Category: Cisco
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QUESTION NO: 1
Which solution can defend the network by gathering global threat information from a vast sensor network and updating the product portfolio to deliver current protection?
Select exactly 1 answer (s) from the following:
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco Data Loss Prevention
C. Cisco Virtual Office
D. Cisco Integrated Services Router
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following can you use to avoid discontinuous VLANs or subnets, routing black holes, and active/active HSRP or GLBP situations?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Layer 3 point-to-point routed link
B. Cisco StackWise technology in the Cisco Catalyst 3750 family of switches
C. QoS policies
D. ARP and CAM
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
Which layer in the hierarchical model is known as the backbone that glues together all the elements of the campus architecture? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. core
B. architecture
C. access
D. distribution
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Which two of the following are high-availability design considerations? (Choose two.)
Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:
A. Only use HSRP and GLBP if you must.
B. Avoid asymmetric routing and unicast flooding.
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 distribution with HSRP or GLBP is the only distribution option.
D. Use daisy-chaining stackable switches whenever possible.
E. Keep redundancy simple.
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 5
You want a security solution that enforces access and policies in the borderless network by providing information such as identity, time and date, posture, location, device type, and type. Which Cisco solution provide you with this information?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
B. Cisco TrustSec
C. Cisco AnyConnect
D. Cisco IronPort Web Security Appliances
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
What differentiates Cisco Medianet from other products?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. It can focus only on the network.
B. It can integrate Cisco rich-media applications with intelligent network services.
C. It can focus only on the application.
D. It supports infrastructure service silos.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
A video installation takes 60 minutes without autoconfiguration. Approximately how much time does an installation take with the Cisco Medianet autoconfiguration?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following
A. 25 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 20 minutes
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
What will Cisco CleanAir technology do if interference causes a jam on your Wi-Fi channel?
Select exactly 1 answer (s) from the following:
A. restart your service
B. shut down your network
C. change channels within 30 seconds to avoid the interference
D. automatically reconnect you on the same channel
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which Cisco EnergyWise component provides configuration, management, data aggregation, and console services for the solution?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. the Cisco EnergyWise Orchestrator Sustainability Dashboard
B. the Cisco EnergyWise Orchestrator server
C. the Cisco EnergyWise Orchestrator console
D. the Cisco EnergyWise Orchestrator PC Client
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Which Cisco AnyConnect component provides a firewall and secure mobility for the headend?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Cisco Integrated Services Router
B. Cisco ScanSafe
C. Cisco IronPort Web Security Appliances
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
What is a feature of Cisco OfficeExtend?
Select exactly 1 answer (s) from the following:
A. It allows users to be connected to the office on mobile devices without having to log in to the VPN.
B. It allows a user to roam securely across networks.
C. It helps to ensure that certain devices, such as a baby monitor and voice over Wi-Fi, can coexistin the wireless spectrum.
D. It extends an office phone number to a home telephone line.
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 12
What would you use to track guest provisioning and guest network use statistics, including login and logout times? Select exactly 1 answer (s) from the following:
A. Cisco ClientLink
B. Cisco Wireless Control System
C. Cisco SAFE Blueprint
D. Cisco ScanSafe
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 13
You want to enhance secure access control and data protection. Which Cisco solution will meet your needs? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Cisco Application Velocity
B. Cisco Virtual Office
C. Cisco IOS Software
D. Cisco TrustSec
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
What are two features of Cisco EnergyWise technology? (Choose two.)
Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:
A. It provides a way for a thermal return to reduce power consumption.
B. It provides easy migration of third-party endpoints.
C. It allows devices to alternate between battery power and AC current.
D. It allows devices to reduce power consumption while idling.
E. It can differentiate between device type, device label, and device location.
Answer: B,E QUESTION NO: 15
What is a feature of Cisco AnyConnect?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. It provides a single VPN connectivity option.
B. It provides a GRE tunnel to provide connectivity regardless of the Layer 2 protocol.
C. It provides a unified client for identity-based networking.
D. It increases mobility costs but provides a secure solution.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
How do network administrators identify problem areas and locate them in the context of access point, floor, building, and campus locations?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Cisco EnergyWise Orchestrator Sustainability Dashboard
B. Air Quality Index charts
C. Cisco IronPort Web Security Appliance
D. Cisco EnergyWise
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following involves studying the network at regular intervals and allowing proactive planning and designing of network modifications?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. business continuance
B. baseline
C. Cisco Validated Design
Cisco 50-379 exam tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism.The main purpose of Cisco 50-379 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge,give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real Cisco 50-379 exam exam certification.
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QUESTION 146
Look at the following exhibit. You have just configured OSPF on all routers in the network. You configure area 5 as an NSSA area. You redistribute the RIPv2 routes into the OSPE field on router P4S-R5. Choose two types of LSAs that will be originated by router P4S-R5. (choose two)
A. type 2 Network LSA
B. type 3 Network Summary LSA
C. type 1 Router LSA
D. type 7 NSSA External LSA
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 147
You are a network technician at P4S. Study this exhibit
carefully. BGP has been configured on the routers in the network. However, the IBGP peers in
autonomous system 65200 have
not converged. In addition, this console message was generated on router P4S2:
*Mar 1 03:09:07.729: %TCP-6-BADAUTH No MD5 digest from 10.10.23.2(179) to 10.10.23.3(11002)
Based on the information provided, what causes this problem?
A. OSPF must be configured with the same MD5 authentication.
B. The password that is used for BGP authentication on both BGP peers in autonomous system 65200 must be the same.
C. BGP authentication can be used on eBGP peers only.
D. BGP authentication can be used on iBGP peers when the connection is configured between the loopback interfaces.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 148
Study the configuration presented in the exhibit carefully. What is the objective of the route map named test ?
A. marks all prefixes received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
B. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
C. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
D. marks all prefixes advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 149
Which two descriptions are true regarding the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
D. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 150
According to the partial configuration that is presented in the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
B. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
C. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
D. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 151
Which two statements best describe IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
B. The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
C. An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors.
D. A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 152
IBGP is the protocol used between the routers in the same
autonomous system (AS) .Which description is correct about IBGP routers?
A. They must be directly connected.
B. They must be fully meshed.
C. They can be in a different AS.
D. They do not need to be directly connected.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 153
Which two approaches advertise internal networks to external ISPs via BGP? (Choose two.)
A. defining routes via the network statement
B. forcing the next-hop address
C. disabling synchronization
D. using aggregate routes
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 154
Which two statements best describe external BGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. Static routes or an interior gateway protocol is required between EBGP neighbors.
B. EBGP neighbors use TCP port 179 to exchange BGP routing tables.
C. EBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
D. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other EBGP peers.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 155
Look at the exhibit. Configure all routers for BGP. EBGP routes received on router P4S2 show up in the BGP table on routers P4S1 and P4S3 but not in their IP routing tables. Which would be the cause of this problem?
A. EBGP multihop is not configured on routers P4S1 and P4S3.
B. Synchronization in autonomous system 100 is turned on.
C. Synchronization in autonomous system 100 is turned off.
D. Routers P4S1 and P4S3 do not receive the same routes via an IGP.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 156
What is the reason that iBGP sessions should be fully meshed within a Transit AS?
A. A full mesh allows for optimal routing within the Transit AS.
B. Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other eBGP peers.
C. BGP requires redundant TCP sessions between iBGP peers.
D. Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 157
What is the meaning of the default value of the EIGRP variance command of 1?
A. Only the path that is the feasible successor should be used.
B. The router only performs equal-cost load balancing on all paths that have a metric greater than 1.
C. Load balancing is disabled on this router.
D. The router performs equal-cost load balancing.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 158
The Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is the core routing protocol of the Internet. Refer to the exhibit.
Routers P4SA and P4SB are running BGP but the session is active.
What command needs to be
added to establish the BGP session?
A. ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/0 ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/1
B. no synchronization
C. network 10.10.10.0
D. neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 159
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Examine the exhibit carefully. What will P4S-RB do with a packet sourced from within AS 64200 with a destination address of 192.168.25.1?
A. It will be forwarded to the null 0 interface of P4S-RB and dropped.
B. It will be dropped because network 192.168.25.0 is not in the P4S-RA routing table.
C. It will be dropped because network 192.168.25.0 is not in the P4S-RB routing table.
D. It will be forwarded to the P4S-RB 192.168.25.0 network.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 160
You work as a network technician at P4S,and study the exhibit carefully. Autonomous systems 200 and 300 have EBGP sessions established with their directly connected routers in autonomous system 100. IGP has been configured on all routers in autonomous system 100 and they successfully exchange routing updates. Traffic originated in autonomous system 200 cannot reach the destination autonomous system 300. What configuration should be done on the routers in autonomous system 100 in order for the traffic coming from autonomous system 200 to be forwarded to autonomous system 300?
A. IBGP session must be established between routers P4S1 and P4S3, and the synchronization must be
turned off.
B. IBGP session must be established between routers P4S1 , P4S2 and P4S2 , P4S3, and the synchronization must be turned on.
C. IBGP session must be established between routers P4S1 and P4S3, and the synchronization must be turned on.
D. IBGP speakers within autonomous 100 must be fully meshed, and the synchronization must be turned off.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 161
You are a network technician.Study the exhibit carefully. Router RTR is attempting to build up BGP neighbor relationships with routers RT1 and RT3. Based on the information presented in this exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.5 has an incorrect password set.
B. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.1 has an incorrect password set.
C. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.5 does not.
D. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.1 does not.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 162
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Refer to the
exhibit. Which statement accurately describes the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?
A. Route 6.6.6.0/24 is learned by an IBGP peer.
B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor 10.10.23.3.
C. The route 10.10.23.3 is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors.
D. If another path advertises the 6.6.6.0/24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more preferred.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 163
Which is the right order of the BGP attributes used for determining a route?
1.
Weight
2.
MED
3.
AS_Path
4.
Originate route
5.
Local preference
A. 1st
II. 2nd
III. 3rd
IV. 4th
B. 5th
C. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
D. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
E. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
F. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 164
Examine the following statements carefully .A router is running BGP and receives more than one route for
a particular prefix. Assume that all the routes for this prefix have the same attributes.
Which three path features would be reasons for the router to ignore some of the routes and does not
consider them as candidates for the best path? (Choose three.)
A. paths that are marked as synchronized in the show ip bgp output
B. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is inaccessible
C. paths that are marked as not synchronized in the show ip bgp output
D. paths from an external BGP (eBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 165
Look at the following exhibit. Presume an IGP is correctly operating inside AS64192. As to BGP operation in AS64192, which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two)
A. P4S-RT2 used the BGP command neighbor 192.168.33.1 ebgp-multihop
B. P4S-RT1 used the BGP command neighbor 192.168.33.1 remote-as 64192
C. P4S-RT2 used the BGP command neighbor 192.168.33.1 remote-as 64192
D. PS4-RT2 used the BGP command update-source loopback 0
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 166
Topic – Implement multicast forwarding. ?.§53 Questions??
Describe IP Multicast (e.g., Layer-3 to Layer-2 mapping, IGMP, etc.).
Describe, configure, or verify IP multicast routing (i.e., PIM Sparse-Dense Mode).
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 167
In computer networking ,a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
C. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 168
On the basis of the partial configuration for Router A: interface serial 0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 encapsulation frame-relay ip ospf network point-to-multipoint router ospf 7 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 Which two descriptions are true? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF neighbor statements are not necessary.
B. The area 0 NBMA cloud is configured as more than one subnet.
C. The router is restricted to a hub and spoke topology.
D. DR/BDR elections do not take place.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 169
Which one of the following commands enables a multicast routing protocol on an IOS device?
A. (config-if)#multicast address {IP-address}
B. (config)#ip multicast routing
C. (config-if)#ip pim {dense-mode | sparse-dense-mode | sparsemode}
D. (config)#ip pim send-rp-announce {interface type} scope {ttl} group-list {acl}
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 170
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Study the exhibit carefully. A P4S network administrator consoles into the P4S-SW1 switch and attempts to save the switch configuration to the TFTP server that is located at IP address 10.1.2.10/24. However, whenever the copy running-config tftp command is issued with default options on switch P4S-SW1, an error is produced.
Which configuration would correct this situation?
A. P4S-SW1 (config)# interface range fastethernet 0/1 – 24 P4S-SW1 (config-if-range)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
B. P4S-R(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 P4S-R (config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
C. P4S-R (config)# interface fastethernet0/1 P4S-R (config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
D. P4S-R (config)# interface fastethernet0/0 P4S-R (config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.2.10
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 171
In order to enable multicast routing on an IOS device , which command should be used?
A. (config)#ip multicast-routing
B. (config-if)#ip pim {dense-mode | sparse-dense-mode | sparsemode}
C. (config-if)#multicast address {ip-address}
D. (config)#ip pim send-rp-announce {interface type} {scope ttl} {group-list acl}
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 172
Rendezvous points are configured with an access list. Which objective will this list reach?
A. Restricting source addresses that use the RP
B. Restricting users that use the RP
C. Restricting routers that use the RP
D. Limiting multicast IP addresses that use the RP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 173
Which two situations would require using multiple routing protocols? (Choose two)
A. when using UNIX host-based routers
B. because having multiple routing protocols confuses hackers
C. when smaller broadcast domains are desired
D. when migrating from an older Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) to a new IGP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 174
Examine the following options ,Multicasting supports applications that communicate:
A. many-to-many
B. one-to-many
C. many-to-one
D. one-to-one
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 175
Which command will show the multicast groups used?
A. show multicast router
B. show multicast group
C. show igmp interface
D. ip igmp snooping
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 176
Which option is not a capability of UDP multicast?
A. Limiting receivers
B. Retransmission
C. Dynamic membership
D. Packet ordering
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 177
IGMPv1 does not have a mechanism to allow a host to leave a group when it is no longer interested in the content of that group. Based on the following statements, which is an advantage of IGMPv3 over version 2?
A. Leaves
B. Joins
C. Group-specific queries
D. Source Filtering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 178
For the following MAC addresses, which will 224.1.2.3 correspond to ?
A. e000.0001.0203
B. 0100.5e01.0203
C. 1000.5e01.0203
D. 0102.0300.0000
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 179
Which two Cisco IOS commands can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two.)
A. show ip ospf protocols
B. show ip ospf interfaces
C. show ip ospf database
D. show ip ospf neighbors
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 180
Which description is correct concerning the router operation when the command ip pim sparse-mode is used?
A. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
B. When a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
C. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterward, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.
D. Group members are joined to the shared tree by their local designated router.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit . Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role? A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reasons that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 7
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It converges quickly.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 13
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth
B. Bandwidth and Delay C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as ‘active’ in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of commands will properly configure the Core router?
A. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
B. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.13 0.0.0.242 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
C. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.16 0.0.0.15 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
D. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 18
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 21
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Correct Answer: BG
QUESTION 22
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router.
Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 26
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch: interface fastethernet 0/4 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111 switchport port-security maximum 2 swithcport port-security What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an unknown packet?
A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 33
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.
What information about the interfaces on the Main_Campus router is true?
A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.
D. The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.
E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.
C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit.
The show interfaces serial 0/1 command was issued on the R10-1 router. Based on the output displayed which statement is correct?
A. The cable connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is a DTE cable.
B. The R10-1 router can ping the router interface connected to the serial 0/1 interface.
C. The clock rate used for interface serial 0/1 of the R10-1 router is 1,544,000 bits per second.
D. The CSU used with the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router has lost connection to the service provider.
E. The interface of the remote router connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is using the default serial interface encapsulation.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 42
Refer to the exhibit.
RTA is configured with a basic configuration. The link between the two routers is operational and no routing protocols are configured on either router. The line shown in the exhibit is then added to router RTA . Should interface Fa0/0 on router RTB shut down, what effect will the shutdown have on router RTA?
A. A route to 172.16.14.0/24 will remain in the RTA routing table.
B. A packet to host 172.16.14.225 will be dropped by router RTA
C. Router RTA will send an ICMP packet to attempt to verify the route.
D. Because router RTB will send a poison reverse packet to router RTA, RTA will remove the route.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 44
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.
Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)
A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit.
The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit.
When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?
A. show frame-relay pvc
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame relay end-to-end
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit.
A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit.
What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit.
How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 54
What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?
A. It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B. IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.
C. A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations.
D. The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility over point-to-point configurations.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)
A. the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
B. the value of the local DLCI
C. the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
D. the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
E. the IP address of the local router
Correct Answer: BD
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QUESTION 1
A company plans to include Nonstop Forwarding and Bidirectional Forwarding Detection as a part of their network redundancy plan. In which two ways do NSF and BFD work together when different hardware platforms are compared? (Choose two.)
A. During supervisor engine or routing engine failover, the NSF feature will always ensure that the BFD at the peer router will not trigger a link down independent of the used hardware platform.
B. At some hardware platforms, BFD and NSF are not supported together. During supervisor engine or routing engine failover, the BFD at the peer router will trigger a link down.
C. To ensure that BFD at the peer router will not trigger a link down during NSF, the BFD packets must be processed fast enough, and, during supervisor engine or routing engine failover, by processing the BFD independent from the supervisor engine or routing engine.
D. Because BFD is always processed at the line cards (not at the supervisor engine or routing engine), a supervisor engine or routing engine failover will not affect the BFD peer router.
E. Because BFD is always processed at the supervisor engine or routing engine, a supervisor engine or routing engine failover will always trigger a link down at the peer router.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
A service provider would like to use Ethernet OAM to detect end-to-end connectivity failures between SP-SW1 and SP-SW2. In which two of these ways can you design this solution? (Choose two.)
A. Enable Y.1731 Connectivity Fault Management on the SP switches.
B. E-LMI PDUs must be forwarded over VPLS.
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol PDUs must be forwarded over the VPLS.
D. Use upward maintenance endpoints on the SP switches.
E. Enable IEEE 802.1ag Connectivity Fault Management on the SP switches.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 3
A network design shows two routers directly connected to an Ethernet switch using optical connections. There is an OSPF adjacency between the routers. In this design, which solution will ensure that interface down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP?
A. optimized OSPF SPF timers
B. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
C. automatic protection switching
D. optimized OSPF LSA timers
E. Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
A network designer is working with a company to improve convergence at the Layer 2 control plane and decides to use LACP. Which of these components does LACP use to create the system ID?
A. LACP system priority and switch MAC address
B. LACP port priority and switch MAC address
C. LACP port priority and port number
D. LACP system priority and port number
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
You are designing a spanning-tree network for a small campus. Which two of these options would result in a trouble-free spanning-tree network design? (Choose two.)
A. Convert all ports to trunk ports, prune off the VLANs that you do not require, and minimize the number of blocking ports.
B. Introduce Layer 3 VLANs (SVIs) and prune off the VLANs that you do not require.
C. Convert all the ports to trunk and enable BackboneFast.
D. Convert all the ports to trunk and enable UplinkFast between all the links.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 6
A network designer is redesigning an enterprise campus network to ensure that Ethernet switches proactively attempt to reconnect after a fiber cut. In the design, they will have to address areas where fiber cuts exist on campus from past troubleshooting, where a single fiber is disconnected in the fiber pair, leading to looping. Which feature could be implemented in the design to allow the Spanning Tree Protocol on the switches to be protected?
A. loop guard
B. UniDirectional Link Detection
C. UniDirectional Link Detection aggressive mode
D. root guard
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
A switched network is being designed to support a manufacturing factory. Due to cost constraints, fiber-based connectivity is not an option. Which design allows for a stable network when there is a risk of interference from the manufacturing hardware in use on the factory floor?
A. Design the network to include UDLD to detect unidirectional links and take them out of service.
B. Design the network to include EtherChannel bundles to prevent a single-link failure from taking down a switch interconnection point.
C. Design the network to include loop guard to prevent a loop in the switched network when a link has too much interference.
D. Design the network to include BackboneFast on all devices to accelerate failure convergence times.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
If IEEE 802.1w is in use for this network design, what are two locations where spanning-tree root can be placed to ensure the least-disruptive Layer 2 failover for clients within VLANs 3 and 4? (Choose two.)
A. Switch A
B. Switch B
C. Switch C
D. Switch D
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9
A service provider has a Resilient Ethernet Protocol ring running as a metro backbone between its locations in one city. A customer wants to connect one site with one box redundant to the Resilient Ethernet Protocol ring at two different service provider locations. How can this be done without producing any Layer 2 loops within the network design?
A. Spanning tree at the service provider side only must be enabled.
B. Spanning tree at the customer side only must be enabled.
C. Flex Links at the service provider side only must be enabled.
D. Flex Links at the customer side only must be enabled.
E. EtherChannel at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
F. Spanning tree at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
G. Flex Links at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
Your company designed a network to allow server VLANs in a data center to span all access switches. In the design, Layer 3 VLAN interfaces and HSRP are
configured on the aggregation switches. In which three ways should the design of the STP domain be optimized for server and application performance? (Choose three.)
A. Use loop guard on access ports.
B. Use PortFast on access ports.
C. Use root guard on access ports.
D. Align Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding paths.
E. Use BPDU Skew Detection on access ports.
F. Explicitly determine root and backup root bridges.
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 11
You have created a network design that has two point-to-point Metro Ethernet circuits extending a single production VLAN between two data centers. Under normal circumstances, one circuit will carry traffic and spanning tree will block the other. If the company wants you to make use of both circuits to carry production traffic, which two technologies and features will you investigate to integrate into your network design? (Choose two.)
A. EtherChannel
B. MST
C. Multichassis EtherChannel
D. PVST+
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
Voice traffic between two campus enterprise networks is growing. The network designers decide to add a second 10-Mb Metro Ethernet service parallel to their original 10-Mb service in order to provide more bandwidth and diversity. The QoS profile will be the same on the new 10-Mb service due to the voice stability on the first Metro Ethernet link. When the second link is added to the OSPF domain, which traffic design consideration would have the most impact on the voice traffic when both links are active?
A. per-destination IP address basis
B. per-flow basis
C. per-packet basis
D. per-source IP address basis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
You work as a network designer for a company that is replacing their Frame Relay WAN with an MPLS VPN service, where the PE-to-CE routing protocol is BGP. The company has 3000 routes in their distribution routers, and they would like to advertise their access routers through the MPLS network. Their service provider, however, only supports 1000 prefixes per VRF. Which two design solutions can be applied to ensure that your access routers will be able to reach all devices in your network? (Choose two.)
A. Use prefix lists on your distribution routers to control which routes are sent to the MPLS network.
B. On your distribution routers, configure null routes and aggregate routes for the prefixes in your network.
C. Configure your distribution routers to send a default route to the MPLS network.
D. Summarize the routes on the MPLS WAN interfaces of your distribution routers.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 14
You are designing a network that will run EIGRP over a Metro Ethernet service that does not employ a link-loss technology. What will be the impact on convergence if there is a break in the end-to-end Layer 2 connectivity within the service provider network?
A. The routers will immediately lose their adjacencies and converge.
B. The routing protocol will not converge until the hold timers have expired.
C. The switch ports connected to the router will go down and the routers will immediately converge.
D. The VLAN on the switches will go inactive, the ports associated on the switch will go down, and the routers will immediately converge.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
Acme Corporation hired you as a network designer to upgrade their network so that it supports IPv4 and IPv6 multicast. Which two protocols are needed on the LAN switch? (Choose two.)
A. PIM sparse mode
B. IGMP snooping
C. PIM snooping
D. Source Specific Multicast
E. MLD snooping
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 16
A new video multicast application is deployed in the network. The application team wants to use the 239.0.0.1 multicast group to stream the video to users. They want to know if this choice will impact the existing multicast design. What impact will their choice have on the existing multicast design?
A. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, a flood of PIM packets that have to be processed by the CPU and hosts will be sent by the routers in the network.
B. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, the rendezvous point has to send out constant group updates that will have to be processed by the CPU and hosts.
C. The multicast application sends too many packets into the network and the network infrastructure drops packets.
D. The 239.0.0.1 group address maps to a system MAC address, and all multicast traffic will have to be sent to the CPU and flooded out all ports.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
A customer is using a service provider to provide a WAN backbone for a 30-site network. In establishing the network, the customer must work within these constraints:
The customer has a self-managed MPLS backbone.
The VPLS WAN backbone of the service provider does not support PIM snooping.
Multicast VPN must be used for multicast support inside some VRFs.
What can the customer do so that multicast traffic is NOT flooded to all sites?
A. Configure static GRE tunnels and run the MPLS and multicast VPN inside these GRE tunnels.
B. Use Label Switched Multicast for the multicast transport.
C. Use PIM-SSM as the multicast routing protocol with IETF Rosen Draft multicast VPN.
D. Configure a static mapping between multicast addresses and MAC addresses.
E. Use GET VPN to encrypt the multicast packets inside the WAN.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
What are two design advantages to using virtual port channel? (Choose two.)
A. enhanced system availability through multiple systems
B. reduced Spanning Tree Protocol convergence time
C. loop management without use of Spanning Tree Protocol
D. ability to use Spanning Tree Protocol blocked ports to forward traffic
E. enhanced ability to recover from Spanning Tree Protocol changes
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
In this design, which technology would provide for the best use of resources to provide end-to- end Layer 2 connectivity?
A. MSTP
B. PAgP
C. Multichassis EtherChannel
D. LACP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
What are three key design principles when using a classic hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
A. The core layer controls access to resources for security.
B. The core layer should be configured with minimal complexity.
C. The core layer is designed first, followed by the distribution layer and then the access layer.
D. A hierarchical network design model aids fault isolation.
E. The core layer provides server access in a small campus.
F. A hierarchical network design facilitates changes.
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 21
Which three techniques can be used to improve fault isolation in an enterprise network design? (Choose three.)
A. aggregate routing information on an OSPF ABR
B. fully meshed distribution layer
C. Equal-Cost Multipath routing
D. EIGRP query boundaries
E. multiple IS-IS flooding domains
F. tuned Spanning Tree Protocol timers
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 22
When you design a network, when would it be required to leak routes into a Level 1 area?
A. when a multicast RP is configured in the nonbackbone area
B. when MPLS L3VPN PE devices are configured in the Level 1 areas
C. when equal cost load balancing is required between the backbone and nonbackbone areas
D. when unequal cost load balancing is required between the backbone and nonbackbone areas
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
In this network design, where should summarization occur to provide the best summarization and optimal paths during a single-failure incident as well as during normal operation?
A. a single identical summary for all the branch offices placed on routers 1A, 1B, 2A, and 2B
B. two summaries on 1A and 1B, and two summaries on 2A and 2B
C. a single identical summary on 3A and 3B
D. a single summary on each aggregation device for the branches connected to them
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What are two benefits of following a structured hierarchical and modular design? (Choose two.)
A. Each component can be designed independently for its role.
B. Each component can be managed independently based on its role.
C. Each component can be funded by different organizations based on its role.
D. Each component can support multiple roles based on the requirements.
E. Each component can provide redundancy for applications and services.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
In a large enterprise network with multiple data centers and thousands of access devices, OSPF is becoming unstable due to link flapping. The current design has the access devices multihomed to large aggregation routers at each of the data centers. How would you redesign the network to improve stability?
A. Add a layer of regional Layer 3 aggregation devices, but leave the ABR function on the data center aggregation routers.
B. Add a layer of regional Layer 2 aggregation devices, but leave the ABR function on the data center aggregation routers.
C. Add a layer of regional Layer 3 aggregation devices and move the ABR function to the regional aggregation device.
D. Add a layer of regional Layer 2 aggregation devices and move the ABR function to the regional aggregation device.
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 50
Please choose the location of RAI configuration from the following options.
A. On a gatekeeper
B. On a gateway
C. On both a gatekeeper and a gateway
D. On a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: To allow gatekeepers to make intelligent call routing decisions, the gateway reports the status of its resource availability to its gatekeeper. Resources that are monitored are DS0 channels and DSP channels. The gateway reports its resource status to the gatekeeper with the use of RAS Resource Availability Indication (RAI). When a monitored resource falls below a configurable threshold, the gateway sends an RAI to the gatekeeper that indicates that the gateway is almost out of resources. When the available resources then cross above another configurable threshold, the gateway sends an RAI that indicates that the resource depletion condition no longer exists. This feature was included in Cisco IOS Software Release 12.0(5)T on the Cisco AS5300 gateway, and Cisco IOS Software Release 12.1(1)T for other gateways in H.323 version 2 http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk1077/ technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f67.shtml
QUESTION 51
You have been employed as a network technician in a middle-sized company. Suppose that the default dial peer is matched. Please choose a capability that you must configure.
A. disable DID
B. invoke a Tcl application
C. enable dtmf-relay
D. disable VAD
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dial-peer 0(pid:0) has a default configuration that cannot be changed. The defaultdial-peer 0fails to
negotiate non-default capabilities, services, and applications such as:
QUESTION 52
Which four of the following options are Cisco-supported IP telephony deployment models?
A. Single site
B. Multisite with distributed call processing
C. Multisite with centralized call processing
D. Clustering over the IP WAN
E. Transcoding
Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 53
MGCP use which call control model?
A. Distributed
B. Centralized
C. Ad hoc
D. Hybrid
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 54
If you are required to configure a router to use MGCP on a digital port, which measure will you take?
A. Add the application mgcpapp subcommand to the dial peer
B. Add the service mgcp subcommand to the dial peer
C. Add the parameter application mgcpapp to the ds0-group controller subcommand.
D. Add the service mgcp parameter to the ds0-group controller subcommand
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 55
As a network technician, you should be familiar with various commands. Which command displays a count of successful and unsuccessful control commands?
A. show mgcp calls
B. show mgcp statistics
C. show mgcp
D. debug mgcp statistics
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 56
In a SIP direct call setup, which message will be sent by the originating UAC to the UAS of the recipient?
A. INVITE
B. RINGING
C. ACK
D. OK
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 57
Which two of the following signaling protocols are peer-to-peer protocols? (Select two.)
A. H.323
B. MGCP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 58
In a Cisco UCM single-site deployment, please choose the maximum number of IP phones that can register with a UCM cluster.
A. 2500
B. 7500
C. 10,000
D. 30,000
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 59
In a Cisco UCM multisite WAN with centralized call-processing deployment model, what redundancy feature should be configured on remote site routers to supply basic IP telephony services in the event of a WAN outage?
A. AAR
B. SRST
C. CAC
D. V3PN
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 60
Look at the following options carefully. Which two tasks are performed by the RAS signaling function of H.225.0? (Select two.)
A. Performs bandwidth changes.
B. Transports audio messages between endpoints.
C. Performs disengage procedures between endpoints and a gatekeeper.
D. Allows endpoints to create connections between call agents.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 61
As a network administrator, you should be familiar with various commands. Which command can be used to designate a source IP address for a voice gateway?
A. h323-gateway voip interface 186
B. h323-gateway voip h323-id
C. h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr
D. voice service
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 62
Look at the following options. Which are SIP servers? (Select four.)
A. Registrar
B. Redirect
C. Location
D. Proxy
Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 63
The knowledge about RAS message is very important. Which of the following RAS messages can be sent by using either unicast or multicast?
A. RRQ
B. ARQ
C. GRQ
D. RIP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Typically, RAS communications is carried out via UDP through port 1719 (unicast) and 1718 (multicast)
QUESTION 64
Given the following configuration, what IP address will GK1 use to send and receive RAS messages?
GK1 (config)#interface serial 0/0/0
GK1 (config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.0
GK1 (config-if)#exit
GK1 (config)#interface serial 0/0/1
GK1 (config-if)#ip address 172.16.0.2 255.255.255.0
GK1 (config-if)#exit
GK1 (config)#gatekeeper
GK1 (config-gk)#zone local SanJose cisco.com 172.16.0.2
GK1 (config-gk)#zone remote Austin cisco.com 192.168.0.1
GK1 (config-gk)#zone prefix SanJose 2…
GK1 (config-gk)#zone prefix Austin 3…
A. 192.168.0.2
B. 172.16.0.2
C. 192.168.0.1
D. RAS messages will be load balanced between 192.168.0.2 and 172.16.0.2
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 65
You are a network technician working in the Network Company. Recently, users complain that they cannot call the PSTN. With the help of testing, you find that the gateway is not switching to the secondary call agent when the primary call agent is unreachable. In order to permit the MGCP gateway to take use of a different call agent once the primary fails, which configuration should you make?
A. Add ccm-manager fallback-mgcp command to the gateway.
B. Add ccm-manager redundant-host command to the gateway
C. Assign a Cisco Unified CallManager group including the secondary call agent to the gateway
D. Define gateway as a non-gatekeeper-controlled intercluster trunk with the secondary Cisco Unified CallManager defined.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 66
Which RAS message does a gateway use to request admission to a network and to also request phone number to IP address resolution?
A. ARQ
B. IRQ
C. LRQ
D. RRQ
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Admission messages between endpoints (like a gateway) and gatekeepers provide the basis for call admissions and bandwidth control. Gatekeepers authorize access to H.323 networks with the confirmation of or rejection of an admission request. This table defines the RAS admission messages http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk1077/technologies_tech_note09186a00800c5e0d.shtml
QUESTION 67
As a network technician, you should be familiar with RTCP. Which of the following statements best describes a function of RTCP?
A. RTCP provides encryption, message authentication and integrity, and anti-replay service for voice streams.
B. RTCP uses even-numbered UDP ports in the range 16,384??0?10?0?43??ì?0?1C32,767 to transport voice payloads
C. RTCP provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow
D. RTCP caches an RTP packet-Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers in the routers at each end of a link, resulting in lower bandwidth demand for subsequent RTP packets.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 68
You are a voice technician. If you are required to solve latency issues in a VoIP network, which measures will you take? (Select three.)
A. Use dejitter buffers
B. Increase bandwidth
C. Prioritize voice packets
D. Fragment data packets
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 69
Please choose two methods of LRQ forwarding from the following items. (Select two.)
A. LRQ init
B. LRQ blast
C. LRQ static
D. LRQ sequential
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 70
You are a network technician with many years’ experience. Many users complain that they can hear echo when their calls go out an H.323 gateway. You have made some testing for the gateway and have changed the configuration. So the ERL level turns to be 6 dB. Furthermore, the echo-cancel coverage value is raised to 64 ms. Please choose the effect on the voice quality after this modification.
A. Consonants will be chopped by the echo canceller.
B. The increase in echo-cancel coverage will have no effect on voice quality.
C. The ends of sentences will be chopped by the echo canceller.
D. The echo canceller will take 2-3 seconds longer to converge at the beginning of the call.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: echo-cancel coveragecommand Adjusts the coverage size of the echo canceller. This command enables cancellation of voice that is sent out through the interface and received back on the same interface within the configured amount of time. If thelocal loop(the distance from the interface to the connected equipment that is producing the echo) is longer, the configured value of this command should be extended. If you configure a longer value for this command, it takes the echo canceller longer to converge. In this case, the user might hear a slight echo when the connection is initially set up. If the configured value for this command is too short, the user might hear some echo for the duration of the call because the echo canceller is not canceling the longer-delay echoes. There is no echo or echo cancellation on the network side (for example, the non-POTS side of the connection).
QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit.
When Alice at extension 2001 places a call to Bob at extension 3001, Bob hears Alice’s voice twice. What type of echo is this classified as?
A. Talker echo.
B. Listener echo.
C. Tail circuit echo.
D. Front end circuit echo.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 72
Refer to the exhibit.
The exhibit shows the output of debug isdn q931. An inbound PSTN call was received by an MGCP gateway that is registered with a Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The call failed to ring extension 3001. If the phone at extension 3001 is registered and reachable through the gateway inbound CSS, which two actions can resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Change the significant digits for inbound calls to 4 in the gateway configuration in CiscoUnified Communications Manager.
B. Configure the digit strip 4 on the MGCP gateway configuration in Cisco UnifiedCommunications Manager under Incoming Called Party Settings.
C. Configure a translation pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager that can beaccessed by the gateway CSS to truncate the called number to four digits.
D. Configure a called-party transformation CSS on the gateway in Cisco UnifiedCommunications Manager that includes a pattern that transforms the number from ten digits to four digits.
E. Configure a voice translation profile in the MGCP Cisco IOS gateway with a voice translation rule that truncates the number from ten digits to four digits.
F. Configure the Cisco IOS command num-exp 2288223001 3001 on the gateway.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 73
Which command should you use to resolve a jerky speed issue?
A. playout-delay
B. show voice port
C. comfort-noise
D. echo-cancel enable
E. echo-cancel coverage
F. comfort-echo
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 74
You are trying to access the GUI of Cisco Unified Communications Manager. However, it displays a “not accessible” error. In Cisco Unified Serviceability, which two services should you check for and ensure are running on the Control Center Network Services page? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Certificate Expiry Monitor
B. Cisco CallManager
C. Cisco Trust Verification Service
D. System Application Agent
E. Cisco Tomcat Stats Servlet
F. Cisco Tomcat
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 75
As a voice administrator, you have received reports on issues with call dropping and call failures over a period of time. While troubleshooting, you find that there is a Code Yellow alert due to high CPU usage. You collect the logs that are shown below from the CLI of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Nov5 05:12:15, cm01, Error, Cisco CallManager, ccm: 147897: Nov 05 05:12:15.268 UTC: %CCM_CALLMANAGER-CALLMANAGER-3-CodeYellowExit: CodeYellowExit Expected Average Delay:0 Entry Latency:20 Exit Latency:8 Sample Size:10Time Spent in Code Yellow:2 Number of Calls Rejected Due to Call Throttling:60 Total Code Yellow Exit:14 High Priority Queue Depth:0 Normal Priority Queue Depth:5 Low Priority Queue Depth:4 Cluster ID:StandAloneCluster Node ID:cms01, 3653 From these logs, what does “Time Spent in Code Yellow” indicate?
A. A critical overload condition exists that may impact phone registration after 2 hours of this alert.
B. The server stayed in a Code Yellow state for 2 seconds.
C. The server stayed in a Code Yellow state for 2 milliseconds.
D. The server stayed in a Code Yellow state for 2 minutes.
E. The server needs a reboot within 2 hours.
F. There is a call failure and, as a result, one call is rejected every 2 milliseconds.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 76
A customer is trying to register an IP phone. During the registration process, the IP phone receives the configuration file (.xml) from the TFTP server. Which input can you find in the configuration file that is downloaded to the IP phone?
A. firmware to be loaded on IP phone
B. extension number
C. speed dials
D. valid locally significant certificate
E. location of the DHCP server
F. IP address of the IP phone
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 77
Which port number is used as a backhaul for Media Gateway Control Protocol?
A. 2426
B. 2427
C. 2428
D. 2429
E. 2456
F. 2458
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 78
You are in the final stages of upgrading the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and you are waiting for dbreplication to complete. Which command should you execute from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher to verify status reports and to check that all the tables are synchronized?
A. utils dbreplication runtimestate
B. utils dbreplication status all
C. utils dbreplication status
D. utils service list
E. utils dbreplication quickaudit
F. utils core active
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 79
In a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster, you make a few changes to the publisher server. However, the phones that are registered with the subscriber server do not receive these changes. You verify that the publisher and subscriber servers are up and running in the cluster.
What do you need to do to resolve this problem?
A. Reboot the publisher server.
B. Reboot the subscriber servers.
C. Manually reload the configuration on the phones.
D. Fix the replication between the publisher and subcriber servers.
E. Manually copy the database changes from the publisher to the subscriber.
F. Re-set up the database replication between the publisher and subscriber.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 80
Which default switchover method is used by the SCCP client to connect to another Cisco Unified Communications Manager after losing connectivity with the first Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. immediate
B. urgent
C. graceful
D. panic
E. recovery
F. static
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
What are three requirements for Quality of Service for voice calls? (Choose three.)
A. jitter less than or equal to 30 ms
B. PoE-supported Layer 2 switches used to connect IP Phones
C. one-way latency less than or equal to 150 ms
D. jitter less than or equal to 45 ms
E. guaranteed bandwidth of 384 kbps for a voice call
F. loss less than or equal to 1 percent
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 82
If you need to avoid choppy speech, what is the maximum tolerable round-trip delay between two VoIP endpoints?
A. 100 ms
B. 200 ms
C. 300 ms
D. 400 ms
E. 500 ms
F. 800 ms
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
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