding alpha transparencies and gradients
E. using only the colors present in the default color palette
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 43
Which format or protocol should you use for loading asynchronous structured data into Flash Lite?
A. XML
B. AMF
C. XMLSocket
D. Webservices
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
You have written an application that loads XML data from the same directory as the SWF file. You want to move the file and the data together to a Symbian OS phone as a package. What should you do?
A. Zip the materials together and upload the file.
B. Build an SIS file for bundling the materials and upload the file.
C. Upload all of the files separately into the same directory on the phone.
D. XML files must reside on a server. The Symbian OS does NOT support cross domain policies so access to the data would be blocked.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
Flash Lite can consume XML from
A. A dynamic PHP URL.
B. A dynamic ASP URL
C. The file system of the device
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
In the BREW environment, how is an image automatically attached to an MMS message?
A. Using the Image class
B. Using attachMovie() method
C. Using the loadMovie() method
D. It is not possible to automatically attach an image.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
Which method or property should you use to determine the language set for a mobile OS?
A. _capLang
B. setDefaultLang()
C. loadLanguageXML()
D. capabilities.language
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Which type of layer does NOT exporte any content or add bytes to the final SWF file when publishing?
A. Guide layers
B. Normal layers
C. Mask layers
D. Any empty layer that does not contain media
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
You have created a complex vector image using the MovieClip drawing tools. The code for drawing the image adds approximately 512 bytes to your final file size. The vector image is the basis for a game sprite. When you test the file you notice that the animation is very slow. You want to improve the animation performance of the sprite in your game. What should you do?
A. Set the _quality property to LOW.
B. Set the property _highquality of the MovieClip to 0.
C. Reduce the number of lines and fills to improve performance.
D. Generate the graphic and capture it as a bitmap. Then reimport the image into the library. Remove the code from your application.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
What is the most highly processor intensive animation technique?
A. Alpha effects
B. Motion tween
C. onEnterFrame
D. Brightness effects
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
You are optimizing content for a mobile device. Which statement is true?
A. Try to use corners instead of curves.
B. Use shape outlines as much as possible.
C. Try to overlap tweens as much as possible.
D. Use the scaling tool to modify the size of bitmap images.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
How can a Flash Lite device’s ability to dynamically load data be determined?
A. _capLoadData
B. getNetworkStatus()
C. getNetworkRequestStatus()
D. getNetworkConnectStatus()
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
Consider the following statement on a Nokia device:
capable = System.capabilities.hasMMS;
If the device does not support MMS, what would the value of the capable variable be?
A. 1
B. -1
C. false
D. notCapable
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
What does GPRS stand for in the mobile industry?
A. General Packet Radio Services
B. General Packet Radio Systems
C. General Packet Radar Services
D. General Packet Radar Systems
E. Global Positioning Radio Services
F. Global Positioning Radio Systems
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
Which is a network operator that owns it’s infrastructure?
A. Nokia
B. Samsung
C. Handango
D. Amp’d Mobile
E. NTT DoCoMo
F. Sony Ericsson
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 56
You have selected a device in the Flash Lite emulator and you have ActionScript that loads in an image. However, this image type is unsupported in the device you have selected. What happens when you test the application in the emulator?
A. You cannot test image loading in the emulator.
B. The emulator loads the image and displays an error message in the output panel
C. The emulator does not load an image but does not display an error message either.
D. The emulator loads the unsupported image format but it does not work when the file is transferred to the device.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
An application that you have written is attempting to load 100kb of XML data from an external source into the Flash Lite player. However, the device has only allocated 30kb to handle incoming data streams. What happens?
A. The data is automatically displayed in 30kb chunks.
B. The 100kb of data is displayed but the application runs very slowly.
C. The Flash Lite player displays an out of memory error to the user.
D. The Flash Lite player displays an an unable to load data error to the user.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
What file type is used to install games and applications to Symbian handsets?
A. ZIP
B. MSI
C. SIS
D. TAR
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
What unique code is used to distinguish each Symbian based application installed on a device?
A. UID
B. IMEI
C. SymbianID
D. SID
E. SSID
F. DeviceID
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Does Flash Lite support https protocol?
A. Flash Lite supports https protocol
B. Flash Lite only supports WAP protocol
C. Flash Lite does not support https protocol
D. Flash Lite supports https protocol but it can be used only if the mobile phone
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
When attempting to access a network connection from the Flash Lite player, what happens on a BREW player versus a Nokia player?
A. Flash Lite 2.0/2.1 players do not display warning messages when a network connection is made.
B. Both players will display warning messages to the end user each time a network connection is made.
C. Both players will display warning messages to the end user only the first time a network connection is made.
D. The Nokia player will display a warning message to the end user explaining a network connection will be made, while the BREW player will not.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
Click the Exhibit button.
Which labeled keys are unavailable for access from Flash Lite content?
A. D, E, F
B. A, B, C
C. A, B, E
D. A, D, E
E. B, E, F
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
How does the emulator in the Flash authoring tool handle testing device video?
A. Using Flash Video (FLV) files.
B. Using the capabilities of Quicktime.
C. Using the native video capabilities of the testing device.
D. Using the video capabilities in the Nokia multimedia tools.
Correct Answer: B
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?
A. If another path advertises the 6.6.6.0/24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more preferred.
B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor 10.10.23.3.
C. The route 10.10.23.3 is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors.
D. Route 6.6.6.0/24 is learned by an IBGP peer.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)
A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are limited scoped addresses that have been reserved for OSPF.
E. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses 224.0.1.1 and 238.1.1.1 could not be used together.
E. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
F. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.)
A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two multicast protocol statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
B. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
C. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
E. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which command enables OSPF for IPv6?
A. router ospf process-id PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. ipv6 ospf process-id
C. ipv6 router ospf process-id
D. router ospf ipv6 process-id
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the output. What IOS command produces this output?
A. show ip ospf
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ipv6 ospf interface
D. show ipv6 ospf
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a voice VLAN?
A. Physically the voice network and the data network are separate.
B. The voice traffic will normally be on a different IP subnet than will the data traffic.
C. End user intervention is necessary to place the phone into the proper VLAN.
D. The same security policy should be implemented for both voice and data traffic.
E. The data VLAN must be configured as the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos on the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect when the switchport priority extend cos 3 command is configured on the switch port interface connected to the IP phone?
A. Effectively, the trust boundary has been moved to the PC attached to the IP phone.
B. The computer is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The IP phone is enabled to override with a CoS value of 3 the existing CoS marking of the PC attached to the IP phone.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will extend the trust boundary to the distribution layer switch.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP. D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
D. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point.
E. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose three.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
E. PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured. F. The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
In what three ways is QoS applied in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. No traffic marking occurs at the core layer. Layer 2/3 QoS tags are trusted from distribution layer switches and used to prioritize and queue the traffic as it traverses the core.
B. IP precedence, DSCP, QoS group, IP address, and ingress interface are Layer 2 characteristics that are set by the access layer as it passes traffic to the distribution layer. The distribution layer, once it has made a switching decision to the core layer, strips these off.
C. MAC address, Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS), the ATM cell loss priority (CLP) bit, the Frame Relay discard eligible (DE) bit, and ingress interface are established by the voice submodule (distribution layer) as traffic passes to the core layer.
D. The distribution layer inspects a frame to see if it has exceeded a predefined rate of traffic within a certain time frame, which is typically a fixed number internal to the switch. If a frame is determined to be in excess of the predefined rate limit, the CoS value can be marked up in a way that results in the packet being dropped.
E. The access layer is the initial point at which traffic enters the network. Traffic is marked (or remarked) at Layers 2 and 3 by the access switch as it enters the network, or is “trusted” that it is entering the network with the appropriate tag.
F. Traffic inbound from the access layer to the distribution layer can be trusted or reset depending upon the ability of the access layer switches. Priority access into the core is provided based on Layer 3 QoS tags.
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What does the command clear ipv6 ospf process accomplish?
A. The OSPF adjacencies are cleared and initiated again.
B. The route table is cleared. Then the OSPF neighbors are reformed.
C. The shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed on the LSA database.
D. The OSPF database is repopulated. Then the shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?
A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7 accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been
assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is
able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the
exhibit, which statement is true?
A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?
A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?
A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of interface
FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command
sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?
A. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
B. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
C. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
E. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
An administrator types in the command router ospf 1 and receives the error message: “OSPF process
1 cannot start.” (Output is omitted.) What should be done to correctly set up OSPF?
A. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address.
B. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address and is up.
C. Ensure that IP classless is enabled.
D. Ensure that the interfaces can ping their directly connected neighbors.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands,
which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 7 LSAs into type 5 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
B. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 7 LSAs throughout the backbone.
C. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 5 LSAs throughout the backbone.
D. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 5 LSAs into type 7 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
E. RTA will not redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What are two Cisco IOS commands that can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two.)
A. show ip ospf database
B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show ip ospf protocols
D. show ip ospf interfaces
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is the default metric used on IS-IS routers for each interface?
A. The cost is set to 10 for all interfaces.
B. The cost is set to 10 for LAN interfaces and 20 for WAN interfaces.
C. The cost is based on the speed of the interface.
D. The cost is based on a composite of bandwidth and delay of the interface.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What does IS-IS use to establish and maintain neighbor relationships between IS’s?
A. IIH
B. LSP
C. CLNS
D. CLNP
E. ISH
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is periodically sent by a DIS on a LAN to ensure that all adjacent neighbors’ IS-IS link-state databases are synchronized?
A. complete SNP (CSNP)
B. partial SNP (PSNP)
C. database query
D. database description packet (DDP)
E. link-state summary
F. hello
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This volume is part of the Exam Certification Guide Series from Cisco 642-892.Cisco 642-892 in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help Cisco 642-892 Certification candidates identify weaknesses,concentrate their study efforts,and enhance their confidence as Cisco 642-892 exam day nears.