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QUESTION 38
A network engineer is extending a LAN segment between two geographically separated data centers. Which enhancement to a spanning-tree design prevents unnecessary traffic from crossing the extended LAN segment?
A. Modify the spanning-tree priorities to dictate the traffic flow.
B. Create a Layer 3 transit VLAN to segment the traffic between the sites.
C. Use VTP pruning on the trunk interfaces.
D. Configure manual trunk pruning between the two locations.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Pruning unnecessary VLANs from the trunk can be performed with one of two methods:
Manual pruning of the unnecessary VLAN on the trunk–This is the best method, and it avoids the use of the spanning tree. Instead, the method runs the pruned VLAN on trunks.

VTP pruning–Avoid this method if the goal is to reduce the number of STP instances. VTP- pruned VLANs on a trunk are still part of the spanning tree.
Therefore, VTP-pruned VLANs do not reduce the number of spanning tree port instances. Since the question asked for the choice that is an enhancement to the STP design, VTP pruning is the best choice. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a0080890613.shtml
QUESTION 39
The network manager has requested that several new VLANs (VLAN 10, 20, and 30) are allowed to traverse the switch trunk interface. After the command switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,20,30 is issued, all other existing VLANs no longer pass traffic over the trunk. What is the root cause of the problem?
A. The command effectively removed all other working VLANs and replaced them with the new VLANs.
B. VTP pruning removed all unused VLANs.
C. ISL was unable to encapsulate more than the already permitted VLANs across the trunk.
D. Allowing additional VLANs across the trunk introduced a loop in the network.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The “switchport trunk allowed vlan” command will only allow the specified VLANs, and overwrite any others that were previously defined. You would also need to explicitly allow the other working VLANs to this configuration command, or use the “issue the switchport trunk allowed vlan add vlan-list” command instead to add these 3 VLANS to the other defined allowed VLANs. Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/11836/how-define-vlans-allowed-trunk- link
QUESTION 40
When you design a switched network using VTPv2, how many VLANs can be used to carry user traffic?
A. 1000
B. 1001
C. 1024
D. 2048
E. 4095
F. 4096

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP versions 1 and 2 Supports normal VLAN numbers (1-1001). Only VTP version 3 supports extended VLANs (1-4095).
Reference: http://cciememo.blogspot.com/2012/11/difference-between-vtp-versions.html

QUESTION 41
What does the command vlan dot1q tag native accomplish when configured under global configuration?
A. All frames within the native VLAN are tagged, except when the native VLAN is set to 1.
B. It allows control traffic to pass using the non-default VLAN.
C. It removes the 4-byte dot1q tag from every frame that traverses the trunk interface(s).
D. Control traffic is tagged.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The “vlan dot1q tag native” will tag all untagged frames, including control traffic, with the defined native VLAN.

QUESTION 42
A network engineer has just deployed a non-Cisco device in the network and wants to get information about it from a connected device. Cisco Discovery Protocol is not supported, so the open standard protocol must be configured. Which protocol does the network engineer configure on both devices to accomplish this?
A. IRDP
B. LLDP
C. NDP
D. LLTD

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity,
capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. LLDP performs functions similar to several proprietary protocols, such
as the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP). Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Link_Layer_Discovery_Protocol

QUESTION 43
A manager tells the network engineer to permit only certain VLANs across a specific trunk interface. Which option can be configured to accomplish this?
A. allowed VLAN list
B. VTP pruning
C. VACL
D. L2P tunneling

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When a trunk link is established, all of the configured VLANs are allowed to send and receive traffic across the link. VLANs 1 through 1005 are allowed on each
trunk by default. However, VLAN traffic can be removed from the allowed list. This keeps traffic from the VLANs from passing over the trunk link.
Note: The allowed VLAN list on both the ends of the trunk link should be the same. For Integrated Cisco IOS Software based switches, perform these steps:
1.To restrict the traffic that a trunk carries, issue the switchport trunk vlan-list interface configuration command.
This removes specific VLANs from the allowed list.
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/11836/how-define-vlans-allowed-trunk- link

QUESTION 44
For client server failover purposes, the application server team has indicated that they must not have the standard 30 second delay before their switchport enters a forwarding state. For their disaster recovery feature to operate successfully, they require the switchport to enter a forwarding state immediately. Which spanning-tree feature satisfies this requirement?
A. Rapid Spanning-Tree
B. Spanning-Tree Timers
C. Spanning-Tree FastPort
D. Spanning-Tree PortFast
E. Spanning-Tree Fast Forward

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In order to allow immediate transition of the port into forwarding state, enable the STP PortFast feature. PortFast immediately transitions the port into STP forwarding mode upon linkup. The port still participates in STP. So if the port is to be a part of the loop, the port eventually transitions into STP blocking mode. Example configuration: Switch-C# configure terminal Switch-C(config)# interface range fa0/3 – 24 Switch-C(config-if-range)# spanning-tree portfast Reference: http://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx? b=CCNP_Studies_Switching&seqNum=36
QUESTION 45
Which command does a network engineer use to verify the spanning-tree status for VLAN 10?
A. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10
B. switch# show spanning-tree bridge
C. switch# show spanning-tree brief
D. switch# show spanning-tree summary
E. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10 brief

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Command Description

show spanning-tree Displays information about the spanning-tree state.

Example output:
SW2#show spanning-tree vlan 10

VLAN0010
Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp
Root ID Priority 24586

Address 0014.f2d2.4180 Cost 9 Port 216 (Port-channel21) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec
Bridge ID Priority 32778 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 10) Address 001c.57d8.9000 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 300 sec
Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ——————- —- — ——— ——– ————————— Po21 Root FWD 9 128.216 P2p Po23 Altn BLK 9 128.232 P2p
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/lanswitch/command/reference/lsw_s2.html
QUESTION 46
A new network that consists of several switches has been connected together via trunking interfaces. If all switches currently have the default VTP domain name “null”, which statement describes what happens when a domain name is configured on one of the switches?
A. The switch with the non-default domain name restores back to “null” upon reboot.
B. Switches with higher revision numbers does not accept the new domain name.
C. VTP summary advertisements are sent out of all ports with the new domain name.
D. All other switches with the default domain name become VTP clients.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, a switch will have a domain name of NULL and no password. If the switch hears a VTP advertisement it will automatically learn the VTP domain name,
VLANs, and the configuration revision number.
Summary advertisements sent out every 300 seconds and every time a change occurs on the VLAN database. Contained in a summary advertisement:
VTP version
Domain name
Configuration revision number
Time stamp
MD5 encryption hash code
Reference: https://rowell.dionicio.net/configuring-cisco-vtp/

QUESTION 47
A network engineer is setting up a new switched network. The network is expected to grow and add many new VLANs in the future. Which Spanning Tree Protocol should be used to reduce switch resources and managerial burdens that are associated with multiple spanning-tree instances?
A. RSTP
B. PVST
C. MST
D. PVST+
E. RPVST+

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) extends the IEEE 802.1w RST algorithm to multiple spanning
trees. The main purpose of MST is to reduce the total number of spanning-tree instances to
match the physical topology of the network and thus reduce the CPU cycles of a switch.
PVRST+ runs STP instances for each VLAN and does not take into consideration the physical
topology that might not require many different STP topologies. MST, on the other hand, uses a
minimum number of STP instances to match the number of physical topologies present.
Figure 3-15 shows a common network design, featuring an access Switch A, connected to two
Building Distribution submodule Switches D1 and D2. In this setup, there are 1000 VLANs, and
the network administrator typically seeks to achieve load balancing on the access switch uplinks
based on even or odd VLANs–or any other scheme deemed appropriate.

Figure 3-15: VLAN Load Balancing Figure 3-15 illustrates two links and 1000 VLANs. The 1000 VLANs map to two MST in-stances. Rather than maintaining 1000 spanning trees, each switch needs to maintain only two
spanning trees, reducing the need for switch resources.
Reference: http://ciscodocuments.blogspot.com/2011/05/chapter-03-implementing-spanning- tree_19.html

QUESTION 48
Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?
A. SDM templates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hosts in one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users to manage the flow of traffic handled by the route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: You can use SDM templates to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network. You can select a template to provide maximum system usage for some functions; for example, use the default template to balance resources, and use access template to obtain maximum ACL usage. To allocate hardware resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750x_3560x/software/release/12.2_55_s e/configuration/guide/swsdm.pdf
QUESTION 49
Which SDM template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses?
A. VLAN
B. access
C. default
D. routing

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To allocate ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support
for certain features. You can select SDM templates to optimize these features:
Access–The access template maximizes system resources for access control lists (ACLs) to accommodate a large number of ACLs.

Default–The default template gives balance to all functions.

Routing–The routing template maximizes system resources for IPv4 unicast routing, typically required for a router or aggregator in the center of a network.

VLANs–The VLAN template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses. It would typically be selected for a Layer 2
switch. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12.2_55_se/config uration/guide/swsdm.pdf
QUESTION 50
Which SDM template is the most appropriate for a Layer 2 switch that provides connectivity to a large number of clients?
A. VLAN
B. default
C. access
D. routing

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To allocate ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support
for certain features. You can select SDM templates to optimize these features:
Access–The access template maximizes system resources for access control lists (ACLs) to accommodate a large number of ACLs.

Default–The default template gives balance to all functions.

Routing–The routing template maximizes system resources for IPv4 unicast routing, typically required for a router or aggregator in the center of a network.

VLANs–The VLAN template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses (clients). It would typically be selected for a Layer
2 switch. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12.2_55_se/config uration/guide/swsdm.pdf
QUESTION 51
In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is discarded?
A. 100 seconds
B. 180 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 600 seconds

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure the aging time for all MAC addresses, perform this task:
Command Purpose

Step 1 switch# configure ter- Enters configuration mode.
minal

Step 2 switch(config)# mac-ad- Specifies the time before an entry ages out and is dis- dress-table aging-time carded from the MAC address table. The range is
from seconds [vlan vlan_id] 0 to 1000000; the default is 300 seconds. Entering the value 0 disables the MAC aging. If a VLAN is not
specified, the aging specification applies to all VLANs.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/M ACAddress.html

QUESTION 52
If a network engineer applies the command mac-address-table notification mac-move on a Cisco switch port, when is a syslog message generated?
A. A MAC address or host moves between different switch ports.
B. A new MAC address is added to the content-addressable memory.
C. A new MAC address is removed from the content-addressable memory.
D. More than 64 MAC addresses are added to the content-addressable memory. Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
mac-address-table notification mac-move

To enable MAC-move notification, use the mac-address-table notification mac-move com- mand in global configuration mode. To disable MAC-move notification,
use the no form of this command.
mac-address-table notification mac-move [counter [syslog]] no mac-address-table notification mac-move [counter [syslog]] Syntax Description

counter (Optional) Specifies the MAC-move counter feature. syslog (Optional) Specifies the syslogging facility when the MAC-move notification detects the first
instance of the MAC move.
Usage Guidelines

MAC-move notification generates a syslog message whenever a MAC address or host moves between different switch ports.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/lanswitch/command/reference/lsw_m1.html

QUESTION 53
Which option is a possible cause for an errdisabled interface?
A. routing loop
B. cable unplugged
C. STP loop guard
D. security violation Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are various reasons for the interface to go into errdisable. The reason can be:
Duplex mismatch
Port channel misconfiguration

BPDU guard violation

UniDirectional Link Detection (UDLD) condition

Late-collision detection

Link-flap detection
Security violation

Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) flap

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) guard

DHCP snooping rate-limit

Incorrect GBIC / Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module or cable Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) inspection

Inline power Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00806cd87b.shtml
QUESTION 54
What is the default value for the errdisable recovery interval in a Cisco switch?
A. 30 seconds
B. 100 seconds
C. 300 seconds

D. 600 seconds Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After you fix the root problem, the ports are still disabled if you have not configured errdisable recovery on the switch. In this case, you must reenable the ports
manually. Issue the shutdown command and then the no shutdown interface mode command on the associated interface in order to manually reenable the ports.

The errdisable recovery command allows you to choose the type of errors that automatically reenable the ports after a specified amount of time. The show errdisable recovery command shows the default error-disable recovery state for all the possible conditions. cat6knative#show errdisable recovery ErrDisable Reason Timer Status
udld Disabled
bpduguard Disabled
security-violatio Disabled
channel-misconfig Disabled
pagp-flap Disabled
dtp-flap Disabled
link-flap Disabled
l2ptguard Disabled
psecure-violation Disabled
gbic-invalid Disabled
dhcp-rate-limit Disabled
mac-limit Disabled
unicast-flood Disabled
arp-inspection Disabled

Timer interval: 300 seconds
Interfaces that will be enabled at the next timeout:
Note: The default timeout interval is 300 seconds and, by default, the timeout feature is disabled.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00806cd87b.shtml

QUESTION 55
Which statement about LLDP-MED is true?
A. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between endpoint devices and network devices.
B. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between network devices.
C. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between endpoint devices.
D. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between routers that run BGP.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
LLDP for Media Endpoint Devices (LLDP-MED) is an extension to LLDP that operates between endpoint devices such as IP phones and network devices such as
switches. It specifically provides support for voice over IP (VoIP) applications and provides additional TLVs for capabilities discovery, network policy, Power over
Ethernet, and inventory management.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/metro/me3400/software/release/12.2_58_se/configur ation/guide/swlldp.pdf

QUESTION 56
Which statement about Cisco devices learning about each other through Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
A. Each device sends periodic advertisements to multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC.
B. Each device broadcasts periodic advertisements to all of its neighbors.
C. Each device sends periodic advertisements to a central device that builds the network topology.
D. Each device sends periodic advertisements to all IP addresses in its ARP table.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cisco devices send periodic CDP announcements to the multicast destination address 01-00-0c- cc-cc-cc, out each connected network interface. These multicast
packets may be received by Cisco switches and other networking devices that support CDP into their connected network interface.
Reference: http://network.spravcesite.net/subdom/network/index.php?id=cdp

QUESTION 57
Which option lists the information that is contained in a Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisement?
A. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, hardware platform
B. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, memory errors
C. native VLAN IDs, memory errors, hardware platform
D. port-duplex, hardware platform, memory errors

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Type-Length-Value fields (TLVs) are blocks of information embedded in CDP advertisements. Table 21 summarizes the TLV definitions for CDP advertisements.
Table 21 Type-Length-Value Definitions for CDPv2

TLV Definition

Device-ID TLV Identifies the device name in the form of a character string.

Address TLV Contains a list of network addresses of both receiving and sending devices.

Port-ID TLV Identifies the port on which the CDP packet is sent.

Capabilities TLV Describes the functional capability for the device in the form of a de- vice type, for example, a switch.

Version TLV Contains information about the software release version on which the device is running.

Platform TLV Describes the hardware platform name of the device, for example, Cisco 4500.

IP Network Prefix Contains a list of network prefixes to which the sending device can TLV forward IP packets. This information is in the form of the interface protocol and port number, for example, Eth 1/0.
VTP Management Advertises the system’s configured VTP management domain name- Domain TLV string. Used by network operators to verify VTP domain configuration in adjacent network nodes.
Native VLAN TLV Indicates, per interface, the assumed VLAN for untagged packets on the interface. CDP learns the native VLAN for an interface. This fea- ture is implemented only for interfaces that support the IEEE 802.1Q protocol.
Full/Half Duplex Indicates status (duplex configuration) of CDP broadcast interface. TLV Used by network operators to diagnose connectivity problems be- tween adjacent network elements.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/configuration/guide/fcf015.html
QUESTION 58
Which option describes a limitation of LLDP?
A. LLDP cannot provide information about VTP.
B. LLDP does not support TLVs.
C. LLDP can discover only Windows servers.
D. LLDP can discover up to two devices per port.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
LLDP Versus Cisco Discovery Protocol TLV Comparison Function Description LLDP TLV Cisco Discovery Protocol TLV
IP network prefix support-Used to send the net- No IP Network Prefix work prefix and used for ODR TLV
Hello piggybacking-Can be used to piggy back No Protocol Hello TLV hello messages from other protocols
Maximum-transmission-unit (MTU) sup- No MTU TLV port-Specifies the size of the MTU
External port support-Used to identify the card No External Port-ID terminating the fiber in the case of wave- TLV length-division multiplexing (WDM)
VTP management support No VTP Management Domain TLV
Port unidirectional mode-Used in fiber, where No Port UniDirectional the connection may be unidirectional Mode TLV
Management address Management Ad- Management-Ad-dress TLV dressTLV
Allows for organizational unique TLVs Yes No Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/technologies/tk652/tk701/technologies_white_paper0900aecd804c d46d.html
QUESTION 59
Which statement about the UDLD protocol is true?
A. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status of links and detect unidirectional failures.
B. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to advertise their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network.
C. UDLD is a standardized Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status of links and detect unidirectional failures.
D. UDLD is a standardized Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to advertise their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Cisco-proprietary UDLD protocol monitors the physical configuration of the links between devices and ports that support UDLD. UDLD detects the existence
of unidirectional links. When a unidirectional link is detected, UDLD puts the affected port into the errdisabled state and alerts the user.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/udl d.html

QUESTION 60
Which option lists the modes that are available for configuring UDLD on a Cisco switch?
A. normal and aggressive
B. active and aggressive
C. normal and active
D. normal and passive
E. normal and standby

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Cisco-proprietary UDLD protocol monitors the physical configuration of the links between devices and ports that support UDLD. UDLD detects the existence
of unidirectional links. When a unidirectional link is detected, UDLD puts the affected port into the errdisabled state and alerts the user. UDLD can operate in either
normal or aggressive mode.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/udl d.html
QUESTION 61
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Cisco Discovery Protocol is a Layer 2, media-independent, and network-independent protocol that networking applications use to learn about nearby, directly connected devices. Cisco Discovery Protocol is enabled by default. Each device configured for Cisco Discovery Protocol advertises at least one address at which the device can receive messages and sends periodic advertisements (messages) to the well-known multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC. Devices discover each other by listening at that address. They also listen to messages to learn when interfaces on other devices are up or go down. Advertisements contain time-to-live information, which indicates the length of time a receiving device should hold Cisco Discovery Protocol information before discarding it. Advertisements supported and configured in Cisco software are sent, by default, every 60 seconds. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ ios-xml/ios/cdp/configuration/15-mt/nm-cdp- discover.html
QUESTION 62
Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol configuration on a Cisco switch is true?
A. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp run.
B. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp enable.
C. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp enable.
D. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp run.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CDP is enabled on your router by default, which means the Cisco IOS software will receive CDP information. CDP also is enabled on supported interfaces by
default. To disable CDP on an interface, use the “no cdp enable interface” configuration command. To disable it globally, use the “no cdp run” command.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/command/reference/frf015.html#wp10175

QUESTION 63
Which VTP mode is needed to configure an extended VLAN, when a switch is configured to use VTP versions 1 or 2?
A. transparent
B. client
C. server
D. Extended VLANs are only supported in version 3 and not in versions 1 or 2.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP version 1 and version 2 support VLANs 1 to 1000 only. Extended-range VLANs are supported only in VTP version 3. If converting from VTP version 3 to VTP
version 2, VLANs in the range 1006 to 4094 are removed from VTP control.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/vtp.
html

QUESTION 64
What is the size of the VLAN field inside an 802.1q frame?
A. 8-bit
B. 12-bit
C. 16-bit
D. 32-bit
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The VLAN field is a 12-bit field specifying the VLAN to which the frame belongs. The hexadecimal values of 0x000 and 0xFFF are reserved. All other values may be used as VLAN identifiers, allowing up to 4,094 VLANs Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1Q
QUESTION 65
What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be assigned to an access switchport without a voice VLAN?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1024
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
A standard (non-voice VLAN port) access switch port can belong to only a single VLAN. If more than one VLAN is needed, the port should be configured as a
trunk port.

QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option shows the expected result if a show vlan command is issued?

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In this case, the port has been configured both as a trunk and as a switchport in data vlan 10. Obviously, a port can not be both, so even though Cisco IOS will
accept both, the port will actually be used as a trunk, ignoring the switchport access VLAN 10 command.

QUESTION 67
Which feature is automatically enabled when a voice VLAN is configured, but not automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is removed?
A. portfast
B. port-security
C. spanning tree D. storm control

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Voice VLAN Configuration Guidelines
You should configure voice VLAN on switch access ports.
The voice VLAN should be present and active on the switch for the IP phone to correctly communicate on the voice VLAN. Use the show vlan privileged EXEC command to see if the VLAN is present (listed in the display).

The Port Fast feature is automatically enabled when voice VLAN is configured. When you disable voice VLAN, the Port Fast feature is not automatically
disabled. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/release/12.1_22_ea11x/co nfiguration/guide/swvoip.html
QUESTION 68
In which portion of the frame is the 802.1q header found?
A. within the Ethernet header
B. within the Ethernet payload
C. within the Ethernet FCS
D. within the Ethernet source MAC address

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Frame format

Insertion of 802.1Q tag in an Ethernet frame 802.1Q does not encapsulate the original frame. Instead, for Ethernet frames, it adds a 32-bit field between the source MAC address and the EtherType/length fields of the original frame Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1Q
QUESTION 69
Which VLAN range is eligible to be pruned when a network engineer enables VTP pruning on a switch?
A. VLANs 1-1001
B. VLANs 1-4094
C. VLANs 2-1001
D. VLANs 2-4094

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning should only be enabled on VTP servers, all the clients in the VTP domain will automatically enable VTP pruning. By default, VLANs 2 1001 are
pruning eligible, but VLAN 1 can’t be pruned because it’s an administrative VLAN. Both VTP versions 1 and 2 supports pruning.
Reference: http://www.orbit-computer-solutions.com/VTP-Pruning.php

QUESTION 70
Which feature must be enabled to eliminate the broadcasting of all unknown traffic to switches that are not participating in the specific VLAN?
A. VTP pruning
B. port-security
C. storm control
D. bpdguard

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: VTP ensures that all switches in the VTP domain are aware of all VLANs. However, there are occasions when VTP can create unnecessary traffic. All unknown unicasts and broadcasts in a VLAN are flooded over the entire VLAN. All switches in the network receive all broadcasts, even in situations in which few users are connected in that VLAN. VTP pruning is a feature that you use in order to eliminate or prune this unnecessary traffic. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/ support/docs/lan-switching/vtp/10558- 21.html#vtp_pruning
QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit.

The users in an engineering department that connect to the same access switch cannot access the network. The network engineer found that the engineering
VLAN is missing from the database.
Which action resolves this problem?

A. Disable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.
B. Update the VTP revision number.
C. Change VTP mode to server and enable 802.1q.
D. Enable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Only VTP servers can add new VLANs to the switched network, so to enable vlan 10 on this switch you will first need to change the VTP mode from client to
server. Then, you will need to enable 802.1Q trunking to pass this new VLAN along to the other switches.

QUESTION 72
Refer to the exhibit.

The network switches for two companies have been connected and manually configured for the required VLANs, but users in company A are not able to access network resources in company B when DTP is enabled. Which action resolves this problem?
A. Delete vlan.dat and ensure that the switch with lowest MAC address is the VTP server.
B. Disable DTP and document the VTP domain mismatch.
C. Manually force trunking with switchport mode trunk on both switches.
D. Enable the company B switch with the vtp mode server command.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Since the number of existing VLANs differ on the switches (9 on A and 42 on B) we know that there is a problem with VTP or the trunking interfaces. The VTP
domain names do match and they are both VTP servers so there are no issues there. The only viable solution is that there is a DTP issues and so you must
instead manually configure the trunk ports between these two switches so that the VLAN information can be sent to each switch.

QUESTION 73
A network engineer must implement Ethernet links that are capable of transporting frames and IP traffic for different broadcast domains that are mutually isolated. Consider that this is a multivendor environment. Which Cisco IOS switching feature can be used to achieve the task?
A. PPP encapsulation with a virtual template
B. Link Aggregation Protocol at the access layer
C. dot1q VLAN trunking
D. Inter-Switch Link

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here the question asks for transporting “frames and IP traffic for different broadcast domains that are mutually isolated” which is basically a long way of saying
VLANs so trunking is needed to carry VLAN information. There are 2 different methods for trunking, 802.1Q and ISL. Of these, only 802.1Q is supported by
multiple vendors since ISL is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

QUESTION 74
Which statement about using native VLANs to carry untagged frames is true?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2 carries native VLAN information, but version 1 does not.
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 carries native VLAN information, but version 2 does not.
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 and version 2 carry native VLAN information.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 3 carries native VLAN information, but versions 1 and 2 do not.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) version 2 passes native VLAN information between Cisco switches. If you have a native VLAN mismatch, you will see CDP error
messages on the console output.
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=29803&seqNum=3

QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit.

A multilayer switch has been configured to send and receive encapsulated and tagged frames. VLAN 2013 on the multilayer switch is configured as the native VLAN. Which option is the cause of the spanning-tree error?
A. VLAN spanning-tree in SW-2 is configured.
B. spanning-tree bpdu-filter is enabled.
C. 802.1q trunks are on both sides, both with native VLAN mismatch.
D. VLAN ID 1 should not be used for management traffic because its unsafe.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Here we see that the native VLAN has been configured as 2013 on one switch, but 1 (the default native VLAN) on the other switch. If you use 802.1Q trunks, you must ensure that you choose a common native VLAN for each port in the trunk. Failure to do this causes Cisco switches to partially shut down the trunk port because having mismatched native VLANs can result in spanning-tree loops. Native VLAN mismatches are detected via spanning tree and Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), not via DTP messages. If spanning tree detects a native VLAN mismatch, spanning tree blocks local native VLAN traffic and the remote switch native VLAN traffic on the trunk; however, the trunk still remains up for other VLANs. Reference: http://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx? b=CCNP_Studies_Switching&seqNum=25
QUESTION 76
A network engineer must improve bandwidth and resource utilization on the switches by stopping the inefficient flooding of frames on trunk ports where the frames
are not needed.
Which Cisco IOS feature can be used to achieve this task?

A. VTP pruning
B. access list
C. switchport trunk allowed VLAN
D. VLAN access-map

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cisco advocates the benefits of pruning VLANs in order to reduce unnecessary frame flooding. The “vtp pruning” command prunes VLANs automatically, which
stops the inefficient flooding of frames where they are not needed.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6500-series- switches/24330-185.html

QUESTION 77
Which action allows a network engineer to limit a default VLAN from being propagated across all trunks?
A. Upgrade to VTP version 3 for advanced feature set support.
B. Enable VTP pruning on the VTP server.
C. Manually prune default VLAN with switchport trunk allowed vlans remove.
D. Use trunk pruning vlan 1.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Manaully pruning the default VLAN (1) can only be done with the “switchport trunk allowed vlans remove” command. VLAN 1 is not VTP pruning eligible so it
cannot be done via VTP pruning. The “trunk pruning vlan 1” option is not a valid command.

QUESTION 78
What is required for a LAN switch to support 802.1q Q-in-Q encapsulation?
A. Support less than 1500 MTU
B. Support 1504 MTU or higher
C. Support 1522 layer 3 IP and IPX packet
D. Support 1547 MTU only
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
The default system MTU for traffic on Catalyst switches is 1500 bytes. Because the 802.1Q tunneling (Q-in-Q) feature increases the frame size by 4 bytes when
the extra tag is added, you must configure all switches in the service-provider network to be able to process maximum frames by increasing the switch system
MTU size to at least 1504 bytes.
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12.1_13_ea1/confi guration/guide/swtunnel.html

QUESTION 79
Refer to the exhibit.

How many bytes are added to each frame as a result of the configuration?
A. 4-bytes except the native VLAN
B. 8-bytes except the native VLAN
C. 4-bytes including native VLAN
D. 8-bytes including native VLAN

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN. A VLAN tag adds 4 bytes to the frame. Two bytes are used for the tag
protocol identifier (TPID), the other two bytes for tag control information (TCI).

QUESTION 80
A network engineer configured a fault-tolerance link on Gigabit Ethernet links G0/1, G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 between two switches using Ethernet port-channel. Which action allows interface G0/1 to always actively forward traffic in the port-channel?
A. Configure G0/1 as half duplex and G0/2 as full duplex.
B. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 1.
C. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 65535.
D. LACP traffic goes through G0/4 because it is the highest interface ID.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A LACP port priority is configured on each port using LACP. The port priority can be configured automatically or through the CLI. LACP uses the port priority with
the port number to form the port identifier. The port priority determines which ports should be put in standby mode when there is a hardware limitation that
prevents all compatible ports from aggregating. The higher the number, the lower the priority. The valid range is from 1 to 65535. The default is 32768.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sb/feature/guide/gigeth.html#wp1081491

QUESTION 81
Which statement about the use of PAgP link aggregation on a Cisco switch that is running Cisco IOS Software is true?
A. PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
B. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
C. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-active, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
D. PAgP modes are off, active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-auto, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed.
The PAgP modes are explained below.

1.
on: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to come up.
2.
off: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to remain down.
3.
auto: PAgP is running passively. The formation of a channel is desired; however, it is not initiated.
4.
desirable: PAgP is running actively. The formation of a channel is desired and ini- tiated.
Only the combinations of auto-desirable, desirable-desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. If a device on one side of the channel does not support
PAgP, such as a router, the device on the other side must have PAgP set to on.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-2900-xl-series- switches/21041-131.html

QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit.

Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is configured on the interface f0/13 f0/15?
A. Link Combination Control Protocol
B. Port Aggregation Protocol
C. Port Combination Protocol
D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. .

1.
on: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to come up.

2.
off: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to remain down.

3.
auto: PAgP is running passively. The formation of a channel is desired; however, it is not initiated.

4.
desirable: PAgP is running actively. The formation of a channel is desired and ini- tiated.
The Link Aggregate Control Protocol (LACP) trunking supports four modes of operation: On: The link aggregation is forced to be formed without any LACP negotiation .In other words, the switch neither sends the LACP packet nor processes any inbound LACP packet. This is similar to the on state for PAgP.
Off: The link aggregation is not formed. We do not send or understand the LACP packet.

This is similar to the off state for PAgP.

Passive: The switch does not initiate the channel but does understand inbound LACP packets. The peer (in active state) initiates negotiation (when it sends out an LACP packet) which we receive and answer, eventually to form the aggregation channel with the peer. This is similar to the auto mode in PAgP.

Active: We can form an aggregate link and initiate the negotiation. The link aggregate is formed if the other end runs in LACP active or passive mode. This is
similar to the desir- able mode of PAgP. In this example, we see that fa 0/13, fa0/14, and fa0/15 are all in Port Channel 12, which is operating in desirable mode, which is only a PAgP mode.
QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit.

Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an EtherChannel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here:
Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac): Non-IP: Source MAC address IPv4: Source MAC address IPv6: Source IP address Server_Switch#
However, traffic is still slow. Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug on the switch.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Since this traffic is coming from PC-1, the source MAC address will always be that of PC-1, and since the load balancing method is source MAC, traffic will only be
using one of the port channel links. The load balancing method should be changed to destination MAC, since the web server has two NICs traffic will be load
balanced across both MAC addresses.

QUESTION 84
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but not the duplex for all ports in the bundle.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PAgP aids in the automatic creation of EtherChannel links. PAgP packets are sent between EtherChannel-capable ports in order to negotiate the formation of a
channel. Some restrictions are deliberately introduced into PAgP. The restrictions are:
PAgP does not form a bundle on ports that are configured for dynamic VLANs. PAgP requires that all ports in the channel belong to the same VLAN or are configured as trunk ports. When a bundle already exists and a VLAN of a port is modified, all ports in the bundle are modified to match that VLAN.
PAgP does not group ports that operate at different speeds or port duplex. If speed and duplex change when a bundle exists, PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.

PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel. The device on the other side must have PAgP set to on if a device on one side of the channel does not support PAgP, such as a router. Reference: http:// www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/etherchannel/12023-4.html
QUESTION 85
Which statement about using EtherChannel on Cisco IOS switches is true?
A. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
B. A switch can support up to 10 compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 1000 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
C. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 16 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
D. A switch can support up to 10 compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 1000 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 10 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: An EtherChannel consists of individual Fast Ethernet or Gigabit Ethernet links bundled into a single logical link. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps (Fast EtherChannel) or 8 Gbps (Gigabit EtherChannel) between your switch and another switch or host. Each EtherChannel can consist of up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces. All interfaces in each EtherChannel must be the same speed, and all must be configured as either Layer 2 or Layer 3 interfaces. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/etherchannel/12023-4.html
QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
These three ports show that they are in Port Channel 1, and the (SU) means they are in use and operating at layer 2. The protocol used for this port channel
shows as LACP, which is a standards based protocol, as opposed to PAgP, which is Cisco proprietary.

QUESTION 87
What happens on a Cisco switch that runs Cisco IOS when an RSTP-configured switch receives 802.1d BPDU?
A. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP switch receives an 802.1d BPDU, it responds with an 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.
B. 802.1d understands RSTP BPDUs because they are the same version, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it responds with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.
C. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it does not respond with a 802.1d BPDU.
D. 802.1d understands RSTP BPDUs because they are the same version, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it does not respond with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: For backward compatibility with 802.1D switches, RSTP selectively sends 802.1D configuration BPDUs and TCN BPDUs on a per-port basis. When a port is initialized, the migrate-delay timer is started (specifies the minimum time during which RSTP BPDUs are sent), and RSTP BPDUs are sent. While this timer is active, the switch processes all BPDUs received on that port and ignores the protocol type. If the switch receives an 802.1D BPDU after the port migration-delay timer has expired, it assumes that it is connected to an 802.1D switch and starts using only 802.1D BPDUs. However, if the RSTP switch is using 802.1D BPDUs on a port and receives an RSTP BPDU after the timer has expired, it restarts the timer and starts using RSTP BPDUs on that port. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12- 2SX/configuration/guide/book/spantree.html
QUESTION 88
When two MST instances (MST 1 and MST 2) are created on a switch, what is the total number of spanning-tree instances running on the switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unlike other spanning tree protocols, in which all the spanning tree instances are independent, MST establishes and maintains IST, CIST, and CST spanning trees:

An IST is the spanning tree that runs in an MST region.
Within each MST region, MST maintains multiple spanning tree instances. Instance 0 is a special instance for a region, known as the IST. All other MST instances are numbered from 1 to 4094. In the case for this question, there will be the 2 defined MST instances, and the special 0 instance, for a total of 3 instances.
The IST is the only spanning tree instance that sends and receives BPDUs. All of the other span- ning tree instance information is contained in MSTP records (M-

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QUESTION 116
A customer is designing a SAN for each of two data centers. The two data centers are connected by dark fiber, which is owned by the customer. Cisco ONS platforms terminate the fiber and provide service aggregation. The customer requirements include that the SAN in each data center meet or exceed five nines of availability and be interconnected using 16 separate lambdas. The customer has four storage devices in each data center, and each storage device has four Fibre Channel interfaces. Each data center has 32 servers, and each server has two host bus adapters. The majority of the servers require only 20 to 30MBps of throughput on average, but four of the servers require 150 MBps of throughput on average. What will provide the most cost-effective design to satisfy these requirements?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355 an additional 16-port Fibre Channel line card
B. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with an additional 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. two Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9506 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9509 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and three 32-port Fibre Channel line cards

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
DRAG DROP
You work as network consultant. Your customer Certkiller .com requires your services. Specifically you are
required to drag Certkiller ‘s business consideration next to the MDS feature that will solve that issue. Note:
You might not have to use all available options.

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 118

What would be a good initial SAN-migration project for a small or medium-sized business that possesses ample WAN bandwidth, but that has an immediate need to reduce spending and to maximize resources?
A. Reduce the WAN bandwidth.
B. Implement FCIP to consolidate all remote SANs.
C. Implement backup consolidation.
D. Centralize the data center and implement an iSCSI solution.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355 Refer to the exhibit. A customer is designing a SAN for each of two data centers. The two data centers are connected by dark fiber, which is owned by the customer. Cisco ONS platforms terminate the fiber and provide service aggregation. The customer requirements include that the SAN in each data center meet or exceed five nines of availability and be interconnected using 16 separate lambdas. Links between data centers must be able to tolerate failure of any component. The customer has eight storage devices in each data center, and each storage device has eight Fibre Channel interfaces. Each data center has 120 servers, and each server has two host bus adapters. The servers generally require only 10 to 20MBps of throughput. The customer also requires that the solution be efficient on its use of ports, and provide room to grow by at least 10 percent to accommodate server growth over the next year. What is the most cost-effective design to satisfy these requirements?

A. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in each data center, each MDS 9509 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and five 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
B. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in each data center, each MDS 9509 with seven 16-port Fibre Channel line cards
C. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in each data center, each MDS 9509 with one 16-port Fibre Channel line card and six 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in each data center, each MDS 9509 with seven 32-port Fibre Channel line cards

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
A customer has 80% of the total storage space directly connected to servers. The storage space needs are growing at 50% per year. Given these facts, which solution is recommended?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. increase in server capacity
B. server consolidation
C. storage consolidation
D. storage expansion
E. SAN consolidation
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
In addition to providing secure computer room access, what three MDS 9000 features can help enhance physical security? (Choose three.)
A. the placement of all unused FC ports in a VSAN set to “deny”
B. the placement of every host in its own ZoneSet that includes its storage devices
C. the use of the port security feature to bind pWWNs and sWWNs to specific ports
D. the use of DH-CHAP authentication to ensure fabric level security
E. the use of SSH to block access to all unused ports

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
DRAG DROP Your Certkiller .com trainee Sandra asks you to match the applications with its most appropriate corresponding N-tier layer. You must comply.

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 123
A customer has two data centers connected by dark fiber and also has a requirement for synchronous data replication between the data centers. If the data centers are 48 km apart, what is the most cost effective solution?
A. CWDM
B. IVR
C. FSPF
D. DWDM
E. Native FC

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Which SFP and media-type combination would be recommended for a high-speed 10-kilometer link between two Cisco MDS switches?
A. 2-Gbps-SW, LC SFP, 50/125-micron multimode media
B. 2-Gbps-SW, LC SFP, 62.5/125-micron multimode media
C. 2-Gbps-LW, LC SFP, 9/125-micron single-mode media
D. 1-Gbps-SW, LC SFP, 50/125-micron multimode media

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-355

Refer to the exhibit. What port type should be used between the two switches to maximize performance?
A. B
B. E
C. F
D. NL
E. TE

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
An administrator is concerned about security and wants to have host bus adapters authenticate against an authoritative server upon fabric login. The administrator configures the fabric and hosts accordingly but needs to configure an authoritative server. Which two authentication servers can the MDS be configured to use?(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. LDAP
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS+
E. NIS Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
What MDS 9000 feature provides more efficient SAN utilization by creating hardware-based isolated environments within a single physical SAN infrastructure?
A. VSAN
B. SPAN
C. trunking
D. port channel
E. zones

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Which statement is true about LUN zoning in a heterogeneous environment?
A. Hardware-enforced LUN zoning helps to ensure that LUNs are accessible by all hosts.
B. Use LUN zoning instead of LUN masking to centralize management in mixed storage environments.
C. LUN zoning requires no special configuration on storage arrays.
D. LUN masking should be used in all situations.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
What are two reasons that remote backup (remote vaulting) is a core application of FCIP? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP is relatively inexpensive when compared with optical storage networking.
B. Enterprises and storage service providers (SSPs) can provide remote-vaulting services by using existing FCIP WAN infrastructures.
C. FCIP is very reliable because it always uses host-based synchronous replication.
D. FCIP is very reliable because it always uses disk-based asynchronous replication.
E. Applications are often sensitive to high latency, but in a properly designed FCIP backup implementation, the application can be protected from problems with the backup process by using techniques such as snapshots and split mirrors. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which SAN topology should be used for the largest SAN fabrics?
A. arbitrated loop
B. full mesh
C. core-edge
D. cascade
E. collapsed core

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Which Cisco MDS feature alleviates a head-of-line blocking condition when occasional bursts of traffic exceed the capacity of an end device to receive data?
A. virtual output queues
B. VSAN allowed list
C. VSANs
D. quality of service

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
What are three key benefits of Cisco’s collapsed-core switch configuration? (Choose three.)
A. ease of management
B. increased port channel utilization
C. reduction in equipment and installation cost
D. higher effective port count
E. reduction in total disk space requirements

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
What are three host characteristics that are crucial when planning a SAN design? (Choose three.)
A. host operating system
B. data replication
C. application I/O throughput
D. type of file system
E. CUP and memory resources
F. multipathing

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
A customer is designing a storage network infrastructure to support a database application. Each server will have two 1-Gbps host bus adapters, one connected to each of the two physical fabrics. The disk array has two 2-Gbps Fibre Channel interfaces. Each server will need to drive 20 MBps (encoded) of throughput continuously per host bus adapter, and the multipathing software on each server is not configured for load balancing.What is the maximum number of servers that can be connected to this disk array while satisfying the performance requirement?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
In the design of an iSCSI implementation in conjunction with a Cisco MDS-based SAN, which technology provides for diverse connections into multiple SAN switches and is used to provide automatic failover using a single target IP address?
A. multipathing
B. EtherChannel
C. VRRP
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
What effect does VSAN technology have on typical capacity planning for a storage network?
A. Because of the complete isolation of VSANs, more ports are required in a VSAN environment than in a non-VSAN environment.
B. When capacity planning where VSANs will be implemented, each VSAN must be capacity planned independently of all other VSANs.
C. VSANs are over provisioned separately to provide for capacity growth.
D. Unused ports can easily be redeployed for other applications in other VSANs.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
A customer has 80% of the total storage space directly connected to servers. The storage space needs are growing at 50% per year. Given these facts, which solution is recommended?
A. increase in server capacity
B. server consolidation
C. storage consolidation
D. storage expansion
E. SAN consolidation

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Exhibit:

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
Refer to the exhibit. What topology allows the customer network, made up of several SAN islands, to be integrated into a single SAN topology, and still retain its existing functionality?
A. Core-Edge Topology
B. VSAN with Collapsed-Core Topology
C. VSAN with Core-Edge Topology
D. Single Large SAN Fabric

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. A customer has deployed two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors. One MDS 9509 is deployed in each of two separate data centers. The primary data center is always active, and the secondary data center is considered a standby site. The data centers are connected together by an unreliable Gigabit Ethernet connection that is shared by many departments. A replication application is using Fibre Channel over IP (FCIP) as its transport mechanism over the Gigabit Ethernet circuit. The administrator is concerned about network stability in the production fabric and the impact of a Gigabit Ethernet circuit outage on the production fabric. The administrator is deploying Inter-VSAN Routing to isolate the production fabric from the standby data center fabric, and only has one license. Where should the administrator install and configure Inter-VSAN Routing?
A. Switch A
B. Switch B
C. The administrator should not install and configure Inter-VSAN Routing.
D. Switch A and Switch B

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
A customer has a need to synchronously replicate data from the primary data center to a standby data center that is 30 kilometers away. The customer owns the
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
fiber between the two data centers and uses the link for Gigabit Ethernet connectivity today. The Gigabit Ethernet connection is heavily utilized and generally remains at 90-percent utilization. The customer expects that the replication traffic will require approximately 30 MBps, and is looking for a low-cost solution. Which replication solution would you recommend?
A. FCIP
B. CWDM
C. DWDM
D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Which statement best defines storage consolidation?
A. making an enterprise’s total disk space highly available to the entire enterprise, often by placing it in a SAN
B. making an enterprise’s disk space, servers, and tape libraries highly available to the entire enterprise, often by placing them in a SAN
C. making an enterprise’s total storage networking less costly by using iSCSI
D. making an enterprise’s total disk space highly available by transferring copies of an enterprise’s total storage space to an offsite location
E. making an enterprise’s total disk space highly available by connecting all of an enterprise’s storage devices to one (or two) large servers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
A customer SAN design requires the use of existing non-Cisco storage switches in a core edge topology. What must be considered when attaching an MDS 9000 switch as the core device in this network?
A. Trunking is not supported between the core and edge switches.
B. Zoning cannot be used since the domain IDs are in different ranges.
C. FSPF cannot be used between the core and edge switches.
D. If VSANs are implemented in the core, IVR cannot be used.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
Select three common attributes of Gigabit Ethernet compared to Fibre Channel as a storage transport service. (Choose three.)
A. high bandwidth
B. low bandwidth
C. high latency
D. low latency
E. long distance

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
What are three value-added features in the Cisco MDS 9000 Series of multiprotocol directors? (Choose three.)
A. FSPF
B. FCC
C. link aggregation
D. buffer-to-buffer credits
E. QoS
F. IPFC

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which design approach provides the greatest protection against failures when designing for high availability?
A. Segment the SAN architecture by the use of VSANs.
B. Use zoning to isolate applications in a consolidated SAN architecture.
C. Use appropriate MDS QoS mechanisms to guarantee that each application receives the necessary bandwidth.
D. Implement redundant fabrics across redundant physical infrastructures.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
What two statements correctly describe vision or mission? (Choose two.)
A. A mission is a statement of the purpose of a company.
B. A vision is what a company wants to become in the mid-term or long-term future.
C. A vision describes actions the organization will take to achieve specific goals.
D. A mission identifies the company’s planned investments to increase revenue.
E. A vision is only used by for-profit companies.
F. A mission is only used by public sector organizations.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
What two statements are true about Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)? (Choose two.)
A. A KPI is a quantifiable metric of the performance of essential operations and/or processes in an organization.
B. A KPI provides the focal point for identifying how much risk a company can take in trying to avoid government fines.
C. A KPI could reflect the performance of Service Providers in achieving their goals and objectives.
D. KPIs are based on judgment, and therefore should be used carefully when defining the value of a technology solution.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4 Select and Place:

Correct Answer: QUESTION 5 Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Which is a critical first step when thinking about how to communicate technical content to a senior business manager?
A. Identify a person on her staff who can explain details.
B. Listen to the customer to understand her KPIs.
C. Plan out your message to explain potential options.
D. Draft a high level message using language pulled from the top IT vendors.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Your company wants to increase sales by selling in new countries and by getting more repeat orders and revenue from current customers. What is one technique that can help to communicate how technology solutions can improve business outcomes?
A. Prepare a detailed cause and effect model.
B. Benchmark different technology solutions to identify the best mix of hardware and software.
C. Prepare a visual diagram showing the current business operation and possible future scenarios with different technology solutions in place.
D. Create a document that has a summary of current problems followed by detailed descriptions of technology features that reduce operating costs.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
When asked about IT skills gaps, where does “Speak business language” fall in a list of concerns?
A. “Speak business language” would be helpful to improve, but not among the most critcal gaps.
B. The ranking varies depending on the industry and whether the business person is new in their job.
C. “Speak business language” is consistently mentioned as a top concern for IT professionals.
D. “Speak business language” is a very low priority but moving higher because business people need to learn the terms for technologies like cloud.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
What is a recommended technique for building a good relationship with someone who has a dominanting or very strong personality?
A. 1. Be direct and clear. 2. Stick to the topic, with little discussion about things outside of work.
B. 1. Use humor to create an informal environment. 2. Use emotional language or speak in extreme terms — like “outstanding” or “I love that idea”.
C. 1. Make sure to get your points out first and explain why they are right. 2. Be prepared for criticism and have a couple of topics ready where you will immediately give in.
D. 1. Discuss the person’s interests outside of work. 2. Limit the conversation to just two topics, since the conversation will likely go into detailed stories about experiences.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which two communications or interpersonal skills are critical for an Enterprise IT Business Specialist? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to build relationships
B. Ability to explain design decisions in multiple languages
C. Ability to plan and schedule complex data migration
D. Ability to influence others
E. Ability to interpret financial statements
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6
Which is a critical first step when thinking about how to communicate technical content to a senior business manager?
A. Identify a person on their staff who can explain details to them
B. Gather information and assess their level of interest and knowledge about technical topics
C. Plan out your message to explain the problem, situation and options – before communicating a decision or recommendation
D. Draft a high level message, which uses terms and language pulled from web sites from the top IT vendors
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which is a recommended approach for gaining trust from stakeholders that you understand their needs?
A. Keep the conversations very specific to your areas of technical expertise.
B. Start discussions at a high level before focusing on detailed technical items.
C. Explain how you are fixing problems followed by asking questions such as where lower expenses fall in their list of priorities.
D. Start the discussion by providing examples of what you have done for other departments in the past.
Correct Answer: B Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Business departments have each selected one person to represent their needs for an improved reporting system. Which is a recommended way to capture, confirm, and prioritize the requirements of the group of departments?
A. Conduct individual interviews then summarize the inputs.
B. Send out a survey to the representatives and the managers of each department.
C. Conduct one or more workshop sessions.
D. Distribute two industry benchmark reports then run a conference call to hear opinions and answer questions.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What is a primary benefit of asking questions to stakeholders who do not have strong decision authority over project funding, but who do have relevant experience?
A. It shows them that you are interested in their opinions.
B. The more data, the better.
C. It can find requirements or opportunities that are relevant to future discussions.
D. It shows the decision makers you are taking the initiative to get input from people that they might not have identified for interviews.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which two are characteristics of using effective questions to gather information? (Choose two.)
A. They do not bias or influence the respondent to agree with the interviewer’s opinion.
B. They should be structured for a simple “yes” or “no” response.
C. They provide a scenario, so that the respondent can make assumptions in providing her answer.
D. Each question is independent of other questions that may be asked during an interview.
E. They may be tailored to the audience, or could be a standard set of questions for a group of respondents.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
Which discovery methods or aids are typically free?
A. Unlimited access to all reports from conferences run by research firms
B. Government reports on the availability of access to broadband within different emerging countries
C. Analysis of private company expenditures on technology
D. White papers authored by consultants, industry professionals, analyst firms, or vendors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which discovery methods or aids typically cost a fee?
A. White papers authored by consultants, industry professionals, analyst firms, or vendors
B. Unlimited access to all reports from conferences run by research firms
C. Primary Research
D. Crowdsharing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which two are examples of open-ended questions? (Choose two.)
A. What switch models do you currently use in your network?
B. What are the main reasons why customers prefer ordering services from you?
C. What is the planned ROI for this new implementation?
D. What do you think about the future of the Data Center market?
E. What are your working hours?
F. Does your existing infrastructure maintenance become more problematic each year?
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
Which two are true of closed questions? (Choose two.)
A. Closed questions are used to retrieve facts.
B. Respondents can answer closed questions more quickly because they seek a limited amount of detail.
C. Closed questions are used to retrieve opinions.
D. Closed questions are used to make decisions based on the data in a report.
E. Closed questions are excellent for workshops where you need people to come to a consensus about a design decision.
Correct Answer: AB

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Cisco 352-001 Dumps, Download Latest Cisco 352-001 Answers Are Based On The Real ExamCisco 352-001 Dumps, Download Latest Cisco 352-001 Answers Are Based On The Real Exam

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QUESTION 26
During a network design review, it is recommended that the network with a single large area should be broken up into a backbone and multiple nonbackbone areas. There are differing opinions on how many ABRs are needed for each area for redundancy. What would be the impact of having additional ABRs per area?
A. There is no impact to increasing the number of ABRs.
B. The SPF calculations are more complex.
C. The number of externals and network summaries are increased.
D. The size of the FIB is increased.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
A large enterprise customer is migrating thousands of retail offices from legacy TDM circuits to an Ethernet-based service. The network is running OSPF and has been stable for many years. It is now possible to backhaul the circuits directly to the data centers, bypassing the regional aggregation routers. Which two networking issues need to be addressed to ensure stability with the new design? (Choose two.)
A. Nothing will change if the number of offices is the same.
B. Nothing will change if the number of physical interfaces stays the same.
C. The RIB will increase significantly.
D. The FIB will increase significantly.
E. The amount of LSA flooding will increase significantly.
F. The size of the link-state database will increase significantly.

Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.

The design is being proposed for use within the network. The CE devices are OSPF graceful restart-capable, and the core devices are OSPF graceful restart-aware. The WAN advertisements received from BGP are redistributed into OSPF. A forwarding supervisor failure event takes place on CE A. During this event, how will the routes learned from the WAN be seen on the core devices?
A. via CE A and CE B
B. via CE A
C. via CE B
D. no WAN routes will be accessible

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.

How would you adjust the design to improve convergence on the network?
A. Add an intra-POP link between routers 1A and 1B, and enable IP LFA FRR.
B. Use an IP SLA between the end stations to detect path failures.
C. Enable SSO-NSF on routers 1A and 1B.
D. Use BGP to connect the sites over the WAN.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
A company requests that you consult with them regarding the design of their production, development, and test environments. They indicate that the environments must communicate effectively, but they must be kept separate due to the inherent failures on the development network. What will be configured on the links between the networks to support their design requirements?
A. IBGP
B. EBGP
C. OSPF
D. static routes

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
A service provider creates a network design that runs MPLS in its WAN backbone using OSPF as the IGP routing protocol. What would be two effects of additionally implementing MPLS-TE? (Choose two.)
A. MPLS-TE is required to reroute traffic within less than 1 second in case of a link failure inside the backbone.
B. MPLS-TE is required to route different MPLS QoS service classes through different paths.
C. MPLS-TE and OSPF cannot be used together inside one MPLS network.
D. MPLS-TE cannot use OSPF for the traffic path calculation.
E. MPLS-TE is required to create backup paths independently from the IGP.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

Your junior design engineer presents this configuration design. What is the next-hop router for CE3, and why?
A. CE1. BGP weight is higher than CE2.
B. CE2. EBGP administrative distance is lower than RIP.
C. CE2. The link between CE2 and PE1 has more bandwidth than CE1-to-PE1.
D. CE1. HSRP on CE1 is in active state.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which two mechanisms ensure that a network design provides fast path failure detection? (Choose two.)
A. BFD
B. fast hello packets
C. UDLD
D. IP Cisco Express Forwarding

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 34
In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.)
A. reduces processing load
B. provides sub-second convergence
C. improves network stability
D. prevents routing loops
E. quickly detects network failures
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 35
You are evaluating convergence characteristics of various interior gateway protocols for a new network design. Which technology allows link-state routing protocols to calculate paths to destination prefixes that are functionally similar to feasible successors in Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol?
A. Incremental Shortest Path First
B. Cisco Multiprotocol Label Switching Traffic Engineering Fast Reroute
C. Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute
D. partial route calculation
E. Fast-Flooding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
You are hired to design a solution that will improve network availability for users on a campus network with routed access. If the budget limits you to three components, which three components would you recommend in your design proposal? (Choose three.)
A. redundant power supplies in the access routers
B. standby route processors for SSO in the core routers
C. standby route processors for SSO in the distribution routers
D. standby route processors for SSO in the access routers
E. replace copper links between devices with fiber links

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 37
You are designing a network to support data, voice and video. Which two main factors will you address to improve network convergence? (Choose two.)
A. event propagation delay
B. failure detection delay
C. forwarding engine update delay
D. routing table recalculation delay
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.

This diagram depicts the design of a small network that will run EIGRP on R1 and R2, and EIGRP Stub on R3. In which two ways will this network be impacted if there is link instability between R1 and R2? (Choose two.)
A. R1 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R2 and R3.
B. R3 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R2.
C. R2 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R3.
D. R3 will be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.
E. R3 will not be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.

In this BGP design, what is the next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R8 and R7?
A. The next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R7 is R8 and the next hop for R8 is R7.
B. The next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R7 is R5 and the next hop for R8 is R6.
C. The next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R7 is R6 and the next hop for R8 is R5.
D. The next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R7 is R3 and the next hop for R8 is R4.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.

You are developing a migration plan to enable IPv6 in your IPv4 network. Starting at R3 and assuming default IS-IS operations, what is likely to happen when you enable IPv6 routing on the link from R3 to R2?
A. Only R3 and R2 have IPv4 and IPv6 reachability.
B. R2 receives an IPv6 default route from R3.
C. Loopback reachability between all routers for IPv4 is lost.
D. All routers except R2 are reachable through IPv4.
E. R3 advertises the link from R3-R2 to R1, R4 and R5 only.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
You are a network designer and are responsible for ensuring that the network you design is secure. How do you plan to prevent infected devices on your network from sourcing random DDoS attacks using forged source addresses?
A. ACL-based forwarding
B. ACL filtering by destination
C. Unicast RPF loose mode
D. Unicast RPF strict mode

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Your design plan includes mutual redistribution of two OSPF networks at multiple locations, with connectivity to all locations in both networks. How is this accomplished without creating routing loops?
A. Use route maps on the ASBRs to allow only internal routes to be redistributed.
B. Use route maps on the ASBRs to allow internal and external routes to be redistributed.
C. Use route maps on the ASBRs to set tags for redistributed routes.
D. Use route maps on the ASBRs to filter routes with tags so they are not redistributed.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
A planned EBGP network will use OSPF to reach the EBGP peer addresses. Which of these conditions should be avoided in the design that could otherwise cause the peers to flap continuously?
A. An ACL blocks TCP port 179 in one direction.
B. IP addresses used to peer are also being sent via EBGP.
C. The OSPF area used for peering is nonbackbone (not area 0).
D. The routers are peered by using a default route sent by OSPF.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
When designing a large full mesh network running OSPF, how would you reduce LSA repetition?
A. Elect a DR and BDR.
B. Use access control lists to control outbound advertisements.
C. Choose one or two routers to re-flood LSA information.
D. Put each of the point-to-point links in your full mesh networking into a separate area.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
A data center provider has designed a network using these requirements:
Two data center sites are connected to the public Internet.

Both data centers are connected to different Internet providers.

Both data centers are also directly connected with a private connection for the internal traffic, and public Internet traffic can also be routed at this direct
connection.
The data center provider has only one /19 public IP address block.
Under normal conditions, Internet traffic should be routed directly to the data center where the services are located. When one Internet connection fails, the complete traffic for both data centers should be routed by using the remaining Internet connection. In which two ways can this routing be achieved? (Choose two.)
A. The data center provider must have an additional public IP address block for this routing.
B. One /20 block is used for the first data center and the second /20 block is used for the second data center. The /20 block from the local data center is sent out with a low BGP weight and the / 20 block from the remote data center is sent out with a higher BGP weight at both sites.
C. One /20 block is used for the first data center and the second /20 block is used for the second data center. The /20 block from the local data center is sent out without path prepending and the / 20 block from the remote data center is sent out with path prepending at both sites.
D. One /20 block is used for the first data center and the second /20 block is used for the second data center. Each /20 block is only sent out locally. The /19 block is sent out at both Internet connections for the backup case to reroute the traffic through the remaining Internet connection.
E. One /20 block is used for the first data center and the second /20 block is used for the second data center. The /20 block from the local data center is sent out with a low BGP local preference and the /20 block from the remote data center is sent out with a higher BGP local preference at both sites.
F. BGP will always load-balance the traffic to both data center sites.

Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 127
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the
basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host
to host?

A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Which switch command enables a trunking protocol that appends a four byte CRC to the packet?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation itef
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’?
A. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
B. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
A. the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
B. the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
C. the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address
D. the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
E. protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
F. protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1.
VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is
being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are
operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the

network.
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam

http://www.TestInside.com Testinside What three configuration issues on TEST1 could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which method of Layer 3 switching uses a forwarding information base (FIB)?
A. route caching
B. flow-based switching
C. demand-based switching
D. topology-based switching

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that
user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or
access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. ICMP
D. HSRP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. learn
C. listen
D. speak E. active

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of
a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Which protocol inserts a four byte tag into the Ethernet frame and recalculates CRC value?
A. VTP
B. 802.1Q
C. DTP
D. ISL

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
What is the cause of jitter?
A. variable queue delays TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
B. packet drops
C. transmitting too many small packets
D. compression

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 140
The original frame is encapsulated and an additional header is added before the frame is carried over
a trunk link. At the receiving end, the header is removed and the frame is forwarded to the assigned VLAN.
This describes which technology?
A. DISL
B. DTP
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. ISL
E. MPLS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
On a multilayer Catalyst switch, which interface command is used to convert a Layer 3 interface to a
Layer 2 interface?
A. switchport
B. no switchport
C. switchport mode access
D. swithport access vlan vlan-id

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Which two statements concerning STP state changes are true? (Choose two.)
A. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
B. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to listening because it assumes itself as root.
C. Upon bootup, a port transitions from listening to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
D. If a forwarding port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
E. If a forwarding port receives an inferior BPDU, it will transition to listening.
F.     If a blocked port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
How does 802.1q trunking keep track of multiple VLAN’s?
A. modifies the port index of a data frame to indicate the VLAN
B. adds a new header containing the VLAN ID to the data frame
C. encapsulates the data frame with a new header and frame check sequence
D. tags the data frame with VLAN information and recalculates the CRC value

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Given the above partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose two.)

A. VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down.
B. VLANs 1-5 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
C. VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
D. VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10.
E. VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Given the above diagram and assuming that STP is enabled on all switch devices, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

A. DSW11 will be elected the root bridge.
B. DSW12 will be elected the root bridge.
C. ASW13 will be elected the root bridge.
D. P3/1 will be elected the nondesignated port.
E. P2/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
F. P3/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?

A. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
C. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096 TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com
Testinside
E. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
F. ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?

A. standby 1 preempt
B. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1 TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Router A will assume the active state if its priority is the highest.
B. If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over.
C. When Ethernet 0/3 of RouterA comes back up, the priority will become 105.
D. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6.
E. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. SLB
E. RPR
F. RPR+

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
QUESTION 151
Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about
the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)

A. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
B. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
E. This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 200.
F.     BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which two statements are true when the extended system ID feature is enabled? (Choose two.)
A. The BID is made up of the bridge priority value(two bytes) and bridge MAC address (six bytes).
B. The BID is made up of the bridge priority (four bits), the system ID (12 bits), and a bridge MAC address (48 bits).
C. The BID is made up of the system ID (six bytes) and bridge priority value (two bytes).
D. The system ID value is the VLAN ID (VID).
E. The system ID value is a unique MAC address allocated from a pool of MAC addresses assigned to the switch or module.
F.     The system ID value is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 153
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?

A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
16.11.112.
A. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 155
16.11.111.
A. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
B. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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