Category: Cisco

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QUESTION 86
One of the following attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are requesting a TCP connection to a server. Which is it?
A. brute force
B. Trojan horse
C. reconnaissance
D. denial of service
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
Match the corresponding command and configuration task. (Not all options are used.)
1.
login password certways1

2.
enable password certways2

3.
enable secret certways4

4.
service password-encryption

5.
line vty 0 4 password certways5

6.
line console 0 password certways3

A. encrypt all clear text passwords II.protect access to the user mode prompt III.set privileged mode encrypted password IV.set password to allow Telnet connections
B. set privileged mode clear text password
C. I-4,II-3,III-5,IV-2,V-6
D. I-4,II-5,III-3,IV-2,V-6
E. I-4,II-6,III-3,IV-5,V-2
F. I-4,II-6,III-5,IV-3,V-2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
You need to create a security plan for the certways network. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
Topic – Implement and verify WAN links.
Describe different methods for connecting to a WAN Configure and verify a basic WAN serial connection A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 90
Two of the following statements correctly describe the following network. What are them? (Choose two.)

A. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 91
You need to create a security plan for the certways network. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. 64 Kbit/sec
B. 32 Kbit/sec
C. 512 Kbit/sec
D. 128 Kbit/sec
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You are configuring P4S-R to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)

A. ip address
B. no shutdown
C. encapsulation ppp
D. authentication pap
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 93
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways.You want to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown. What kind of cable should be used?

A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – fiber optic cable
4 – rollover cable

B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
D. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
Which of the following are included WAN data link encapsulation types? (Choose two.)
A. DSL
B. T1
C. PPP
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 95
Which item gives the correct relationship between WAN connection technology and the associated communication link type? 1.PSTN 2.ATM 3.Leased Line 4.Frame Relay
A. Point to Point II.Circuit Switched III.Packet Switched IV.Cell Switched
B. I-3;II-1;III-4;IV-2
C. I-3;II-2;III-1;IV-4
D. I-3;II-1;III-2;IV-4
E. I-3;II-2;III-4;IV-1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Part of the certways WAN is shown below:
Two buildings on the Los Angeles campus of a small company must be connected to use Ethernet with a
bandwidth of at least 100 Mbps. The company is concerned about possible problems from voltage
potential differences between the two buildings. Which media type should be used for the connection?

A. coaxial cable
B. UTP cable
C. STP cable
D. fiber optic cable
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
For the following items, which signaling standard is in charge of managing the connection and maintaining status between the router and the local Frame Relay switch?
A. CIR
B. DLCI
C. FECN
D. LMI
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 98
John works as a network administrator. It is difficult for him to establish a serial link between a Cisco router
and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation.
Which two options are correct about this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary “Type” field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
B. Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link
C. PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
D. HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 99
Which two characteristics belong to a Frame Relay point-to-point subinterface? (Choose two.)
A. requires the frame-relay map command
B. resolves NBMA split horizon issues
C. maps one IP subnet across multiple DLCIs
D. maps one IP subnet per DLCI
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 100
Examine the following technologies, which one will you use when a router connected to a LAN has only one WAN interface, but multiple virtual circuits are needed?
A. DSL
B. ADSL
C. Cable
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 101
Host P4S-F sends out an ARP request to begin communicating with the server. How do you think the devices in the topology will respond to this request?

A. Router P4S-SFX will forward the ARP request to the ILM router.
B. The P4S-ILM router will respond with the IP address of the WWW server.
C. Router P4S-SFX will respond with the MAC address of its Fa0/0 interface.
D. Switch P4S-SWB will block the request since the server is not on the LAN.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
C. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 103
The certways WAN connection is shown below:
Based on this diagram shown above, which two devices can be used to complete the connection between
the WAN router at the customer site and the service provider? (Choose two.)

A. multiplexer
B. ATM switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. modem
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 104
Topic – Describe the operation of data networks.
Describe the purpose and functions of various network devices Select the components required to meet a given network specification Use the OSI and TCP/IP models and their associated protocols to explain how data flows in a network Describe common networking applications including web applications Describe the purpose and basic operation of the protocols in the OSI and TCP models Describe the impact of applications (Voice Over IP and Video Over IP) on a network Interpret network diagrams Determine the path between two hosts across a network Describe the components required for network and Internet communications Identify and correct common network problems at layers 1, 2, 3 and 7 using a layered model approach Differentiate between LAN/WAN operation and features
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 105
Host P4S-F, which needs to build the packet, has received the ARP reply. Two of the following information will be placed in the header of the packet that leaves host P4S-F if host P4S-F is to communicate with the WWW server. What is it? (Choose two)

A. The source address will be the IP address of host P4S-F.
B. The destination address will be the IP address of the WWW server.
C. The destination address will be the IP address of interface Fa0/0 of router P4S-SFX.
D. The destination address will be the IP address of interface Fa0/0 of the P4S-ILM router.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 106
As it is shown in the exhibit, two World Wide Web documents from the WWW server Host are displayed by P4S-F in two browser windows at the same time. How did the data find its way to the correct browser windows?

A. The browsers track the data by the URL.
B. TCP port numbers are used to direct the data to the correct application window.
C. The OSI application layer tracks the conversations and directs them to the correct brower.
D. The IP source addresses of the packets will be used to direct the data to the correct browser window.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
You work in a medium-sized company .The network performance of your company has slowed to the point that users are complaining. In order to resolve this problem, You are asked to determine what the users might be doing to cause the slowdown. Which two types of network services or applications most likely cause slowdown? (Choose two.)
A. social networking web sites
B. blogs and other online browsing
C. PC-based VoIP services
D. online video sites
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 108
Before a workstation is able to exchange HTTP packets with a web server, what must occur?
A. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 109
Look at the following exhibit. Connection problems are reported in the internetwork. By the output from P4S-HostA, what is the problem indicated?

A. The routing on P4S-R2 is not functioning properly.
B. The gateway address of P4S-HostA is incorrect or not configured.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of P4S-S1 is down.
D. An access list is applied to an interface of P4S-R3.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 110
Choose from the following three that are found in a TCP header, but not in a UDP header? (Choose three.)
A. window size
B. destination port
C. sequence number
D. acknowledgment number
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 111
Match the corresponding commands and functions. (Not all options are used.) 1.ping 10.0.0.1 2.ping 127.0.0.1 3.tracert 4.ipconfig/all 5.arp -a 6.telnet
A. displays PC network configuration
II. displays the list of routers on a path to a network destination III.tests VTY configuration
IV. tests TCP/IP protocol stack
B. displays IP to MAC address mappings on a Windows PC
C. I-4,II-3,III-6,IV-2,V-5
D. I-4,II-3,III-1,IV-6,V-5
E. I-4,II-3,III-6,IV-5,V-2
F. I-4,II-3,III-5,IV-6,V-2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 112
Choose from the following two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs. (Choose two.)
A. filtering frames based on MAC addresses
B. increasing the size of broadcast domains
C. decreasing the number of collision domains
D. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 113
Data is divided into smaller pieces for transmission when files are transferred between a host and an FTP server. After these pieces reach the destination host, they should be reassembled to reconstruct the original file. What is used for the reassembly of these pieces into the correct order?
A. the TTL in the IP header
B. the sequence number in the TCP header
C. the Start Frame Delimiter in the 802.3 Preamble
D. the frame check sequence in the Ethernet frame trailer
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 114
On the basis of the exhibit below. After adding host A to the network, Host A is unable to communicate on
the network. A ping issued on the host to address 127.0.0.1 fails.
What is the problem?

A. The remote host at 127.0.0.1 is unreachable.
B. The default gateway is incorrect.
C. The IP address of host A is incorrect.
D. The TCP/IP protocols are not loaded.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
Attaching an Ethernet cable to a PC NIC and then attaching to a switch port. The PC power is turned on and the switch port link LED becomes green. Which two conditions does the link light indicate? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B. Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.
C. If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100 Mb/s.
D. The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.
Correct Answer: AD
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Cisco 700-701 Real Exam Questions And Answers, Provides Cisco 700-701 Exam Dumps Guaranteed SuccessCisco 700-701 Real Exam Questions And Answers, Provides Cisco 700-701 Exam Dumps Guaranteed Success

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QUESTION 1
What is a Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller?
A. A Cisco ACI fabric controller with open API
B. A third-party SDN controller that is compatible with all data center switches
C. A controller module in the Nexus 9500 Switch
D. A virtual application development environment Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems- management/aci-fabric-controller/at-a-glance-c45-730001.pdf
QUESTION 2
Which statement about the Cisco APIC is true?
A. It stores policies.
B. It provides a physical connectivity port to a legacy network
C. It provides a test environment for applications.
D. It stores the storage network profile. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified- fabric/white-paper-c11-730021.html (first para)
QUESTION 3
What is driving customer interests in SDN?
A. Return on investment
B. Programmability/ automation
C. Application bandwidth
D. Security compliance
E. Big data analytics Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which customer requirement is addressed by an ACI solution?
A. Storage consolidation
B. Multi-hypervisor environments
C. Database performance improvement
D. Big data analytics Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified- fabric/ solution-brief-c22-729866.html (challenges, second para)
QUESTION 5
Which statement about the Cisco APIC is true?
A. It provides the application health score.
B. It provides a physical connectivity port to a legacy network
C. It stores the storage network profile.
D. It provides a test environment for applications.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
APIC Features and Capabilities

Centralized application-level policy engine for physical, virtual, and cloud infrastructures ·Detailed
visibility, telemetry, and health scores by application and by tenant

Designed around open standards and open APIs

Robust implementation of multi-tenant security, quality of service (QoS), and high availability

Integration with management systems such as VMware, Microsoft, and OpenStack Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/cloud-systems-management/application-policy- infrastructure-controller-apic/index.html

QUESTION 6
How many I/O module slots are available in the Cisco Nexus 9504 Switch?
A. 4 slots
B. 3 slots
C. 2 slots
D. 1 slot
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/hw/n9504_hig/b_n9504_h ardware_install_guide/b_n9504_hardware_install_guide_chapter_01.html (see the first table on the page, second row, first column)
QUESTION 7
What is a Cisco Nexus 9500 Series Switch?
A. An all-in-one SDN solution
B. A modular switch
C. A fixed top-of-rack switch
D. A virtual software switch
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-9000-series- switches/white-paper-c11-729987.html (see the first paragraph on the page)
QUESTION 8
Which two switch port count options are available on the Cisco Nexus 9300 Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. 96 ports
B. 48 ports
C. 24 ports
D. 72 ports
E. 128 ports
Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-9000-series- switches/ datasheet-c78-729405.html (see table 1)
QUESTION 9
Which customer initiative often leads to an ACI sales opportunity?
A. Storage consolidation
B. Network replacement or upgrade
C. Business process outsourcing
D. Security assessment
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two data center use cases are often drivers for an SDN solution? (Choose two.)
A. Mainframe terminals
B. Secure multi-tenancy
C. BYOD
D. Applications
E. Guest wireless access
Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two options are the two ACI solution components? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Cloud Services Router 1000V
B. Cisco Nexus 9000 Switches
C. Spine Leaf architecture
D. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E. Cisco Unified Computing System B-Series Servers
Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems- management/aci-fabric-controller/at-a-glance-c45-729864.pdf (page 2)

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of these trends is the main driver toward smart grid technology?
A. increased supply, which requires the integration of distributed generation sources
B. reduced demand, which causes an increase in demand and peak load
C. compliance with regulations involving government funding and rules
D. increased carbon footprint
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
How many levels or types of priority can be assigned on a Cisco TAC case?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
Which statement reflects the overall Cisco Smart Grid vision?
A. Sell the existing Cisco IP-based products from end-to-end of our utility customer’s smart grid deployments.
B. Design and architect an end-to-end communications infrastructure that is integrated with the power grid.
C. Integrate intelligent routing protocols into existing electrical grids.
D. Create a single infrastructure for unified communications from electrical generation plants to all primary and secondary substations.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of these is a grouping of elements that are part of the Cisco Substation Automation

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QUESTION 84
NEEDS VERIFICATION. Refer to the exhibit.

What must you do to resolve the connectivity problems over the fc1/7 interface?
A. The interface port type must be set toTE_port.
B. The VSAN load balancing scheme must be changed.
C. The Domain ID on the switch must be Changed.
D. The Beacon should be turned on.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
A customer is connecting some new Cisco MDS switches to an existing Brocade SAN network. The goal is to replace the existing Brocade switches with Cisco switches, while maintaining the existing multivendor SAN fabric. What must be configured to use standard interoperability mo —- between the multivendor equipment?
A. Only VSAN 1 can be used. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 37 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
B. Domain IDs between 97 and 127 must be used.
C. Only port-based zoning can be used.
D. Full zone set distribution must be used.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which command in used to configure VLAN 100 on the Gigabit Ethernet 2/1 interface through which iSCSI-enabled servers should be connected to the Fibre Channel targets?
A. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 100
B. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 vlan 100
C. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 encapsulation isl 100
D. interface gigabitethernet2/1 vlan 100

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit.

What alarm will be sent for this RMON event?
A. FCIP link failure
B. Fibre Channel link down
C. Fibre Channel link failure “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 38 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
D. Fibre Channel link reestablishment

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
You have deployed a Fibre Channel network with iSCSI-attached servers and clients in multiple IP networks. In you Fibre Channel network, you have deployed a Cisco MDS 9222i switch as an iSCSI gateway. Which option prevents clients from attaching to different iSCSI virtual targets that are used by servers?
A. Use iSCSI proxy initiator mode on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces for the server side.
B. Deploy static iSCSI initiator maps and attach them to Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
C. Dedicate one Gigabit Ethernet interface for servers and restrict those iSCSI virtual target advertising to the dedicated Gigabit Ethernet interface.
D. Enable the trespass option for the iSCSI virtual targets.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 39 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

The customer network has blue and red VSANs redundantly connected. Path A having a 4-ISL port channel and Path B having a 2-ISL port channel. Changes to the physical topology are not allowed for the next six months. All the traffic now flows over Path A with congestion occurring on both VSANs at peak times. The blue VSAN is, on the average, generating four times the amount of data than that of the red VSAN. How can the blue and red VSAN traffic be separated over the two paths, while preserving redundancy?
A. Make a zone in the blue VSAN with only ISL ports on Path B, and make another zone in the red VSAN with only ISL ports on Path A.
B. Make a zone in the blue VSAN with only ISL ports on Path A, and make another zone in the red VSAN with only ISL ports on Path B.
C. In the blue VSAN, give Path B a lower FSPF cost than Path A, in the red VSAN, give Path A a lower FSPF cost than Path B.
D. In the blue VSAN, give Path A a lower FSPF cost than Path B, in the red VSAN, give Path B a lower FSPF cost than Path A.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Refer to the exhibit.

Which action should you take to connect the Cisco MDS Switch to an existing Brocade and McData multivendor using interoperability mode 1?
A. Reconfigure the DomainID to 100.
B. Change the sWWN using the McData OUI.
C. Force the principal switch election with priority 1.
D. Disable the VSAN functionality.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. Which two options do you need to deploy for the topology depicted to interconnect the MDS (SAN) and the Nexus 5000 (LAN)? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel expansion module
B. consolidated network adapter
C. Fibre Channel license package
D. FCoE-enabled module
E. generation 3 line cards

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 41 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

What is the effect of enabling the VSAN scope with number 500 when creating the SalesUser role?
A. The user connecting to the Fibre Channel fabric would be restricted to VSAN 500.
B. The user would be able to use allowed commands in VSAN 500 only.
C. The user would be excluded from VSAN 500.
D. The user would be able to create VSAN from 1 to 500.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Which two Cisco MDS features allow fabric-wide consistent and VSAN-independent configurations of the zoning information? (Choose two.)
A. CFS
B. sWWN
C. Fibre Channel alias
D. Device alias
E. Interface ID
F. port-based zoning

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about the EIGRP routing protocol are true? (Choose three)
A. EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including Hello, Database Description (DBD), Linkstate Request (LSR), Link-State Update (LSU), and LSAck.
B. EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.10.
C. EIGRP will not form a neighbor relationship with another peer when their AS number and K values, either or both are mismatched.
D. EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.9.
E. EIGRP will form a neighbor relationship with another peer even when their K values are mismatched.
F. EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including Hello, Update, Query, Reply, and ACK packets.
Correct Answer: BCF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.ietf.org/id/draft-savage-eigrp-00.txt (see eigrp packets) http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=27839
QUESTION 2
After DUAL calculations, a router has identified a successor route, but no routes have qualified as a feasible successor. In the event that the current successor goes down, what process will EIGRP use in the selection of a new successor?
A. EIGRP will find the interface with the lowest MAC address
B. The route will transition to the active state
C. The route will transition to the passive state
D. EIGRP will automatically use the route with the lowest feasible distance(FD)
E. EIGRP will automatically use the route with the lowest advertised distance(AD)
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation When a route (current successor) goes down, the router first checks its topology table for a feasible successor but it can’t find one. So it goes active on the that route to find a new successor by sending queries out to its neighbors requesting a path to the lost route.
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
We can not use passive-interfaces to accomplish this task because the “passive-interface…” command (in EIGRP or OSPF) will shut down the neighbor
relationship of these two routers (no hello packets are exchanged). And to filter routing updates we should configure a distribute list on R1 with an
access list that deny all and apply it to the outbound direction so that R1 can receive but cannot send routing updates.

QUESTION 4
EIGRP has been configured to operate over Frame Relay multipoint connections. What should the bandwidth command be set to?
A. the CIR rate of the lowest speed connection multiplied by the number of circuits
B. the CIR rate of the lowest speed connection
C. the CIR rate of the highest speed connection
D. the sum of all the CIRs divided by the number of connections
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If the multipoint network has different speeds allocated to the VCs, take the lowest CIR and simply multiply it by the number of circuits. This is because
in Frame-relay all neighbors share the bandwidth equally, regardless of the actual CIR of each individual PVC, so we have to get the lowest speed CIR
rate and multiply it by the number of circuits. This result will be applied on the main interface (or multipoint connection interface).

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

EIGRP is configured on all routes in the network. On a basis of the show ip eigrp topology output provided, what conclusion can be derived?
A. Router R1 can send traffic destined for network 10.6.1.0/24 out of interface FastEthernet0/0
B. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out before it declares the neighbor unreachable
C. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out inquiring for a second successor to network 10.6.1.0/24
D. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 in response to the query sent about network 10.6.1.0/24

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The “show ip eigrp topology” command lists all routes that EIGRP is aware of and shows whether EIGRP is actively processing information on that route.
Under most normal conditions, the routes should all be in a passive state and no EIGRP process are running for that route. If the routes are active, this
could indicate the dreaded stuck in active, or SIA, state.
The fields to note in this output are as follows:

P–Passive; no EIGRP computation is being performed. This is the ideal state. A–Active; EIGRP computations are “actively” being performed for this
destination. Routes constantly appearing in an active state indicate a neighbor or query problem.
Both are symptoms of the SIA problem.
U– Update; an update packet was sent to this destination. Q–Query; a query packet was sent to this destination. R– Reply; a reply packet was sent to
this destination. Route information– IP address of the route or network, its subnet mask, and the successor, or next hop to that network, or the feasible
successor.

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default
route to its neighbors?
A. R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0
B. R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
C. R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
D. R4(config-router)# default-information originate

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Unlike the ip default-gateway command, you can use ip default-network when ip routing is enabled on the Cisco router. When you configure ip default-network the router considers routes to that network for installation as the gateway of last resort on the router. For every network configured with ip default-network, if a router has a route to that network, that route is flagged as a candidate default route. Gateways of last resort selected using the ip default-network command are propagated differently depending on which routing protocol is propagating the default route. For IGRP and EIGRP to propagate the route, the network specified by the ip default-network command must be known to IGRP or EIGRP. This means the network must be an IGRP- or EIGRP- derived network in the routing table, or the static route used to generate the route to the network must be redistributed into IGRP or EIGRP, or advertised into these protocols using the network command. In this case, the 10.0.0.0 network is indeed being advertised via EIGRP.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094374.shtml#ip network
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1. However, router RTB and RTC are not receiving each other’s routes. What is the solution?
A. Configure the auto summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.
B. Issue the no ip split horizon command on router RTA.
C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each subinterface.
D. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.
E. Issue the no ip split horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.
F. Configure a distribute list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke routers.
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Split horizon controls the sending of EIGRP update and query packets. When split horizon is enabled on an interface, these packets are not sent for
destinations for which this interface is the next hop. This reduces the possibility of routing loops.

By default, split horizon is enabled on all interfaces. Split horizon blocks route information from being advertised by a router out of any interface from
which that information originated. This behavior usually optimizes communications among multiple routing devices, particularly when links are broken.
However, with nonbroadcast networks (such as Frame Relay and SMDS), situations can arise for which this behavior is less than ideal. For these
situations, you may want to disable split horizon. In this example, routes received by RTB and RTC are not being sent back out the same serial interface
on RTA, so they are not receiving each other’s routes. Disabling Split horizons on interface S0/0 on RTA will fix this issue.

QUESTION 8
Which two routing protocols require a metric to be configured when redistributing routes from other protocols? (Choose two.)
A. RIP
B. BGP
C. IS-IS
D. OSPF
E. EIGRP
Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Metrics must be set manually via configuration when redistributing into RIP and EIGRP, whereas OSPF uses a default value of 20.

Example:
EIGRP
router eigrp 1
redistribute ospf 1 metric 1544 5 255 1 1500
redistribute rip metric 1544 5 255 1 1500
network 15.0.0.0

RIP
router rip
version 2
redistribute eigrp 1 metric 2
redistribute ospf 1 metric 3
network 16.0.0.0

QUESTION 9
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The point of this question is about the condition of establish EIGRP neighbor. You can use these ways to troubleshoot the EIGRP connectivity problem.

1.
Whether EIGRP is enabled for the proper networks.

2.
Whether the K values of EIGRP neighbors is the same.

3.
Whether EIGRP autonomous number is the same.
Incorrect answers:
*. EIGRP use multicast, not broadcast.
*. EIGRP use multicast, not broadcast.
*. Hello and hold timers match is the condition of establish OSPF neighbor,not EIGRP.

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

You are the network administrator of the Route.com company. You have been tasked to implement a hub and spoke EIGRP topology over Frame Relay to provide connectivity between the networks at headquarters and all 300 spokes. Before you begin the actual implementation, which three pieces of information are more important to know than the others? (Choose three.)
A. the Committed Information Rate of all the Frame Relay PVCs
B. the Cisco IOS version running on all the routers
C. the router model number of all the spoke routers
D. the number of HQ networks connected behind the headquarter routers
E. the routing policy, such as whether or not the spokes can be used as backup transient point between the two headquarter routers

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: You have to know the committed information rate because it is a bandwidth associated with logical connection in a PVC. You also need to know the IOS version on all routers so that there is no conflict in versions. As per the topology, you need to know the routing policy because it will be used as a backup transient point between headquarter routers
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

The Route.com company is running EIGRP between all the routers. Currently, if one of the LAN links (LAN1 or LAN2) at the headquarters flaps (goes up
and down), the HQ-RTR1 and HQ-RTR2 routers will experience high CPU usage and have a long EIGRP convergence time. As the new network
administrator, you are asked to investigate this situation and determine if there is a quick way to resolve this issue.
Which is the most important thing that you can quickly verify first to resolve this issue?

A. Verify that the bandwidth setting on all WAN links is correct.
B. Verify that the HQ-RTR1 and HQ-RTR2 routers are configured to send only a default route to all the spoke routers.
C. Verify that the HQ-RTR1 and HQ-RTR2 routers are configured for EIGRP Nonstop Forwarding.
D. Verify that all the spoke routers are configured for auto summarization.
E. Verify that all the spoke routers are configured as EIGRP stub.
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the remote router.
When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message “inaccessible.” A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router.
Any neighbor that receives a packet informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the proper updates to all peers.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/eigrpstb.html
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

When you examine the routing tables of R1 and R4, you are not able to see the R1 Ethernet subnet on the R4 routing table. You are also not able to see the R4 Ethernet subnet on the R1 routing table.
Which two configuration changes should be made to resolve this issue? Select the routers where the configuration change will be required, and select the required EIGRP configuration command(s). Choose two answers. (Choose two.)
A. R1 and R4
B. R2 and R3
C. ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 and ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0
D. variance 2
E. eigrp stub connected
F. no auto-summary

Correct Answer: BF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Of course, the routing is going through R2 and R3 to reach R4. So the two routers that need configuration change are R2 and R3. Also you need to set auto-summary to No. The no auto-summary command configures classless routing protocols such as RIPv2 and EIGRP to really act as classless because by default they’re classfull.
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

The actual speed of the serial links between R2 and R3 are 256 kb/s and 512 kb/s. When configuring EIGRP on routers R2 and R3, the network administrator configured the bandwidth of both serial interfaces to 512 kb/s.
What will be the effect?
A. EIGRP will over utilize the 512 kb/s link.
B. The interface “delay” value used in the EIGRP metric calculation will be inaccurate on the 256 kb/s serial interface.
C. The amount of bandwidth used for EIGRP routing protocol traffic on the 256 kb/s link can become excessive.
D. EIGRP can load balance between the two serial links only if the variance is set to 2 or higher.
E. Unequal cost load balancing will be disabled.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: If you assign more bandwidth than what is available between R2 and R3, the EIGRP traffic will become excessive because it uses only the actual bandwidth.
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

ROUTE.com has just implemented this EIGRP network. A network administrator came to you for advice while trying to implement load balancing across part of their EIGRP network. If the variance value is configured as 2 on all routers and all other metric and K values are configured to their default values, traffic from the Internet to the data center will be load balanced across how many paths?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.5

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
First we should list all the paths from the Internet to the data center:
+
A-B-C-H with a metric of 70 (40 + 15 + 15)

+
A-B-E-H with a metric of 60 (40+10+10)

+
A-D-E-H with a metric of 30 (10+10+10)

+
A-D-E-B-C-H with a metric of 60 (10+10+10+15+15)

+
A-D-E-F-G-H with a metric of 70 (10+10+10+20+20)

+
A-F-G-H with a metric of 60 (20+20+20)

+
A-F-E-H with a metric of 40 (20+10+10)
So the path A-D-E-H will be chosen because it has the best metric. But EIGRP can support unequal cost path load balancing. By configuring the variance value of 2, the minimum metric is increased to 60 (30 * 2) and all the routes that have a metric of less than or equal to 60 and satisfy the feasibility condition will be used to send traffic.
Besides the main path A-D-E-H we have 4 more paths that have the metric of less than or equal to 60 (we also include the Advertised Distances of these routes for later comparison):
+
A-B-E-H with an AD of 20

+
A-D-E-B-C-H with an AD of 50

+
A-F-G-H with an AD of 40

+
A-F-E-H with an AD of 20
Now the last thing we need to consider is the feasible condition. The feasible condition states:
“To qualify as a feasible successor, a router must have an AD less than the FD of the current successor route”
The FD of the current successor route here is 30 (notice that the variance number is not calculated here). Therefore there are only 2 paths that can satisfy this conditions: the path A-B-E-H & A-F-E-H.
In conclusion, traffic from the Internet to the data center will be load balanced across 3 paths, including the main path (successor path)
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.

A Boston company bought the assets of a New York company and is trying to route traffic between the two data networks using EIGRP. The show command output shows that traffic will not flow between the networks. As a network consultant, you were asked to modify the configuration and certify the interoperability of the two networks. For traffic to flow from subnet 172.16.8.0/24 to the 172.16.16.0/24 subnet.
Which configuration change do you recommend?
A. Turn off autosummarization on routers N1 and B1.
B. Add IP summary addresses to the Internet-pointing interfaces of routers N1 and B1.
C. Turn off auto summarization on routers N2 and B2.
D. Add wildcard masks to the network commands on routers N2 and B2.

Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Basically auto route summarization happens at the classful network boundary…so that would make N1 and B1 the locations that summarization would occur for the 172.16.0.0/16 classful networks.
So if you left auto-summarization enabled on those 2 routers, you would have an issue with discontiguous networks being advertised by both routers N1 and B1 with their classful mask (172.16.0.0/16 and 10.0.0.0/8), which will cause you issues.
Turning off auto-summarization on N2 and B2 wouldn’t make any difference, as their networks wouldn’t be summarized due to the fact that they are not meeting a classful boundary on their perspective routers. N1 will receive the 172.16.8.0/24 network from N2 with auto-summarization enabled.
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

A Boston company bought the assets of a New York company and is trying to route traffic between the two data networks using EIGRP over EoMPLS. As a network consultant, you were asked to verify the interoperability of the two networks.
From the show ip route command output, what can you tell the customer about the traffic flow between the subnet in New York (172.16.8.0/24) and the subnets in Boston (172.16.16.0/24 and 10.10.16.0/24)?
A. Traffic is flowing between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and subnets 172.16.16.0 and 10.10.16.0 and no configuration changes are needed.
B. Auto-summary must be disabled on N1 and B1 before traffic can flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and subnets 172.16.16.0 and 10.10.16.0.
C. Traffic will flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and 172.16.16.0 without any further configuration changes. However, auto-summary must be disabled on N1 and B1 before traffic can flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and the 10.10.16.0 subnet.
D. Auto-summary must be disabled on N1 and B1 before traffic can flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and the 172.16.16.0 subnet. However, traffic will flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and 10.10.16.0 without any further configuration changes.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Basically auto route summarization happens at the classful network boundary…so that would make N1 and B1 the locations that summarization would occur for the 172.16.0.0/16 classful networks.
So if you left auto-summarization enabled on those 2 routers, you would have an issue with discontiguous networks being advertised by both routers N1 and B1 with their classful mask (172.16.0.0/16 and 10.0.0.0/8), which will cause you issues.
Turning off auto-summarization on N2 and B2 wouldn’t make any difference, as their networks wouldn’t be summarized due to the fact that they are not meeting a classful boundary on their perspective routers.
QUESTION 17
Which condition must be satisfied before an EIGRP neighbor can be considered a feasible successor?
A. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be less than or equal to the feasible distance of the current successor.
B. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be less than the feasible distance of the current successor.
C. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be greater than the feasible distance of the current successor.
D. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be equal to the feasible distance of the current successor.
E. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be greater than or equal to the feasible distance of the current successor.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The feasible successor route is a route which has a higher metric than the successor route to reach a subnet but meets the feasibility condition and can be used in the event that the successor route goes down. This route does NOT get installed in the routing table but is kept in the topology table. The feasibility condition states that the AD from a neighbor must be less than the metric of the successor route (the feasible distance [FD]) because routing through a feasible successor when the AD > FD may cause a routing loop.

QUESTION 18
Which statement about a non-zero value for the load metric (k2) for EIGRP is true?
A. A change in the load on an interface will cause EIGRP to recalculate the routing metrics and send a corresponding update out to each of its neighbors.
B. EIGRP calculates interface load as a 5-minute exponentially weighted average that is updated every 5 minutes.
C. EIGRP considers the load of an interface only when sending an update for some other reason.
D. A change in the load on an interface will cause EIGRP to recalculate and update the administrative distance for all routes learned on that interface.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The load metric (k2) represents the worst load on a link between source and destination. EIGRP routing updates are triggered only by a change in
network topology (like links, interfaces go up/down, router added/removed), and not by change in interface load or reliability.
The load is a five minute exponentially weighted average that is updated every five seconds (not five minutes) .

EIGRP considers the load of an interface only when sending an update for some other reason (like a link failure)

QUESTION 19
Your network consists of a large hub-and-spoke Frame Relay network with a CIR of 56 kb/s for each spoke. Which statement about the selection of a dynamic protocol is true?
A. EIGRP would be appropriate if LMI type ANSI is NOT used.
B. EIGRP would be appropriate, because the Frame Relay spokes could be segmented into their own areas.
C. EIGRP would be appropriate, because by default, queries are not propagated across the slow speed Frame Relay links.
D. EIGRP would be appropriate, because you can manage how much bandwidth is consumed over the Frame Relay interface.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
By default, EIGRP will limit itself to using no more than 50% of the interface bandwidth. The primary benefit of controlling EIGRP’s bandwidth usage is to avoid losing EIGRP packets, which could occur when EIGRP generates data faster than the interface line can absorb it. This is of particular benefit on Frame Relay networks, where the access interface bandwidth and the PVC capacity may be very different.
For example, in our Frame Relay topology a Hub is connected with 4 Spoke routers. The main Frame Relay interface on Hub router is 512Kpbs which is not enough to use for 6 links of 128 Kbps ( = 768 Kbps).

The solution here is we can use 512 / 6 = 85 Kbps on each subinterface of Hub by using “bandwidth 85 command. For example:
Hub(config)#interface Serial0/0.1 point-to-point Hub(config-subif)#bandwidth 85 Also on Spoke routers we need to set this value. For example on Spoke1:
Spoke1(config)#interface Serial0/1.0 point-to-point Spoke1(config-subif)#bandwidth 85
Notice that by default, EIGRP limits itself to use no more than 50% of the configured interface bandwidth. In this case EIGRP will not use more than 42.5 Kbps (50% of 85 Kbps).
(For more information about implementing EIGRP over Frame Relay, please read http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/ technologies_tech_note09186a0080094063.shtml)
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. Why are the EIGRP neighbors for this router not learning the routes redistributed from OSPF?

A. Redistribution must be enabled mutually (in both directions) to work correctly.
B. Auto-summary causes the OSPF routes redistributed into EIGRP to be summarized; thus the OSPF network 116.16.34 is summarized to 116.34.0.0, which is already covered by the EIGRP protocol.
C. Default metrics are not configured under EIGRP.
D. Both routing protocols must have unique autonomous system numbers for redistribution to function correctly.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Same as RIP, when redistribute into EIGRP from OSPF, the default metric is infinite -> We must set a seed metric when redistributing into EIGRP. Below lists the default seed metrics when redistributing from a routing protocol into another:

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. On the routing table of R4, the 10.1.1.0/24 route appears as an O E2 route.
B. On R4, the 172.16.1.0/24 route has a metric of 20.
C. The R3 S0/0 interface should not need the no ip split-horizon eigrp 1 configuration command for the 172.16.1.0/24 route to appear in the routing table of R2 as an D EX route.
D. The administrative distance of the 172.16.1.0/24 route in the routing table of R3 is 170.
E. On R5, the 4.0.0.0/8 route will have an administrative distance of 120 and a hop count of 6.
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
When redistributing into OSPF, the default route type is E2. Notice that the cost of E2 type is always the cost of external route only.
Also, the default seed metric when redistributing into OSPF is always 20 (except for BGP, which is 1)
When redistributing into EIGRP, the external EIGRP routes have an administrative distance of 170 by default

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

Looking at the topology diagram and the partial router configurations shown, which statement is true?
A. A routing loop will occur due to mutual route redistribution occurring on R1 and R2.
B. Suboptimal routing will occur due to mutual route redistribution occurring on R1 and R2.
C. Additional route filtering configurations using route maps and ACLs are required on the R1 and R2 routers to prevent routing loops.
D. R2 will not be able to redistribute the EIGRP subnets into OSPF, because R2 is missing the default seed metric for OSPF.
E. The 10.1.1.0/24 subnet will appear as 10.0.0.0/8 in the R5 routing table.

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol so the subnet 10.1.1.0/24 will be summarized to 10.0.0.0/8 in the R5 routing table. If we use RIPv2 on R1, R5 and use the “no auto-summary” command on R1 then the 10.1.1.0 subnet will appear in the routing table of R5. Notice that even if the “auto-summary” command is configured under “router eigrp 1 of R1 but when redistributing into another routing protocol EIGRP still advertises the detailed network.
QUESTION 23
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the EIGRP routers within the EIGRP routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. What should you verify to troubleshoot this problem?
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP.
D. The missing OSPF routes are present in the routing table of the border router.
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute OSPF command.
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
We are checking the routing table on EIGRP routers not OSPF so we don’t need to check the seed metric for OSPF. Besides OSPF doesn’t need to specify seed metric as all external routes get a default metric of 20 (except for BGP, which is 1). We must specify seed metrics when redistributing into EIGRP (and RIP). If not all the redistributed routes will not be seen but the question says only
some routes are missing.
The default administrative distance for external routes redistributed into EIGRP is 170 so we don’t need to set it .
The sunbet keyword is only used when redistributing into OSPF, not to other routing protocols .
We should check the routing table of the border router to see the missing OSPF routes are there or not. An incorrect distribute-list can block some

routes and we can’t see it in other EIGRP routers.

QUESTION 24
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes.
Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP.
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router.
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command.
Correct Answer: DE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: When troubleshooting EIGRP routes being distributed into OSPF, the first item to check is that the missing EIGRP routes are in fact on the router performing the redistribution (border router). If not, the routes cannot be redistributed into OSPF and troubleshooting should occur within the EIGRP AS.
The second step is to verify that the subnets keyword has been appended to the redistribute eigrp statement under the OSPF routing process. The question mentions that the networks being redistributed are using a /28 mask, with implies that the networksare actually subnets not assigned to classful boundaries.
OSPF will only redistribute classful networks by default. The keyword “subnets” allows subnets to also be be redistributed into OSPF (not merely classful routes).
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

All EIGRP load balancing parameters are set to their defaults. You want to use all the routes in the EIGRP topology for IP load balancing Which two EIGRP subcommands would you use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. traffic-share balanced
B. distance
C. maximum-paths
D. default-network
E. variance

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Notice that the “maximum-paths” command is used to share traffic to equal cost path while the “variance” command can share traffic to unequal cost path.
In the output above we learn that EIGRP is using 2 successors to send traffic. By using the “variance 2 command we can share traffic to other feasible successor routes. But by default, EIGRP only shares traffic to 4 paths. So we need to use the “maximum-paths 6 to make sure all of these routes are used.
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

R1 accesses the Internet using E0/0. You have been asked to configure R1 so that a default route is generated to its downstream neighbors (191.0.0.1 and 192.0.0.1). Which commands would create this configuration?
A. router eigrp 190 redistribute static ! ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Null0
B. ip default-network 20.0.0.0
C. router eigrp 190 redistribute static ! ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 Null0
D. ip default-network 20.20.20.0
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Since you are running EIGRP and you have other routers that need a default route, you can use EIGRP to distribute that without having to program static routes in each. Since 2 are default routes they are only used on the router that they are configured on. The first option has you configure the static route as well as a way to redistribute that route to other routers connecting to you via EIGRP. This will essentially publish this route the same as if it were programmed in with the network x.x.x.x sub-command in the router eigrp 100 routing table.
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

A partial routing configuration is shown. Complete the configuration so that only the default- network is redistributed from EIGRP 190 into EIGRP 212. Which ACL statement completes the configuration correctly?
A. access-list 100 permit ip 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
B. access-list 100 permit ip host 0.0.0.0 any
C. access-list 100 permit ip any host 0.0.0.0
D. A default-network cannot be redistributed between routing processes.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation The command “access-list 100 permit ip any host 0.0.0.0 means permit any source address with the destination of 0.0.0.0/0, which is the default route Note: any equals 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
host 0.0.0.0 equals 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three commands should be used on router B1 to redistribute the EIGRP AS 10 routes into RIP? (Choose three.)
A. router rip
B. router eigrp 10
C. redistribute eigrp 10
D. redistribute rip
E. default-metric 10000 100 255 1 1500
F. default-metric 5
Correct Answer: ACF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a008009487e.shtml#ri p
QUESTION 29
You want the redistributed EIGRP AS 10 routes to have an administrative distance of 121 when they appear as RIP routes in the routing table of A1. Which command should you use on a router to accomplish this goal?

A. redistribute eigrp 10 metric 121
B. redistribute rip metric 121
C. default-metric 121
D. distance 121 10.1.1.6 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If you add that route back with an administrative distance of 121, the ASA will still prefer the route learned via RIP because it prefers the route with a
lower administrative distance.

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.

In a redundant hub-and-spoke deployment using EIGRP, what feature can be used to ensure that routers C through F are not used as transit routers for
data traveling from router B to network 10.1.1.0? Select the best response
A. Use address summarization at routers C, D, E, and F.
B. Use the EIGRP Stub feature on routers C, D, E, and F.
C. Use passive-interface on the spoke links in routers A and B.
D. Change the administrative distance in routers A and B for routes learned from routers C, D, E, and F.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
By configuring “stub” feature on routers C D E and F, routers A and B will not try to transit traffic through these routers. For example, if the network connecting from routers A and B is down, router B will not send to network 10.1.1.0/24 from router B -> routerC/D/E/F -> router A -> network 10.1.1.0/24.

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