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What’s new in Cisco CCNA certification 2024
Over the years, Cisco has been looking for changes to keep up with the market.
In 2022 and 2024, Cisco made a complete change to its certification process, eliminating many areas of expertise such as Cisco CCNA voice and security, and controversially molding some CCIE courses, resulting in many experts in areas such as voice and collaboration no longer being certified!
Reading the chart entries for service providers and CCNAs, you’ll see that as of today (April 15, 2024), there aren’t any announcements yet, and the bottom tab of the CCNA shows that nothing will change this year, so you can safely assume it will remain as it is until the end of 2024.
You can try here first, free Cisco 200-301 CCNA exam questions, practice below.
The Cisco CCNA (200-301) exam is 120 minutes long and consists of 100-120 questions. Questions can be multiple-choice, drag-and-drop, mock, and other types.
Pick up where you shared last time (200-301 exam questions Q1-Q15) and share 15 more latest exam questions (total questions 1450)
Question 16:
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the hostname on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
A. password Password
B. crypto key generates rsa modulus 1024
C. ip domain-name domain
D. ip ssh authentication-retries 2
Correct Answer: C
Question 17:
Which command must be entered so that the default gateway is automatically distributed when DHCP is configured on a router?
A. DNS-server
B. default-router
C. ip helper-address
D. default-gateway
Correct Answer: B
Question 18:
Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?
A. to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit
B. to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment
C. to prevent loops in a network
D. to protect against default gateway failures
Correct Answer: D
Question 19:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:
From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228).
We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0. So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case, we don’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.
Let\’s take another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 -> The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28. (228 + the increment number).0 or
172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.
Question 20:
What is the expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
A. A distributed management plane must be used.
B. Software upgrades are performed from a central controller
C. Complexity increases when new device configurations are added
D. Custom applications are needed to configure network devices
Correct Answer: B
Question 21:
Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)
A. FF02::0001:FF00:0000/104
B. ff06:bb43:cc13:dd16:1bb:ff14:7545:234d
C. 2002::512:1204b:1111::1/64
D. 2001:701:104b:1111::1/64
E. ::ffff:10.14.101.1/96
Correct Answer: DE
the IPv6 address “::ffff:10.14.101.1/96” is a valid representation of an IPv6 address with an embedded IPv4 address. This format is known as an IPv4-mapped IPv6 address.
In this case, “::ffff:10.14.101.1” represents the IPv4 address “10.14.101.1” embedded within an IPv6 address. The “::ffff:” prefix indicates that the following part of the address is an IPv4 address. The “/96” suffix indicates the network prefix length, specifying that the first 96 bits represent the network portion of the address.
Question 22:
What is a DHCP client?
A. a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address
B. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically
C. a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.
D. a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.
Correct Answer: B
Question 23:
Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
Correct Answer: BCD
The “network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has:
Therefore all interfaces in the range of this network will join OSPF.
Question 24:
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration
B. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords
C. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch
D. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established
Correct Answer: A
Question 25:
Refer to the exhibit.
All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and IP OSPF network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A. R14# interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf priority 255 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.14 network 10.10.1.14 0.0.0.0 area 0 network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0
R86#
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252
ip mtu 1400
router ospf 10
router-id 10.10.1.86
network 10.10.1.86 0.0.0.0 area 0
network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0
B. R14# interface Loopback0 ip ospf 10 area 0 interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf 10 area 0 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 ip ospf priority 255 router-id 10.10.1.14
R86#
interface Loopback0
ip ospf 10 area 0
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252
ip ospf 10 area 0
ip mtu 1500
router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.86
C. R14# interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf priority 0 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.14 network 10.10.1.14 0.0.0.0 area 0 network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0
R86#
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252
ip mtu 1500
router ospf 10
router-id 10.10.1.86
network 10.10.1.86 0.0.0.0 area 0
network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0
D. R14# interface Loopback0 ip ospf 10 area 0 interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252
ip ospf priority 255
ip ospf 10 area 0
ip mtu 1500
router ospf 10
router-id 10.10.1.14
R86#
interface Loopback0
ip ospf 10 area 0
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252
ip ospf 10 area 0
ip mtu 1500
router ospf 10
router-id 10.10.1.86
Correct Answer: D
A router with “priority 0” and another with “priority default (1)” formed adjacency and exchanged LSAs and LSDBs normally (I tested it in P.Trace and OSPF dynamic routing works normally), the difference is that there will not be a DR Backup in case fail (that\’s all). One will be DR Other (neighbor Full/DR) and one DR (neighbor Full/DROther), and BDR appears written that it does not exist because priority 0 cannot be either DR or BDR.
(Observation: “point-to-point type” is recommended for this type of connection.)
However, the exercise asks them to act as a central point for exchanging information, in this case, “it gives the impression” that he asked us to select a “DR”. Letter “D” would be the most correct because using “ip ospf priority 255” (in the interface) we define R14 as DR.
Question 26:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
A. lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
B. ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10
Correct Answer: D
Question 27:
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?
A. the path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110
B. the path through R2. because the IBGP administrative distance is 200
C. the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20
D. the path through R3. because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and BGP
Correct Answer: C
Question 28:
In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?
A. traffic policing
B. round-robin scheduling
C. low-latency queuing
D. expedited forwarding
Correct Answer: D
Question 29:
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two.)
A. It supports protocol discovery.
B. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets.
C. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity.
D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.
E. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.
Correct Answer: DE
Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) is just a congestion avoidance mechanism. WRED drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Edge routers assign IP precedences to packets as they enter the network. When a packet arrives, the following events occur:
1. The average queue size is calculated.
2. If the average is less than the minimum queue threshold, the arriving packet is queued.
3. If the average is between the minimum queue threshold for that type of traffic and the maximum threshold for the interface, the packet is either dropped or queued, depending on the packet drop probability for that type of traffic.
4. If the average queue size is greater than the maximum threshold, the packet is dropped.
WRED reduces the chances of tail drop (when the queue is full, the packet is dropped) by selectively dropping packets when the output interface begins to show signs of congestion (thus it can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up).
By dropping some packets early rather than waiting until the queue is full, WRED avoids dropping large numbers of packets at once and minimizes the chances of global synchronization. Thus, WRED allows the transmission line to be used fully at all times.
WRED generally drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Packets with a higher IP precedence are less likely to be dropped than packets with a lower precedence. Thus, the higher the priority of a packet, the higher the probability that the packet will be delivered
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
A. Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.
B. Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.
C. Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.
D. Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.
Correct Answer: C
If a Layer 2 LAN port is connected to a DHCP server, configure the port as trusted by entering the ip dhcp snooping trust interface configuration command. https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/general/Test/dwerblo/broken_guide/snoodhcp.html#wp1073367
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Question 1:
Which access control feature does MAB provide?
A. user access based on IP address
B. allows devices to bypass authenticate*
C. network access based on the physical address of a device
D. simultaneous user and device authentication
Correct Answer: C
Question 2:
What does the Cisco DNA Center use to enable the delivery of applications through a network and to yield analytics for innovation?
A. process adapters
B. Command Runner
C. intent-based APIs
D. domain adapters
Correct Answer: C
The Cisco DNA Center open platform for intent-based networking provides 360- degree extensibility across multiple components, including:
+ Intent-based APIs leverage the controller to enable business and IT applications to deliver intent to the network and to reap network analytics and insights for IT and business innovation. These enable APIs that allow Cisco DNA Center to
receive input from a variety of sources, both internal to IT and from line-of-business applications, related to application policy, provisioning, software image management, and assurance.
A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0.
Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?
A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point
B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
Correct Answer: A
Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR while Point-to-point/multipoint do not elect DR/BDR. Therefore we have to set the two Gi0/0 interfaces to a point-to-point or point-to-multipoint network to ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur.
Question 5:
Which of the following are the three components of the three-tier hierarchical networking model used in the classical Cisco networks design? (Choose three.)
A. Distribution
B. Core
C. Access
D. Leaf
E. Spine
Correct Answer: ABC
Question 6:
In Cisco DNA Center, what is the integration API?
A. southbound consumer-facing RESTful API. which enables network discovery and configuration management
B. westbound interface, which allows the exchange of data to be used by ITSM. IPAM and reporting
C. an interface between the controller and the network devices, which enables network discovery and configuration management
D. northbound consumer-facing RESTful API, which enables network discovery and configuration management
In a Cisco SD-Access fabric architecture, which of the following are valid device roles (Choose three.)
A. Control Plane Node
B. Access routing device
C. Edge Node
D. Border Node
E. Distributed Node
Correct Answer: ACD
Question 8:
When is an external antenna used inside a building?
A. only when using Mobility Express
B. when it provides the required coverage
C. only when using 2 4 GHz
D. only when using 5 GHz
Correct Answer: B
Question 9:
You have configured router R1 with multiple VRFs \’s in order to support multiple customer VPN networks. If you wanted to see the best path for the 10.2.1.0.24 route in VRF Green, what command would you use?
A. show ip route vrf Green 10.2.1.0
B. show ip route 10.2.1.0 vrf Green
C. show route all 10.2.1.0
D. show ip route 10.2.1.0 Green
Correct Answer: A
#show ip route vrf mgmt 10.100.10.1 % IP routing table vrf mgmt does not exist
Question 10:
A firewall address of 192 166.1.101 can be pinged from a router but, when running a traceroute to It, this output is received.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The firewall blocks ICMP traceroute traffic.
B. The firewall rule that allows ICMP traffic does not function correctly
C. The firewall blocks ICMP traffic.
D. The firewall blocks UDP traffic
Correct Answer: D
Question 11:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to create an EEM script that adds an entry to a locally stored text file with a timestamp when a configuration change is made. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 12:
A customer deploys a new wireless network to perform location-based services using Cisco DNA Spaces The customer has a single WLC located on-premises in a secure data center. The security team does not want to expose the WLC to the public Internet.
Which solution allows the customer to securely send RSSI updates to Cisco DNA Spaces?
A. Implement Cisco Mobility Services Engine
B. Replace the WLC with a cloud-based controller.
C. Perform tethering with Cisco DNA Center.
D. Deploy a Cisco DNA Spaces connector as a VM.
Correct Answer: D
Question 13:
A customer wants to use a single SSID to authenticate loT devices using different passwords. Which Layer 2 security type must be configured in conjunction with Cisco ISE to achieve this requirement?
A. Fast Transition
B. Central Web Authentication
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management
D. Identity PSK
Correct Answer: D
With the advent of the Internet of things, the number of devices that connect to the Internet is increased multifold. Not all of these devices support 802.1x supplicant and need an alternate mechanism to connect to the internet.
One of the security mechanisms, WPA-PSK could be considered as an alternative. With the current configuration, the pre-shared key is the same for all clients that connect to the same WLAN.
In certain deployments such as Educational Institutions, this results in the key being shared with unauthorized users resulting in security breaches. Therefore, above mentioned and other requirements lead to the need for provisioning unique pre-shared keys for different clients on a large scale.
Identity PSKs are unique pre-shared keys created for individuals or groups of users on the same SSID.
No complex configuration is required for clients. The same simplicity of PSK makes it ideal for IoT, BYOD, and guest deployments.
Supported on most devices, where 802.1X may not, enabling stronger security for IoT.
Easily revoke access, for a single device or individual, without affecting everyone else.
Thousands of keys can easily be managed and distributed via the AAA server.
Question 14:
How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?
A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate.
B. It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate.
C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery.
D. It drops packets randomly from lower-priority queues.
Correct Answer: B
Traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time. The result of traffic shaping is a smoothed packet output rate.
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Don’t cram your studies.
While our long-term memory seems limitless, our brain’s short-term memory capacity is much smaller. This explains why “rote memorization” of information the night before the exam doesn’t work as well.
Studying for one to two hours at a time is easier to remember exam content and topics than overwork. It’s more important to understand.
Learn to associate memories
Make up some relevant/interesting/practical analogies in your head. Like, don’t understand a concept? Break it down, simplify each word, and try to relate it to an actual example or something interesting in your head.
Which configuration command can you apply to an HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. no additional config is required
B. standby 1 track ethernet
C. standby 1 preempt
D. standby 1 priority 250
Correct Answer: A
Simply because that will be the default behavior routers would follow in the event all other routers in the HSRP group fail, then it would not keep attributes such as priority or preemption. What preemption does in summary is to make sure that the configured Priority on all routers within the same HSRP group is always respected.
That is, if R1 is configured on the HSRP group with a priority of 150 but he stands as active since all other routers currently subscribed to that group have a priority of 150, then will router will preempt the current active router and will take over hence becoming the new active router.
With preemption disabled, the new router does not preempt the current active router, unless routers in the group have to renegotiate their roles based on each router\’s priority at the time of negotiation.
Q2:
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
A. active
B. on
C. auto
D. desirable
Correct Answer: B
The Static Persistence (or “on” mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol is used. In this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received.
Q3:
A network engineer is implementing a corporate SSID for WPA3-Personal security with a PSK. Which encryption cipher must be configured?
A. CCMP128
B. GCMP256
C. CCMP256
D. GCMP128
Correct Answer: A
Q4:
Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
A. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications
B. reports device errors to a controller
C. generates statistics for network hardware and traffic
D. communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware
Correct Answer: A
Q5:
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
A. NAT
B. 6 to 4 tunneling
C. L2TPv3
D. dual-stack
Correct Answer: B
Q6:
What is the benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?
A. to enable secure connectivity over the Internet
B. to shield internal network devices from external access
C. to provide reliable connectivity between like devices
D. to be routable over an external network
Correct Answer: B
Q7:
When the active router in a VRRP group fails, which router assumes the role and forwards packets?
A. forwarding
B. standby
C. backup
D. listening
Correct Answer: C
Q8:
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?
A. The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing
B. The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol
C. The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance
D. The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.
Correct Answer: B
Q9:
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
Refer to the exhibit. Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
A. heavy traffic congestion
B. a duplex incompatibility
C. a speed conflict
D. queuing drops
Correct Answer: C
Q11:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q12:
A network architect is considering whether to implement Cisco DNA Center to deploy devices on a new network. The organization is focused on reducing the time it currently takes to deploy devices in a traditional campus design. For which reason would Cisco DNA Center be more appropriate than traditional management options?
A. Cisco DNA Center supports deployment with a single pane of glass.
B. Cisco DNA Center provides zero-touch provisioning to third-party devices.
C. Cisco DNA Center reduces the need for analytics on third-party access points and devices.
D. Cisco DNA Center minimizes the level of syslog output when reporting on Cisco devices.
Correct Answer: A
Q13:
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
A. IP SLA
B. Syslog
C. NetFlow
D. SNMPv3
Correct Answer: D
Q14:
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
A. SYIM flood
B. reflection
C. teardrop
D. amplification
Correct Answer: A
Q15:
Refer to the exhibit.
After the election process, what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
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QUESTION 1 Which statement describe how Cisco Meraki devices behave should they be unable to contact the Meraki Cloud server? A. The devices may be re-initiated into a backup mode if an administrator manually intervenes using a direct, local connection. B. The network devices continue to function normally (traffic flows at full line rate) but management and configuration functions are interrupted. C. The network stops passing traffic across devices and their interfaces including any connected non-Cisco Meraki devices. D. The network devices will attempt to establish a connection to a locally hosted database server that has been configured for high availability. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which three products are in the Cisco Calling portfolio? (Choose three.) A. Unified Communications Manager B. Webex Calling C. Business Edition D. Skype for Business E. Mobility Express F. IP Office Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3 Which are two advantages of Umbrella branch package? (Choose two.) A. No client side configuration required B. Umbrella connector easy to install in Cisco ISR 4K routers C. All policy management and reporting at ISR D. Prevent already-infected devices from connecting to command and control E. Prevent guest or corporate users from connecting to malicious domains and IP addresses Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4 How does Catalyst Access Switching provide two improved workforce experiences? (Choose two.) A. Flexible workspace B. Manual configuration of end devices C. Core data center deployments D. Internet of things, such as flexible workspace (open office, branch office, conference and classrooms) E. Controller-based management Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 5 Which is a key solution for a Cisco small to medium-sized business router to enable the transport industry? A. Network based backup solution for mission critical application B. Integrated secure Wi-Fi to support guest devices C. Small form factor makes it easy to install and service D. Provide first line of defense against threats Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Which two statements regarding Wi-Fi simplicity of Mobility Express are true? (Choose two.) A. Additional dedicated controller appliance required to manage up to 25 access points B. Provides enterprise features for larger deployments C. Tunnels Guest traffic to a central site D. Activities enterprise best practice settings by default E. Can deploy a “set and forget” Wi-Fi network for SMB in minutes Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7 Which is the range of users is supported by the Business Edition 4000 (BE4000)? A. 100-120 B. 10-120 C. 1000-1200 D. 10-200 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which two characteristics differentiate the Meraki Dashboard from competing network management interfaces? (Choose two.) A. Centralized single pane of glass for access and management B. Instantaneous access to virtualized applications C. Built-in live chat for on-demand troubleshooting support D. Intuitive cloud-based user interface E. Comprehensive aggregator of multi-vendor networks Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 Which two features of the Cisco catalyst 1100 ISR router deliver a high performance and high-quality experience? (Choose two.) A. Mobility express to simplify wireless deployment and operation B. Application hosting C. 802.11ac Wi-Fi support D. WAN and application optimization with WAAS E. Unified communications with series build apps for Cisco TDM Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10 Which statement is true regarding Next Generation Firewall? A. Providing the fastest threat detection in the industry B. Blocking malicious destinations before a connection is ever established C. Facilitating critical protection from constant, dynamic, and rapidly evolving web threats D. Integrating deep visibility, preeminent intelligence and superior protection Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which two Cisco security solutions provide customers with reliable visibility and control to facility management of their entire environment? (Choose two.) A. Cisco offers controls for Data Loss Prevention (DLP) with more than 100 predefined policies covering government, private sector regulations, and custom specific regulations B. Cisco allows customers to pick the solutions that are right for their business to address threats specific to their environment C. Cisco provides enhanced threat awareness by compiling billions of worldwide daily transactions through cloud-based threat intelligence D. Cisco Talos is the industry leading threat intelligence organization E. Cisco security Manager and Firepower Management Center provide centralized management options for NGFW, NGIPS and VPN Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 Which two statements describe how Cisco can achieve Threat Centric Defense? (Choose two.) A. Cisco applications constantly scan the environment and analyze outputs to gain a more comprehensive view of potential threats B. Limit secure access to growing set of Cloud applications C. Cisco delivers a common platform across network, infrastructure, appliances and the cloud D. Cisco network analytics provides visibility and real-time awareness across the entire network by leveraging anomaly detection and network telemetry E. Cisco offers the industry\\’s broadest set of enforcement and remediation options for usage control to accelerate deployment and unify management Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13 Which two are Cisco recommended controller options for deployment of up to 150 AP\\’s? (Choose two.) A. Cisco 8540 WLC B. Cisco 3504 WLC C. Cisco 5508 WLC D. Cisco 5520 WLC E. Cisco mobility Express Correct Answer: BE
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QUESTION 1 What command is used to manually generate a core dump to aid in troubleshooting a process? A. context B. dumpcore C. exception D. follow Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which is required on the CE router in an L3VPN solution? A. Configure the PE-CE Routing protocol B. Define the VPN by creating a VRF C. Assign the PE facing interface to a VRF D. Configure MPLS forwarding on the interface to the PE router Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which underlying protocol(s) does LDP utilize to communicate with LDP Peers? A. UDP and TCP B. UDP only C. LDP uses IP Protocol 646 and does not rely on UDP or TCP D. TCP only Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which command is an example of how to configure system logging to a Syslog server? A. logging 172.21.116.27 B. syslog server1 C. logging syslog-server 172.21.116.27 D. enable syslog server1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which command removes a user from configuration mode but keeps the user connected to the router? A. clear line B. clear session C. clear commit D. clear config session Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 How many times are Layer 3 lookups performed on a packet transiting a CRS or ASR9k router? A. Three times: in the ingress linecard, the fabric, and the egress linecard B. Once: in the active RP/RSP C. Once: in the ingress linecard D. Twice: in the ingress linecard and again in the egress linecard Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which protocol is a PE to CE routing protocol? A. ODR B. LDP C. RIPv1 D. eBGP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which command is used to configure an interface that does not currently exist in the system? A. interface preconfigure B. preconfigure interface C. interface vrf preconfig D. controller preconfigure Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 What information is unchanged after a process restart? A. Job ID B. Last Started C. Respawn Count D. Process ID Correct Answer: A Note that ospf process is given a Job ID (JID), which is 250. This never changes on a running router and generally on a particular version of Cisco IOS XR. Within the ospf process there are five threads each with their own Thread ID (TID). Listed is the stack space for each thread, the priority of each thread and its state.
QUESTION 11 Which command is required to permit the retention of BGP Prefixes on a router with VRFs not importing the associated Route Target? A. route-policy PASS-ALL in B. retain route-target all C. import route-target policy all D. import route-target all Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which VRFs must be configured on the ASBRs between the two AS\\’es in an Option B Layer-3 VPN solution? A. The VRFs shared between the two AS\\’es plus one VRF representing each AS. B. The VRFs shared between the two AS\\’es. C. The VRFs shared between the two AS\\’es plus one shared VRF. D. The VRFs do not need to be configured on the ASBRs. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 What is currently required for eBGP sessions in IOS-XR that was not required in IOS? A. Default MED values B. Local-Preference values C. Send Communities D. Route-Filter In and Out Correct Answer: D
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