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QUESTION 75
A fully loaded Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director requires 2190 watts of power. If 110-volt power is provided to the switch, at which power mode would the switch operate?
A. The director would operate in redundant mode only.
B. The director would operate in combined mode only.
C. The director would operate in redundant mode or combined mode.
D. The director cannot operate with 110-volt power.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
Which SAN topology should be used for the largest SAN fabrics?
A. arbitrated loop
B. full mesh
C. core-edge
D. cascade
E. collapsed core
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
What are two MDS features that increase the efficiency of a multiple switch Fibre Channel fabric? (Choose two.)
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A. Port Channel
B. CDP
C. FCP
D. FCC
E. CUP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. A customer has deployed the Cisco MDS topology shown above, using a single VSAN. The customer notices that performance on Servers B, C, D, E, and F becomes very poor when Server A starts a large backup operation. Which MDS feature can be enabled to prohibit the backup operation from causing performance problems on the remaining servers?
A. quality of service
B. FSPF traffic engineering
C. virtual output queuing
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Select three characteristics of the Cisco coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) solution. (Choose three.)
A. multiplexes up to eight wavelengths across a single fiber pair Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
B. supports a maximum connection length of 220 kilometers
C. supports both linear and ring topologies
D. requires OADMs (optical add/drop multiplexers) to aggregate multiple wavelengths across the same fiber pair
E. can be optically amplified to extend the distance characteristics
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
A customer has two data centers connected by dark fiber and also has a requirement for synchronous data replication between the data centers. If the data centers are 48 km apart, what is the most cost effective solution?
A. CWDM
B. IVR
C. FSPF
D. DWDM
E. Native FC
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
A customer recently deployed a pair of Cisco MDS 9216i Multilayer Fabric Switches to support an ERP application. The MDS 9216i expansion slot is still unused. The customer examined other infrastructure services and applications to determine if they should leverage the SAN storage capacity, and decided that it would be beneficial to attach eight Microsoft Exchange servers to the SAN. Each Microsoft Exchange server generally drives approximately 50 MBps of disk throughput and has two Fibre Channel host bus adapters. Which line card should be used to support the Microsoft Exchange server SAN connectivity?
A. 16-port Fibre Channel line card
B. 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. Multiprotocol Services Module line card
D. None; use the IP storage interfaces.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Which SFP and media-type combination would be recommended for a high-speed
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10-kilometer link between two Cisco MDS switches?
A. 2-Gbps-SW, LC SFP, 50/125-micron multimode media
B. 2-Gbps-SW, LC SFP, 62.5/125-micron multimode media
C. 2-Gbps-LW, LC SFP, 9/125-micron single-mode media
D. 1-Gbps-SW, LC SFP, 50/125-micron multimode media
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
What are three causes of host oversubscription? (Choose three.)
A. the operating system
B. the PCI bus limitations
C. the RTO and RPO values
D. whether the HBA has a flat FCIDs assigned E. the limits on the maximum I/O and bandwidth rate
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
A customer is designing a storage network infrastructure to support a database application. Each server will have two 1-Gbps host bus adapters, one connected to each of the two physical fabrics. The disk array has two 2-Gbps Fibre Channel interfaces. Each server will need to drive 20 MBps (encoded) of throughput continuously per host bus adapter, and the multipathing software on each server is not configured for load balancing.What is the maximum number of servers that can be connected to this disk array while satisfying the performance requirement?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
Which tool requires the Cisco Fabric Manager Server License to operate?
A. Cisco Performance Manager Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
B. Cisco Fabric Manager
C. Cisco Device Manager
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. Identify the topology that is represented.
A. core-edge
B. multitier
C. collapsed core
D. loop
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
DRAG DROP Your boss at Certkiller .com asks you to show her some benefits of Cisco products. You are required to match the Cisco Value Added feature to the potential issue it would most likely solve.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355 A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 88
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. What port type should be used between the two switches to maximize performance? Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-355
A. B
B. E
C. F
D. NL
E. TE
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
What MDS 9000 feature provides more efficient SAN utilization by creating hardware-based isolated environments within a single physical SAN infrastructure?
A. VSAN
B. SPAN
C. trunking
D. port channel
E. zones
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
A customer has storage arrays from multiple vendors, and is considering a virtualization solution to simplify storage management. Choose three advantages of using a Cisco MDS-based virtualization solution with an MDS 9500 Series Director instead of host-based or storage-based virtualization solutions. (Choose three.)
A. host and storage heterogeneity
B. LUN masking that is simpler to implement
C. virtualization that is closer to the target
D. virtualization that is embedded in the switch module
E. availability
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
What are three key benefits of implementing a SAN using iSCSI? (Choose three.)
A. uses existing IP networking, monitoring, and management infrastructure
B. is more efficient than FC since it requires fewer encapsulations
C. maintains consistent performance over IP networks of varying distances Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
D. significant capital cost reduction by substituting iSCSI as a transport technology
E. extends existing FC SAN to IP connected hosts
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
A customer recently deployed a pair of Cisco MDS 9216i Multilayer Fabric Switches to support a database application. The MDS 9216i expansion slot is still unused. The customer examined other infrastructure services and applications to determine if they should leverage the SAN storage capacity, and decided that it would be beneficial to attach 20 Microsoft Windows file servers to the SAN. Each Windows file server generally drives approximately 5MBps of disk throughput. Which line card should be used to support the Microsoft Exchange server SAN connectivity?
A. 16-port Fibre Channel line card
B. 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. Multiprotocol Services Module line card
D. None; use the IP storage interfaces.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
In addition to providing secure computer room access, what three MDS 9000 features can help enhance physical security? (Choose three.)
A. the placement of all unused FC ports in a VSAN set to “deny”
B. the placement of every host in its own ZoneSet that includes its storage devices
C. the use of the port security feature to bind pWWNs and sWWNs to specific ports
D. the use of DH-CHAP authentication to ensure fabric level security
E. the use of SSH to block access to all unused ports
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which two will allow a fully loaded Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Director to meet the 2190-W requirement? (Choose two.)
A. two 110-V power supplies in redundant mode
B. two 220-V power supplies in redundant mode Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
C. two 110-V power supplies that are placed into combined power mode
D. two 110-V power supplies that are placed into active/standby power mode
E. two 110-V power supplies that are placed into primary/backup power mode
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
What are three advantages of a collapsed-core architecture? (Choose three.)
A. This design provides the most efficient use of ports because no ports are consumed for ISLs.
B. The absence of ISLs significantly decreases reliability and manageability.
C. The absence of any oversubscription increases switch throughput.
D. Since there are fewer available paths over which traffic may travel, FSPF values are higher.
E. Ports can be scaled easily by adding hot-swappable blades without disrupting traffic.
F. The highest performance is achieved by director-class switches, because the high-speed backplane provides low fixed latency between any two ports.
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. In this scenario, the total bandwidth requirement is 1500 MBps, but there are 100 hosts that each need 15MBps of bandwidth. Which two statements are correct about the topologies shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The iSCSI fan-in ratio is 6.25:1. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
B. The Fibre Channel implementation will require 100 HBA ports.
C. iSCSI is the most cost-effective solution with high fan-in ratios.
D. Fibre Channel is the most cost-effective solution with high fan-in ratios.
E. The Fibre Channel implementation would require two 32-port switching modules in the Cisco MDS switches per fabric.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which design approach provides the greatest protection against failures when designing for high availability?
A. Segment the SAN architecture by the use of VSANs.
B. Use zoning to isolate applications in a consolidated SAN architecture.
C. Use appropriate MDS QoS mechanisms to guarantee that each application receives the necessary bandwidth.
D. Implement redundant fabrics across redundant physical infrastructures.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
What are three array characteristics that are crucial when planning a SAN design? (Choose three.)
A. fan-in ratio
B. connection speed
C. embedded cache controller
D. RAID level support
E. active/passive controller
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
What are three host characteristics that are crucial when planning a SAN design? (Choose three.)
A. host operating system
B. data replication
C. application I/O throughput
D. type of file system Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
E. CUP and memory resources
F. multipathing
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. A customer is designing a storage network infrastructure that uses the Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Director. The network will consist of 40 application servers, four backup servers, two disk arrays, and one tape library. The application servers each have two Fibre Channel host bus adapters and generate 40 to 50 MBps of throughput. The backup servers each have four host bus adapters and generate 130 to 150 MBps of throughput. The disk arrays each have eight 2-Gbps Fibre Channel interfaces that handle 150 to 200 MBps of traffic. The backup servers will be performing incremental backups of snapshot copies of production volumes from multiple application servers concurrently throughout the day. The backup servers will also be performing full backups of snapshot copies of production volumes from the application servers concurrently throughout the week. The customer is redeploying 16 first-generation Linear Tape-Open (LTO) SCSI drives that were previously direct-attached to application and backup servers. The drives will be deployed using Fibre Channel-to-SCSI bridging devices, and each device will have one 2-Gbps Fibre Channel interface and four drives attached. These drives will go into the new library. Which MDS 9509 configuration would best meet the connectivity needs of this customer?
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A. one 16-port Fibre Channel line card and four 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
B. two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and three 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
C. three 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and three 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. four 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
E. five 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and one 32-port Fibre Channel line card
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
Which Fibre Channel SAN topology maximizes performance and expandability?
A. multi-point
B. point-to-point
C. arbitrated loop
D. switched fabric
E. star
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
A customer would like to add Cisco MDS switches to an existing Brocade environment with minimal disruption. The Brocade switches are using PID-0 mode. Which two features will enable the creation of a Cisco-Brocade heterogeneous fabric without restricting the feature set of either switch? (Choose two.)
A. interop mode 1
B. interop mode 2
C. interop mode 3
D. IVR
E. PortChannels
F. CWDM
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
What are three key benefits of Cisco’s collapsed-core switch configuration? (Choose three.)
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A. ease of management
B. increased port channel utilization
C. reduction in equipment and installation cost
D. higher effective port count
E. reduction in total disk space requirements
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
A customer SAN design requires the use of existing non-Cisco storage switches in a core edge topology. What must be considered when attaching an MDS 9000 switch as the core device in this network?
A. Trunking is not supported between the core and edge switches.
B. Zoning cannot be used since the domain IDs are in different ranges.
C. FSPF cannot be used between the core and edge switches.
D. If VSANs are implemented in the core, IVR cannot be used.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
What provides storage virtualization from IBM?
A. Advanced Services Module (ASM)
B. Caching Services Module (CSM)
C. Storage Services Module (SSM)
D. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2-Gbps FC Module
E. IP Multiprotocol Services Module
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
What are two benefits of the Cisco MDS Series Switches that increase the overall resiliency of SAN extension? (Choose two.)
A. VSANs and IVR can eliminate the potential disruption of a WAN failure.
B. VSANs and IVR can increase resiliency by combining control traffic and data traffic over the WAN.
C. Parallel tunnels and PortChannels eliminate failure of every VSAN or IVR in the local fabric. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
D. PortChannels and VSANs can be used with FCIP to provide end-to-end redundancy and load balancing.
E. Recovery at the PortChannel level, instead of at the FSPF routing level, provides nondisruptive recovery.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. Which three outcomes would a customer realize by performing the migration from a multitier fabric design to a consolidated design? (Choose three.)
A. lower effective port cost
B. high availability because of the multifaceted redundancy that is built into the Cisco MDS switch
C. lower effective port count
D. higher effective port cost
E. higher effective port count
F. lower availability because there are fewer fabric switches for failover
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
What are two characteristics of iSCSI? (Choose two.)
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A. iSCSI initiators cannot be members of more than one VSAN.
B. The port VSAN of an iSCSI interface cannot be modified.
C. iSCSI cannot benefit from existing IP QoS.
D. By default, dynamically mapped iSCSI initiators are members of VSAN 1.
E. The IPS module creates one or more FC virtual N_Ports for each iSCSI host.
F. By default, all statically mapped iSCSI initiators are members of VSAN 4094.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
What feature of the MDS 9000 family would be most valuable in establishing a baseline of the traffic load on an existing network prior to making changes?
A. SPAN
B. RSPAN
C. FC-SP
D. Performance Manager
E. AAA
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. What should be recommended to meet these customer requirements?
A. VSANs
B. wide-area file services (WAFS)
C. storage virtualization
D. Zones
E. Zones and Zone Sets Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
What provides storage virtualization from IBM?
A. Advanced Services Module (ASM)
B. Caching Services Module (CSM)
C. Storage Services Module (SSM)
D. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2-Gbps FC Module
E. IP Multiprotocol Services Module
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
A large credit card processing firm is adding a second data center to support business continuance. What is the recommended solution for extending the SAN to the second data center if both data centers are active?
A. asynchronous replication using FCIP
B. dual homed servers, and IP connectivity using multiple paths
C. iSCSI installation and a bridge the Ethernet network to the Fibre Channel fabric
D. synchronous replication using DWDM
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
A customer wants to consolidate the storage in an existing SAN where Cisco MDS Series Switches are deployed. How can the customer accomplish this goal and still be able to retain full access to the data?
A. dual supervisor modules
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. stateful failover
D. universal interoperability mode 4
E. per-VSAN FSPF routing
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 114
A customer has the following application and peak-bandwidth requirements:Four database servers: 50 MBps eachFour exchange servers: 30 MBps each20 midrange development servers: 20 MBps eachWhich dual-fabric designs would best meet the needs of this price-sensitive customer while allowing for future SAN extension capability?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216i Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with an IPS-8 module
B. two Cisco MDS 9216A Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with an SSM module
C. two Cisco MDS 9216i Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with a 16-port FC module
D. two Cisco MDS 9216A Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with a 32-port FC module
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
At which point can security on a Fibre Channel SAN be implemented? (Choose three.)
A. storage array
B. server
C. Fibre Channel switch
D. GigE NIC
E. SFP connector
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 111
Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.)
A. STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
B. A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C. To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay, max age) must be the same.
D. If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
E. On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
F. The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 112
The lack of which two prevents VTP information from propagating between switches? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN 1
B. a trunk port
C. VTP priority
D. a root VTP server
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. There is a valid CEF entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam
http://www.TestInside.com
Testinside
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
What is the effect of configuring the following command on a switch?
Switch(config) # spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
A. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, then PortFast is disabled and the BPDUs are processed normally.
B. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, they are ignored and none are sent.
C. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for Portfast, the port will transition to forwarding state.
D. The command will enable BPDU filtering on all ports regardless of whether they are configured for BPDU filtering at the interface level.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and
cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence
would correct the problem?
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A. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# no shut
B. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
C. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10
D. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# no shut
E. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# state active
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 118
Refer to the exhibit. What does the command channel-group 1 mode desirable do?
A. enables LACP unconditionally
B. enables PAgP only if a PAgP device is detected
C. enables PAgP unconditionally
D. enables Etherchannel only
E. enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
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A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?
A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.)
A. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs.
B. This interface is configured for access mode.
C. This interface is a member of VLAN1.
D. This interface is a member of VLAN7.
E. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 122
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true when voice traffic is forwarded on the same VLAN used by
the data traffic?
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A. Quality of service cannot be applied for the voice traffic.
B. The voice traffic cannot be forwarded to the distribution layer.
C. Port security cannot be enabled on the switch that is attached to the IP phone.
D. The voice traffic cannot use 802.1p priority tagging.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
Which two statements are true about recommended practices in VLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing should always be performed at the distribution layer.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be localized to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?
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A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
A. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
A. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
B. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
C. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 51
Which description is correct about the operational state of the FastEthernet 0/0 interface on the basis of the exhibit below?
A. The interface is generating protocol errors.
B. The interface has failed because of a media error.
C. The interface is operational and currently handling traffic.
D. The interface requires a no shutdown command to be issued.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
Two certways routers are connected as shown below:
certways1 configuration exhibit:
certways2 configuration exhibit:
Two routers named certways1 and certways2 are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the
exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The certways1 router is known to have a correct
configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the certways2
router that is causing the lack of connectivity?
A. A loopback is not set.
B. The IP address is incorrect.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
You work as a network technician at P4S. Please study the exhibit carefully.
The router console screen is rapidly displaying line after line of output similar to what is shown in the
exhibit. The help desk has called to say that users are reporting a slowdown in the network. What will solve
this problem while not interrupting network operation?
A. Enter the no debug all command.
B. Save the configuration and reboot the router.
C. Press the CTRL+C keys.
D. Use the show processes command.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
According to the exhibit below. Information about P4S-RA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet due to security reasons. However, this information needs to be accessible to devices on the internal networks of P4S-RA. Which command or series of commands will achieve these goals?
A. P4S-RA(config)#no cdp enable
B. P4S-RA(config)#interface s0/0 P4S-RA(config-if)#no cdp run
C. P4S-RA(config)#no cdp run
D. P4S-RA(config)#interface s0/0 P4S-RA(config-if)#no cdp enable
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Which will be the result of adding this command to a router already configured for dynamic routing? ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
A. It configures the router to block routing updates from being sent to IP address 192.168.1.2.
B. It configures the router to drop all packets for which the destination network is unknown.
C. It configures the router as a firewall, blocking all packets from IP address 192.168.1.2.
D. It configures the router to send all packets to IP address 192.168.1.2 if the packets match no other entry in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Look at the picture: A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 57
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You need to install a network device in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. To meet the minimum requirements for this installation, which network device and interface configuration would you use?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You are a network technician for certways Ltd. Study the graphic carefully, you are tasked to connect a Cisco router to a Catalyst switch as displayed and you are also working on a computer connected to the management console of the switch. In order to configure the default gateway for the switch, you should learn the IP address of the attached router interface. Which IOS command will provide this information in the absence of Layer 3 connectivity?
A. ping switch_ip_address
B. show ip rarp
C. ping router_ip_address
D. show cdp neighbors detail
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Which command would configure a default route to any destination network not found in the routing table?
A. P4S-R(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
B. P4S-R(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 s0
C. P4S-R(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
D. P4S-R(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
According to the exhibit below. P4S-PC1 pings P4S-PC2. Which three things will P4S-CORE router do with the data received from P4S-PC1? (Choose three.)
A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of P4S-CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of P4S-CORE router
C. P4S-CORE router will place the MAC address of P4S-PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
D. P4S-CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 61
According to the exhibit below. Configuring P4S-R1 and P4S-R3 with RIPv2. What are the minimum network commands required on P4S-R2 for all networks to converge?
A. (config-router)# network 192.168.0.0
B. (config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.1.0
C. config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
D. (config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.3.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.4.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 20 was performed on a router. No
routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router.
Which statement
best describes this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.190 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The number 20 indicates the number of hops to the destination network.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
What does the address 192.168.2.167 stand for on the basis of the following exhibit?
A. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
C. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
D. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
Tom is a network technician for the P4S company. Observe the exhibit carefully. He is trying to use
HyperTerminal to configure a new router by use of the settings presented.
Why Tom can’t
connect to the router?
A. The bits per second should be set to 9600.
B. Parity should be set to mark.
C. The stop bits should be set to 2.
D. The data bits should be set to 6.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
There are three locations in a school district of a large city: P4S-M, P4S-W and P4S-U. The network connection between two of these locations has already functioned. Configure the P4S-M router IP addresses on the E0 and S0 interfaces so that the E0 receives the first usable subnet while the S0 receives the second usable subnet from the network 192.168.160.0/28. Both interfaces would receive the last available IP address on the proper subnet.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 66
Look at the following exhibit. You are a technician for certways. The configurations in the exhibit are pasted into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. You cannot ping from P4S-Host1 to P4S-Host2, but you can ping the S0/0 interface of P4S-R2 from P4S-Host1. You have verified the configurations of the hosts and they are correct. What caused the problem?
A. The serial cable on P4S-R1 needs to be replaced.
B. P4S-R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
C. The interfaces on P4S-R2 are not configured properly.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Topic – Explain and select the appropriate administrative tasks required for a WLAN.
Describe standards associated with wireless media (including: IEEE WI-FI Alliance, ITU/FCC)
Identify and describe the purpose of the components in a small wireless network. (including: SSID, BSS,
ESS)
Identify the basic parameters to configure on a wireless network to ensure that devices connect to the
correct access point
Compare and contrast wireless security features and capabilities of WPA security (including: open, WEP,
WPA-1/2)
Identify common issues with implementing wireless networks Answer & Explanation
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 68
The protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command may operate at a layer of the OSI model. Which level is it?
A. network
B. physical
C. transport
D. data link
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 69
In an effort to increase security within the certways wireless network, WPA is being utilized. Which two statements shown below best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It includes authentication by PSK.
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 70
You work as a network technician for certways and are responsible for this network. And you have chosen WPA over WEP in their wireless network. What is one reason why WPA encryption is preferred over WEP in this network?
A. WPA key values remain the same until the client configuration is changed.
B. A WPA key is longer and requires more special characters than the WEP key.
C. The access point and the client are manually configured with different WPA key values.
D. The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 71
While moving from one access point to another, which wireless LAN design ensures that a mobile wireless client would not lose connectivity?
A. configuring all access points to use the same channel
B. recommended overlap in cell coverage is 15 to 20%
C. utilizing MAC address filtering to allow the client MAC address to authenticate with the surrounding APs
D. using adapters and access points manufactured by the same company
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
The Wi-Fi logo is a registered mark of the Wi-Fi Alliance. When the Wi-Fi logo appears on a wireless access point or client adapter, which two of these does it signify? (Choose two.)
A. The Wi-Fi Alliance has tested this device and determined that it meets IEEE WLAN standards.
B. The access point or client adapter has been manufactured by the Wireless Fidelity company.
C. The manufacturer of the equipment has paid the Wi-Fi Alliance to market its products.
D. The Wi-Fi Alliance has verified that the device can interoperate with other devices using the same standards.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 73
As the certways network administrator, you need to troubleshoot an interference issue with the certways wireless LAN. Which two devices can interfere with the operation of this network because they operate on similar frequencies? (choose two)
A. AM radio
B. microwave oven
C. toaster
D. cordless phone
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 74
Install and configure three access points to cover a small office. Which one of the following terms defines the wireless topology?
A. BSS
B. IBSS
C. ESS
D. SSID
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 75
You are a network technician. You have just installed a single 802.11g access point in the center of a square office. Some wireless users come across slow performance and drops when most users are operating at peak efficiency. Which three items most likely cause this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. cordless phones
C. metal file cabinets
D. antenna type or direction
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 76
Which encryption type will be used by WPA2?
A. AES-CCMP
B. PSK
C. TKIP/MIC
D. PPK via IV
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 77
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)
A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 78
Assuming that you are a network technician, can you tell me which two practices help secure the configuration utilities on wireless access points from unauthorized access? (Choose two.)
A. assigning a private IP address to the AP
B. changing the default SSID value
C. configuring a new administrator password
D. changing the mixed mode setting to single mode
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 79
Which protocol will be used by a network host to resolve a destination IPv4 address to a destination MAC address?
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 80
Topic – Identify security threats to a network and describe general methods to mitigate those threats.
Explain today’s increasing network security threats and the need to implement a comprehensive security policy to mitigate the threats
Explain general methods to mitigate common security threats to network devices, hosts, and applications Describe the functions of common security appliances and applications Describe security recommended practices including initial steps to secure network devices
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 81
As a network administrator, you would configure port security on a switch. Why?
A. in order to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
B. in order to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
C. in order to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
D. in order to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
What objective does an IDS accomplish?
A. hide the private IP addressing structure from outside attackers
B. perform stateful firewall functions
C. detect malicious traffic and send alerts to a management station
D. block suspicious network activity from entering the network
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
The certways administrator is concerned with enhancing network security. To do this, what are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside security threats on the network?(Choose two.)
A. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 84
Choose from the following the effect of using the service password-encryption command.
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
D. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
To protect network device configuration files from outside network security threats, what should you do? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
D. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
Correct Answer: BC
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QUESTION 50
Part of the configuration of router TT 1 is shown below: Exhibit
What is the effect of the configuration shown above on router TT 1 ?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSH connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login aTT empts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
F. None of the above.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
You need to make changes to a new Troytec router. By which prompt is the global configuration mode on this router identified?
A. Router(config-line)#
B. Router(config-router)#
C. Router#
D. Router(config)#
E. Router>
F. Router(config-if)#
G. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
You need to configure a new Cisco router for remote access on the Troytec network. How many simultaneous telnet sessions does this Cisco router support by default?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 5
D. 1
E. 6
F. 0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
The interface status of a Troytec router is shown below:
Exhibit The result of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command is displayed in the exhibit. What command should be executed to make this interface operational?
A. Troytec C(config-if)# enable
B. Troytec C(config-if)# no keepalive
C. Troytec C(config-if)# encapsulation pop
D. Troytec C(config-if)# no shutdown
E. Troytec C(config-if)# clock rate 56000
F. Troytec C(config-if)# line protocol up
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which of the following commands displays the configurable parameters and statistics of all interfaces on a router?
A. show interfaces
B. show processes
C. show running-config
D. show versions
E. show startup-config
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
The following was seen on a Troytec router in Huntsville:
Exhibit Refer to the router output shown in the graphic. What can be assumed about the network attached to this router interface?
A. The network hosts are attached to a hub.
B. The interface is being used at near maximum capacity.
C. There should never be any collisions in this network.
D. The network has an excessive number of errors.
E. The network is using an unusual Ethernet encapsulation.
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
Refer to the output of the three Troytec router commands shown in the exhibit. A new technician has been told to add a new LAN to the company router. Why has the technician received the error message that is shown following the last command?
Exhibit A. The command was entered from the wrong prompt.
B. The router does not support LAN interfaces that use Ethernet.
C. The interface was already configured.
D. The IOS software loaded on the router is outdated.
E. The interface type does not exist on this router platform.
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 57
: In the Troytec router below, serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN.
Exhibit
Based on the information above, how can this problem be corrected?
A. Correct the IP address for interface Serial 0/0.
B. Change the encapsulation type on interface Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for interface FastEthernet 0/0.
D. Enable auto configuration on the Serial 0/0 interface.
E. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 58
An administrator issues the show ip interface s0/0 command and the output displays that interface Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is up What does “line protocol is up” specifically indicate about the interface?
A. The cable is attached properly.
B. CDP has discovered the connected device.
C. Keepalives are being received on the interface.
D. A carrier detect signal has been received from the connected device.
E. IP is correctly configured on the interface.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
You need to configure the interfaces on a new Troytec router, but first you need to enter the global configuration mode. Which command is used on router Troytec 3 to reach this mode?
A. Troytec 3# router
B. Troytec 3# setup
C. Troytec 3# interface
D. Troytec 3> enable
E. Troytec 3# configure terminal
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
In the network shown below, The Troytec technician is testing connection problems. What is the problem indicated by the output from HostA?
Exhibit A. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.
B. An access list is applied to an interface of Troytec 3.
C. The routing on Troytec 2 is not functioning properly.
D. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Regarding the extended ping command; which of the statements below are true? (Select all valid answer choices)
A. The extended ping command is supported from user EXEC mode.
B. The extended ping command is available from privileged EXEC mode.
C. With the extended ping command you can specify the TCP and UDP port to be pinged.
D. With the extended ping command you can specify the timeout value.
E. With the extended ping command you can specify the datagram size.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 62
When you use the ping command to send ICMP messages across a network, what’s the most common request/reply pair you’ll see? (Select one answer choice)
A. Echo request and Echo reply
B. ICMP hold and ICMP send
C. ICMP request and ICMP reply
D. Echo off and Echo on
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
Part of the Troytec network is shown below: Exhibit
Ping exhibit: Exhibit
Tracert exhibit: Exhibit
You work as a network technician at Troytec .com. You are testing connection problems in the network and your PC (host Troytec A) has provided the output shown above. What is the problem indicated by this output?
A. The routing on Router Troytec 2 is not functioning properly.
B. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch Troytec 4 is down.
C. An access list is applied to an interface of Router Troytec 3.
D. The gateway address of Host Troytec A is incorrect or not configured.
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
Network Topology Exhibit:
Troytec 1 configuration exhibit: Exhibit
Troytec 2 configuration exhibit: Exhibit
You need to ensure connectivity between two new Troytec offices. You apply the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers Troytec 1 and Troytec 2. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host Troytec A to Host Troytec B fails, but you are able to ping the S0/0 interface of Troytec 2 from Host Troytec A. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?
A. The interfaces on Troytec 2 are not configured properly.
B. The serial cable on Troytec 1 needs to be replaced.
C. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
D. Router Troytec 1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
You need to configure a default route on a Troytec router. Which command will configure a default route on a router?
A. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.0 10.1.1.1
B. TT 1 (config)# ip default-route 10.1.1.0
C. TT 1 (config)# ip default-gateway 10.1.1.0
D. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Static routing needs to be configured on router TT 1. In which situation would the use of a static route be appropriate?
A. To configure a route to the first Layer 3 device on the network segment.
B. To configure a route from an ISP router into a corporate network.
C. To configure a route when the administrative distance of the current routing protocol is too low.
D. To reach a network is more than 15 hops away.
E. To provide access to the Internet for enterprise hosts.
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
The Troytec network is shown below:
Exhibit Based on this information, which of the following will configure a static route on Router A to network 180.18.30.0/24 with an administrative distance of 90?
A. Router(config)# ip route 90 180.18.20.1 255.255.255.0 182.18.20.2
B. Router(config)# ip route 180.18.20.1 255.255.255.0 182.18.30.0 90
C. Router(config)# ip route 180.18.30.1 255.255.255.0 182.18.20.1 90
D. Router(config)# ip route 90 180.18.30.0 255.255.255.0 182.18.20.2
E. Router(config)# ip route 180.18.30.0 255.255.255.0 182.18.20.2 90
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 68
The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip
route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose
two.)
Exhibit:
Exhibit
A. Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
B. This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
C. Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
D. Traffic for network 172.16.12.0 is forwarded to the 192.168.12.0 network.
E. The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0.
F. The command establishes a static route.
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 69
Which of the commands below can you use to configure a default route on router TT 1 ? (Select two answer choices)
A. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 E0
B. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0
C. TT 1 (config-interface)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.21
D. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.21
E. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.21 255.255.255.255
F. TT 1 # ip default-network 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.21 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 70
Which of the following commands would you use to configure a default route to any destination NOT found in the routing table of router TT 1 ?
A. TT 1 (config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
B. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
C. TT 1 (config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
D. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
E. TT 1 (config)# ip route any any e0
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
The topology of the Troytec network is displayed below, along with the routing table of the Troytec 1 router:
Exhibit
172.17.22.0 172.31.5.0 Changes to the Troytec network were made, and now users on the Troytec 3 LAN are not able to connect to the Troytec 4 LAN. Based on the information above, what could be the reason for this?
A. The Fast Ethernet interface is disabled.
B. The neighbor relationship table is not updated.
C. A static route is configured incorrectly.
D. The routing table on Troytec 1 is not updated.
E. IP routing is not enabled.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72
Some of the Troytec routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. The keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. The allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table.
E. They direct traffic from the Internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 73
You have just configured a static default route on router TT 1 . What is the purpose of a default route?
A. It is a route to be used when the routing protocol fails.
B. It is a route configured by an ISP that sends traffic into a corporate network.
C. It is a route used when a packet is destined for a remote network that is not listed in the routing table.
D. It is a route manually configured for a specific remote network for which a routing protocol is not configured.
E. It is used to send traffic to a stub network. F. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
On router TT 1 the following configuration command was entered: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 What is the result of adding this command to this router when it is already configured for dynamic routing?
A. It configures the router to block routing updates from being sent to IP address 192.168.1.2.
B. It configures the router to send all packets to IP address 192.168.1.2 if the packets match no other entry in the routing table.
C. It configures the router to drop all packets for which the destination network is unknown.
D. It configures the router to send all packets to IP address 192.168.1.2.
E. It configures the router as a firewall, blocking all packets from IP address 192.168.1.2.
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
If NVRAM in a Troytec router lacks boot system commands, where does this router look for the Cisco IOS by default?
A. ROM
B. RAM
C. Flash
D. Bootstrap
E. Startup-.config
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
When you power up a Troytec router; in what memory is the start-up configuration normally stored in?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. FLASH
D. NVRAM
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
You are the administrator of the Troytec network and you have forgoTT en the password to one of your routers. After completing the password recovery procedure the router returned to its normal operation. The config-register was set back to the initial default value. What is this value?
A. 0x2112
B. 0x2104
C. 0x2102
D. 0x2142
E. 0x2100
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 78
You issued the following command on router Troytec 3: Exhibit
When upgrading the IOS image, you receive the exhibited error message shown above. Based on the information given, what could be the cause of this error?
A. The TFTP server is unreachable from the router.
B. The new IOS image is too large for the router flash memory.
C. The IOS image on the TFTP server is corrupt.
D. The new IOS image is not correct for this router platform.
E. There is not enough disk space on the TFTP server for the IOS image.
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
The relevant system information regarding a Troytec router is shown in the following display:
Exhibit
Refer to the partial Command output shown. Which two statements are correct regarding the router hardware? (Choose Two)
A. Total RAM Size is 32 KB.
B. Total RAM Size is 16384 KB (16 MB)
C. Total RAM Size is 65536 KB (64 MB)
D. FLASH Size is 32 KB.
E. FLASH Size is 16384 KB (16 MB)
F. FLASH Size is 65536 KB (64 MB)
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 80
Which is the correct fallback sequence for loading the Cisco IOS?
A. ROM, Flash, NVRAM
B. ROM, TFTP server, Flash
C. Flash, TFTP server, ROM
D. Flash, NVRAM, RAM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
See the following exhibit below:
Exhibit
A router consistently loses its configuration each time it reboots. Given the output shown in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The processor is overheating.
B. Configuration register is misconfigured.
C. There is no problem.
D. Cisco products are inferior compared to Nortel products. Migrate to Nortel instead.
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 82
A Cisco router has been configured, and the copy running-config startup-config command has been
issued. When the router is power cycled, the router prompts with:
“Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog? [yes/no]” Why has this occurred?
A. There is an error in the router DRAM.
B. Te IOS image is corrupt.
C. The configuration register is set to 0x2142.
D. The TFTP server that contains the router configuration file is unreachable.
E. A boot system configuration command has placed the router into setup mode.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
What is the purpose of using the copy flash tftp command on a router?
A. To copy an IOS image to the router
B. To create a backup copy of the IOS
C. To move the IOS image from a server to the router
D. To backup the router configuration to a server
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 84
Refer to the following exhibit: Exhibit
The Troytec network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup- config running-config command on the router. He powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enters the system configuration dialog as shown. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The network administrator failed to save the configuration.
B. The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
C. The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.
D. The configuration register is set to 0x2102.
E. The router is configured with the boot system startup command.
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 85
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two)
A. show running-config
B. show version
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. the amount of available ROM
E. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
F. show processes
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 86
Drag and Drop You work as a network administrator at Troytec .com. Your boss, Mrs. Troytec , tells you to match the commands with the appropriate descriptions. One of the commands listed below will not be used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 87
Which of the commands below would you enter if you wanted to see the configuration register of your router?
A. show boot
B. show flash
C. show register
D. show version
E. show config
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
After logging into a router, you type in “enable” and then enter the correct password when prompted. What is the current router prompt symbol at this point?
A. >
B. #
C. ?
D. *
E. All of the above
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
In the Cisco IOS, what is the definition of a global command?
A. A command that can be entered in any configuration mode.
B. A command that supports all protocols.
C. A command that is implemented in all IOS versions.
D. A command that is set once and affects the entire router.
E. A command that is available in every release of IOS.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
Which of the following commands will display the name of the IOS image file being used in a Troytec router?
A. Router# show IOS
B. Router# show version
C. Router# show image
D. Router# show protocols
E. Router# show flash
Correct Answer: BE
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QUESTION 110
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are IPv6 BGP peers that have been configured to support a neighbor relationship over an IPv4 internetwork. Which three neighbor IP addresses are valid choices to use in the highlighted section of the exhibit? (Choose three.)
A. ::0A43:0002
B. 0A43:0002::
C. ::10.67.0.2
D. 10.67.0.2::
E. 0:0:0:0:0:0:10.67.0.2
F. 10.67.0.2:0:0:0:0:0:0
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Refer to the exhibit. BGP has been configured on the routers in the network.
However, the IBGP peers in autonomous system 65200 have not converged. In addition, this console
message was generated on router R2:
*Mar 1 03:09:07.729: %TCP-6-BADAUTH No MD5 digest from 10.10.23.2(179) to 10.10.23.3(11002)
On the basis of the information that is provided, what is the cause of the problem?
A. BGP authentication can be used on eBGP peers only.
B. The password that is used for BGP authentication on both BGP peers in autonomous system 65200 must be the same.
C. BGP authentication can be used on iBGP peers when the connection is configured between the loopback interfaces.
D. OSPF must be configured with the same MD5 authentication.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit diagram and configuration. RTB is summarizing its networks from AS 64100 with the aggregate-address command. However, the show ip route command on RTA reveals the RTB individual networks as well as its summary route. Which option would ensure that only the summary route would appear in the routing table of RTA?
A. Delete the four network statements and leave only the aggregate-address statement in the BGP configuration.
B. Add the keyword summary-only to the aggregate-address command.
C. Add a static route with a prefix of 192.168.24.0 255.255.252.0 pointing to the null0 interface.
D. Create a route map permitting only the summary address.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Router RTA is configured as follows:
RTA (config)#router rip RTA(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 RTA(config-router)#distribute-list 44 in interface BRI0 RTA(config-router)#exit RTA(config)#access-list 44 deny 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 RTA(config)#access-list 44 permit any
What are the effects of this RIP configuration on router RTA? (Choose two.)
A. no routing updates will be sent from router RTA on interface BRI0 to router RTX
B. router RTA will not advertise the 10.0.0.0 network to router RTX
C. the route to network 172.16.1.0 will not be entered into the routing table on router RTA
D. user traffic from the 172.16.1.0 network is denied by access-list 44
E. the routing table on router RTA will be updated with the route to router RTW
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
During the redistribution process configured on RTA, some of the EIGRP routes, such as 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.2.2.0/24, are not being redistributed into the OSPF routing domain.
Which two items could be a solution to this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Change the metric-type to 2 in the redistribute command.
B. Configure the redistribute command under router eigrp 1 instead.
C. Change the EIGRP AS number from 100 to 1 in the redistribute command.
D. Add the subnets option to the redistribute command.
E. Change the metric to an EIGRP compatible metric value (bandwidth, delay, reliability, load, MTUs) in the redistribute command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Which IS-IS router is equivalent to an ABR in OSPF?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 2
D. Level 3
E. Level 1-2
F. Level 2-3
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task?
A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Hotspot
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Refer to the exhibit. Given the exhibited router output, which command sequence can be added to R1 to generate a default route into the OSPF domain?
A. default-router
B. ip default-network
C. default-information originate always
D. ip default-gateway
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. During the process of configuring a virtual link to connect area 2 with the backbone area, the network administrator received this console message on R3:
*Mar 1 00:25:01.084: %OSPF-4-ERRRCV: Received invalid packet: mismatch area ID, from backbone area must be virtual link but not found from 20.20.20.1, Serial 0
How should the virtual link be configured on the OSPF routers to establish full connectivity between the areas?
A. R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 30.30.30.3 R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 20.20.20.1
B. R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 20.20.20.2 R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 30.30.30.2
C. R1(config-router)# area 0 virtual-link 1.1.1.1 R3(config-router)# area 2 virtual-link 3.3.3.3
D. R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 3.3.3.3 R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 1.1.1.1
E. R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 2.2.2.2 R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 2.2.2.2
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
LAB
A. Portland# conf t Portland(config)# router ospf 1 Portland(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Portland(config-router)# area 1 stub Portland(config-router)# end Portland# copy run start Indianapolis# conf t Indianapolis(config)# router ospf 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary Indianapolis(config-router)# end Indianapolis# copy run start
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
The command bgp always-compare-med is added to a router configuration.
What will this command accomplish?
A. forces the router to compare metrics of routes from different autonomous systems
B. forces the router to compare the local preference of routes from different autonomous systems
C. forces the router to compare the weight of routes from different autonomous systems
D. forces the router to compare the communities of routes from different autonomous systems
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
An administrator is redistributing OSPF into RIP. RIP is routing the 128.103.36.0/24 network. OSPF is routing the 128.103.35.32/28 network. Users in the RIP domain cannot reach devices in the OSPF domain. Which two tasks must be done to enable RIP to advertise the routes learned from OSPF into the RIP domain? (Choose two.)
A. Add a static route that points to the RIP domain address space with a /24 network mask and a next hop of 128.103.36.2.
B. Add a static route that points to the OSPF domain address space with a /24 network mask with a next hop of null0.
C. Tune the OSPF default metrics to allow seamless redistribution into RIP.
D. Redistribute configured static routes into RIP.
E. Use a route map statement inserted into a distribute list to control routing updates.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
Which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A. L1 IS
B. L1 ES
C. L2 IS
D. L2 ES
E. L1/L2 IS
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. All routers have Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled interfaces. On the basis of the configuration provided on routers R1 and R2, which router will take on the function of rendezvous point (RP) for the multicast network?
A. router R1
B. router R2
C. both routers R1 and R2
D. none of the routers since they are not configured with static RP
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is shown? (Choose two.)
A. The first DHCP client to connect to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface will receive the IP address 10.0.0.6.
B. The first DHCP client to connect to the FastEthernet 0/1 interface will receive the IP address 10.10.0.1.
C. The first DHCP client to connect to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface will receive the IP address 10.0.0.1
D. Hosts connected to the FastEthernet0/1 interface will not receive DHCP replies from the router.
E. DHCP requests received on the FastEthernet 0/1 interface will be forwarded to 10.0.0.2.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task?
A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
Hotspot
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is enabled on all routers on the network. What additional configuration is required for the routers connected over the Frame Relay multipoint interfaces to compensate for a low-speed NBMA connection?
A. Configure the EIGRP hello interval on all Frame Relay interfaces to 5 seconds.
B. Configure the EIGRP hello interval on all Frame Relay interfaces to 60 seconds.
C. Configure the EIGRP hold time on all Frame Relay interfaces to 15 seconds.
D. Configure the EIGRP hold time on all Frame Relay interfaces to 180 seconds.
E. Configure the bandwidth on all EIGRP Frame Relay interfaces to the committed information rate (CIR).
F. Configure the bandwidth on all EIGRP Frame Relay interfaces to the lowest CIR multiplied by the number of PVCs for the multipoint connection.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Which show command will display the two values used in the calculation of the EIGRP metric?
A. show protocol
B. show ip eigrp interface
C. show interface
D. show ip eigrp neighbor
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast configuration changes have been made on several routers. However, the IP multicast table displayed in the exhibit still does not reflect the changes.
What should be done to display the new routing table information?
A. Issue the no ip mroute-cache privileged EXEC command.
B. Issue the clear ip igmp group privileged EXEC command.
C. Issue the clear ip mroute privileged EXEC command.
D. Issue the clear ip route * privileged EXEC command.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible successors? (Choose three.)
A. A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a non-successor route to the feasible distance of the best route.
B. If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of best route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
C. If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately without recalculating for a lost route.
D. The feasible successor can be found in the routing table.
E. Traffic will be load balanced between feasible successors with the same advertised distance.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 133
What are three kinds of OSPF areas? (Choose three.)
A. stub
B. active
C. remote
D. backbone
E. ordinary or standard
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Based on the show ip bgp summary output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The BGP session to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor is established.
B. The BGP session to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor is established.
C. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established.
D. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
E. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established, but the router has not received any BGP routing updates from the 10.3.3.3 neighbor.
F. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.2.2.2 neighbor.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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