Category: CCNP
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QUESTION 60
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 62
A. acceess
B. non negotiate
C. trunk
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto
F. none of the other alternatives apply
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 64
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 66
A. auto
B. negotiate
C. designate
D. non negotiate
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 67
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 68
A. DTP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. ISL
E. none of the other alternatives apply
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 69
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 70
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 71
A. MST00
B. MST01
C. the last MST instance configured
D. none
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
A. 802.11b
B. spanning-tree
C. 802.1q
D. ISL
E. VTP
F. Q.921
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 73
A. region name
B. configuration revision number
C. VLAN INSTANCE MAP
D. ist stp bpdu HELLO TIMER
E. CST instance map
F. PVST+ instance map
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
A.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 75
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 76
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 78
A. VTP mode
B. STP ROOT STATUS
C. Negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 79
D.
E.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
A. the host will be allowed to connect
B. the port will shut down
C. the host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected
D. the host will be refused access
E. none of th other alternatvies apply
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 81
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
A. snooping attack
B. rougue device attack
C. STP attack
D. VLAN attack
E. spoofing attack
F. MAC flooding attack
Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 84
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 85
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 86
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 87
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 88
A. ports 0/1 and 0/2
B. the trunk port 0/22 and ethernchannel ports
C. ports 0/1 0/2 and 0/3
D. ports 0/1 0/2 and 0/3, the trunk port 0/22 and ethernchannel ports
E. port 0/1
F. ports 0/1 0/2 and 0/3, the trunk port 0/22
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 89
A. EAP over LAN
B. EAP MD5
C. STP
D. portocols not filtered by an ACL
E. CDP
F. TACACS+
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 91
Correct Answer: F Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 92
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 93
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. portocols not filtered by an ACL
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 94
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
E.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 96
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 97
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
A. trunk
B. isolated
C. primary
D. community
E. promiscous
F. non of the alternatives apply
Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 102
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 103
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 104
A.
B.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 105
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
C.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 107
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 108
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 109
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 111
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 112
A. hubs
B. switch
C. router
D. bridge
E. none of the other alternatvies apply
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114 Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 115
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 116
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 117
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 119
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121 Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 122
A. ip routing
B. switchport mode trunk
C. no switchport
D. switchport turnk native vlan 1
E. none of the other alternatives apply
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 123
A. configure VACLs
C.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 124
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 125
B.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129 Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 131
A.
C.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 132
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)Explanation
QUESTION 134
Select and Place: Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 136
A. accounting
B. analog and digital voice
C. mobility
D. security
E. routing and switching
F. VLAN and QoS
Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 73
With Cisco Express Forwarding, prefixes that require exception processing can be cached with one of
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which four special adjacencies. (Choose four.)
A. forward
B. null
C. glean
D. kick
E. discard
F. drop
Correct Answer: BCEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74
Refer to the exhibit. Why are users from VLAN 100 unable to ping users on VLAN 200?
A. Encapsulation on the switch is wrong.
B. Trunking needs to be enabled on Fa0/1.
C. The native VLAN is wrong.
D. VLAN 1 needs the no shutdown command.
E. IP routing needs to be enabled on the switch.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit. What problem is preventing users on VLAN 100 from pinging addresses on VLAN
200?
A. No default route on DLS1.
B. Encapsulation mismatch between switches.
C. Native VLAN mismatch.
D. Subinterfaces should be created on Fa0/7 and Fa0/8 on DLS1.
E. Trunking needs to be enabled.
F. The ip routing command is missing on DLS1.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
An attacking device has gained unauthorized access to data on a different VLAN through the use of
double tagging. What is the name of this network attack?
A. switch spoofing TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
B. IP spoofing
C. VLAN hopping
D. VLAN jumping
E. DHCP spoofing
F. MAC flooding
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. bursty
B. greedy
C. drop sensitive
D. delay sensitive
E. UDP priority
F. TCP retransmits
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. TCP retransmits
B. benign
C. greedy
D. drop sensitive
E. smooth
F. delay insensitive
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which two statements are true about voice VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. Voice VLANs allow IP phones to be moved around without worrying about subnets.
B. Voice VLANs allow voice and data packets to be logically combined.
C. Implementing voice VLANs causes network administrators to change their existing IP topology.
D. Using voice VLANs makes it easier for network administrators to identify and troubleshoot network TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside problems.
E. Voice VLANs are available on all Cisco switches.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Which two statements are true about trust boundaries? (Choose two.)
A. Classifying and marking traffic should be done as close to the traffic source as possible.
B. Classifying and marking traffic should be done at the distribution layer.
C. Traffic is classified and marked as it travels through the network.
D. If untrusted traffic enters a switch, it can be marked with a new QoS value appropriate for the policy in place.
E. The trust boundary moves depending on the type of traffic entering the network.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
In the event that two devices need access to a common server, but they cannot communicate with each
other, which security feature should be configured to mitigate attacks between these devices?
A. port security
B. dynamic ARP inspection
C. DHCP snooping
D. private VLANs
E. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
A hacker is interested in seeing traffic from all switch ports on the switch that he is connected to,
including the ports belonging to other VLANs. What type of attack is he likely to implement?
A. MAC address flooding
B. ARP attack
C. spoofing attack
D. DHCP attack
E. VLAN hopping
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 83
Which statement best summarizes how DHCP snooping works?
A. DHCP snooping validates the header information of all DHCP replies and only allows the reply through if it has a matching request in the DSRT.
B. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port sent a DHCP request in the last 5 seconds.
C. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port specifically sent a DHCP request.
D. DHCP snooping determines which switch ports are trusted and can source all DHCP messages.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which three statements are true about DAI? (Choose three.)
A. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the DHCP Snooping database.
B. DAI forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface without any checks.
C. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the CAM table.
D. DAI forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface after verifying and inspecting the packet against the DAI table.
E. DAI intercepts all ARP packets on untrusted ports.
F. DAI is used to prevent against a DHCP Snooping attack.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What does the auto qos voip cisco-phone command do?
A. If a Cisco IP phone is attached, the switch trusts the CoS.
B. The switch assigns a CoS value of 5 to incoming packets.
C. It turns on STP to see if a Cisco IP phone is attached.
D. If a Cisco IP phone is attached and removed, the switch continues to trust the CoS values as long as the switch is not rebooted.
E. It disables the trust boundary feature because the switch knows a Cisco IP phone is attached. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 86
A network administrator would like to configure 802.1x port-based authentication, however, the client workstation is not 802.1x compliant. What is the only supported authentication server that can be used?
A. TACACS with LEAP extensions
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with EAP extensions
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
A switch has been configured with PVLANs. With what type of PVLAN port should the default gateway be configured?
A. Isolated
B. Promiscuous
C. Community
D. Primary
E. Trunk
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Workstations on a segment with HSRP running should have their IP default gateway configured for which device?
A. standby router
B. virtual router
C. router physically connected to the network segment
D. router closest to the network segment
E. backup router
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. The lightweight wireless architecture splits the processing of the 802.11 data and management protocols and the access point functionality between the access point and the WLAN
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controller using split MAC approach. Which three functionalities are handled by the WLAN controller?
(Choose three.)
A. the transmission of beacon frames
B. the portions of the protocol that have real-time requirements
C. the response to Probe Request frames from clients
D. 802.11 authentication
E. 802.11 association and re-association (mobility)
F. 802.11 frame translation and bridging
Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
What is the function of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) in the wireless LAN?
A. The SSID should be configured on the client site only and provides data-privacy functions and authentication to the access point.
B. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point. The SSID is advertised in plain-text in the access point beacon messages.
C. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides encryption keys for authentication to the access point.
D. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides MAC Address Authentication to authenticate the client to the access point.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. Three different wireless groups of users are allowed to gain access to the wireless
LAN. What type of security policy should be enforced for the users in the Guest group?
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A. static WEP and MAC authentication
B. LEAP authentication
C. primary SSID with open or no WEP authentication
D. open authentication with WEP plus MAC authentication
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the repeater access point that is deployed in this wireless network?
A. The repeater access point should use a different SSID than the SSID configured on the parent access point.
B. The repeater access point should use a different WEP encryption method than the WEP encryption that is enabled on the parent access point.
C. The repeater access point reduces the throughput in half because it receives and then re-transmits each packet on the same channel.
D. The repeater access point requires a 10 percent channel overlap with channel of the root access point.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 93
What are two differences between the Autonomous WLAN solution and the Lightweight WLAN solution?
(Choose two.)
A. TACACS+ can only be used for authentication with the Cisco Lightweight WLAN solution.
B. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Autonomous WLAN Solution.
C. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Lightweight WLAN Solution.
D. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Lightweight WLAN solution.
E. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Autonomous WLAN solution.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which statement is true about the data traffic between the access point and controller?
A. The data traffic is switched at the access point before being sent to the WLAN controller where VLAN tagging and QoS are applied.
B. The data traffic is encrypted with AES.
C. The data traffic between the access point and controller is encrypted.
D. The data traffic is encapsulated with LWAPP.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
How are VRRP messages exchanged between routers sharing a common LAN segment?
A. VRRP relies on TCP to open a connection and to maintain that connection using TCP keepalives.
B. Unicast IP addresses with UDP port ID 112.
C. Destination IP address 224.0.0.18 with IP Protocol ID 112.
D. VRRP messages are directly encapsulated into the Ethernet data field using type code 0x112.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the minimal VRRP configuration, which VRRP command issued on RTA
will ensure that RTA is the master virtual router?
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A. vrrp 100 priority 0
B. vrrp 100 priority 1
C. vrrp 100 priority 100
D. vrrp 100 priority 254
E. vrrp 100 preempt
F. no vrrp 100 preempt
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Refer to the exhibit. What does the output of the debug command indicate on VRRP router RTA?
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A. VRRP is not active on RTA.
B. RTB does not have VRRP active.
C. RTA does not have VRRP preempt active.
D. RTB has a different IP address coded for VRRP group 1 than RTA.
E. RTB has the same IP address coded on its Ethernet interface as RTA.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which method enables GLBP to forward traffic from a LAN segment via multiple routers
simultaneously?
A. Clients need to have different default gateway IP addresses coded.
B. Separate GLBP groups are coded on the routers.
C. The AVG assigns different virtual MAC addresses.
D. Multiple AVG designated routers respond to ARP requests.
E. Proxy ARP allows multiple routers to respond to ARP requests from clients.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 99
How are GLBP messages exchanged between routers that share a common LAN segment?
A. GLBP messages are multicast to UDP port ID 3222.
B. GLBP messages are directly encapsulated into the Ethernet data field using type code 3222.
C. GLBP relies on TCP to open a connection and to maintain that connection using TCP keepalives.
D. Routers inform clients with GLBP messages and use ARP messages to exchange information about first-hop redundancy.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Which method used by GLBP allows the AVG to prefer one GLBP router as the AVF over other GLBP routers until its tracked interface goes down, when another router might be more preferred?
A. no glbp group load-balancing
B. glbp group load-balancing host-dependent
C. glbp group load-balancing round-robin
D. glbp group load-balancing weighted
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
Refer to the exhibit. If VLAN 21 does not exist before typing the commands, what is the result of the configuration applied on switch SW1?
A. A new VLAN 21 is created and port 0/8 is assigned to that VLAN.
B. A new VLAN 21 is created, but no ports are assigned to that VLAN.
C. No VLAN 21 is created and no ports are assigned to that VLAN.
D. Configuration command vlan database should be used first to create the VLAN 21.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 102
Refer to the exhibit. The link between switch SW1 and switch SW2 is configured as a trunk, but the trunk failed to establish connectivity between the switches. Based on the configurations and the error TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam
http://www.TestInside.com Testinside messages received on the console of SW1, what is the cause of the problem?
A. The two ends of the trunk have different duplex settings.
B. The two ends of the trunk have different EtherChannel configuration.
C. The two ends of the trunk have different native VLAN configuration.
D. The two ends of the trunk allow different VLANs on the trunk.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management
domain?
A. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
B. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
C. enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 104
Which process plays a major role in the creation of the CEF adjacency table?
A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
B. PDU header rewrite
C. NetFlow switching
D. hello packet exchange
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access
resources through Router 1. From the information contained in the graphic, what is the cause of this
problem?
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A. VLAN 107 does not exist on switch A.
B. VTP is pruning VLAN 107
C. VLAN 107 is not configured on the trunk
D. spanning tree is not enabled on VLAN 107
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)
A. forwarding information base
B. adjacency tables
C. neighbor tables TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com
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D. caching tables
E. route tables
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Which Cisco IOS command assigns a Catalyst switch port to VLAN 10?
A. switchport mode vlan 10
B. switchport trunk native 10
C. switchport access vlan 10
D. switchport mode access vlan 10
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which three statements are true regarding the above diagram? (Choose three.)
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A. A trunk link will be formed.
B. Only VLANs 1-1001 will travel across the trunk link.
C. The native VLAN for Switch B is vlan 1.
D. DTP is not running on Switch A.
E. DTP packets are sent from Switch B.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 40
Using the default modular policy framework global configuration on the Cisco ASA, how does the Cisco ASA process outbound HTTP traffic?
A. HTTP flows are not permitted through the Cisco ASA, because HTTP is not inspected bydefault.
B. HTTP flows match theinspection_default traffic class and are inspected using HTTP inspection.
C. HTTP outbound traffic is permitted, but all return HTTP traffic is denied.
D. HTTP flows arestatefully inspected using TCP stateful inspection.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Which feature is not supported on the Cisco ASA 5505 with the Security Plus license? O A. security contexts
A. stateless active/standby failover
B. transparent firewall
C. threat detection
D. traffic shaping
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
What is the first configuration step when using Cisco ASDM to configure a new Layer 3/4 inspection policy on the Cisco ASA?
A. Create a new class map.
B. Create a new policy map and apply actions to the traffic classes.
C. Create a new service policy rule.
D. Create the ACLs to be referenced by any of the new class maps.
E. Disable the default global inspection policy.
F. Create a new firewall access rule.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
QUESTION 43
Which statement about the Cisco ASA 5505 configuration is true?
A. The IP address is configured under the physical interface (ethemet 0/0 to ethemet 0/7).
B. With the default factory configuration, the management interface (management 0/0) is configured with the 192.168.1.1/24 IP address
C. With the default factory configuration, Cisco ASDM access is not enabled.
D. Theswitchport access vlan command can be used to assign the VLAN to each physical interface (ethemet 0/0 to ethemet 0/7).
E. With the default factory configuration, both the inside and outside interface will use DHCP to acquire its IP address.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit. What does the * next to the CTX security context indicate?
A. The CTX context is the active context on the Cisco ASA.
B. The CTX context is the standby context on the Cisco ASA.
C. The CTX context contains the system configurations.
D. The CTX context has the admin role.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Which three Cisco ASA configuration commands are used to enable the Cisco ASA to log only the debug output to syslog? (Choose three.)
A. loggingHsttest message 711001
B. logging debug-trace
C. logging trap debugging
D. logging message 711001 level 7 E. logging trap test
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations are required on the Cisco ASAs so that the return traffic from the 10.10.10.100 outside server back to the 10.20.10.100 inside client can be rerouted from the Active CtxB context in ASA Two to the Active Ctx A context in ASA One? (Choose two.)
A. stateful active/active failover
B. dynamic routing (EIGRP or OSPF or RIP)
C. ASR-group
D. no NAT-control
E. policy-based routing
F. TCP/UDP connections replication
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Where in the ACS are the individual downloadable ACL statements configured to achieve the most scalable deployment?
A. Group Setup
B. User Setup
C. Shared Profile Components
D. Network Access Profiles
E. Network Configuration Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
F. Interface Configuration
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Which two methods can be used to access the Cisco AIP-SSM CLI? (Choose two.)
A. initiating an SSH connection to the Cisco AIP-SSM external management Ethernet port
B. connecting to the console port on the Cisco AIP-SSM
C. using the setup command on the Cisco ASA CLI
D. using thesession 1 command on the Cisco ASA CLI
E. using the hw-module command on the Cisco ASA CLI
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Refer to the exhibit. Which three CLI configuration commands result from this configuration? (Choose three.)
A. global (outside) 1 192.168.11
B. nat (inside) 110.16.1.1
C. static(inside.outside) 192.168.1.1 10.16.1.1 netmask 255.255.255.255 tcp 0 0 udp 0
D. static(inside,outside) tcp 192.168.1.1 80 10.16.1.1 80
E. access-listoutside_access_in line 1 extended permit tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq http
F. access-listoutside_access_in line 1 extended permit tcp any host 10.16.1.1 eq http
Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
Which three configuration options are available when configuring static routes on the Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. Change the default metric (admin distance) from 1 to some other value.
B. Enable route tracking.
C. Specify the static route as the default tunnel gateway for VPN traffic.
D. Specify that the static route will not be removed, even if the interface shuts down.
E. Specify a tag value to the static route that can be used as a “match” value for controlling redistribution via route maps
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
On the Cisco ASA, what is the default access rule if no user-defined access lists are defined on the interfaces?
A. All inbound connections from the lower-security interfaces to the higher-security interfaces are permitted.
B. All outbound connections from the higher-security interfaces to the lower-security interfaces are permitted
C. All IP traffic between interfaces with the same security levelare permitted.
D. All IP traffic in and out of the same interface is permitted.
E. All IP traffic is denied.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
QUESTION 52
When the Cisco ASA detects scanning attacks, how long is the attacker who is performing the scan shunned?
A. 120 seconds
B. 600 seconds
C. 1200 seconds
D. 3600 seconds
E. 6000 seconds
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
The ASA administrator wants to configure Botnet Traffic Filter using the dynamic database but it is not working properly after the initiate configuration has been entered. What other configuration is missing?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
A. Enabling DNS Snooping
B. Enabling Botnet Traffic Filtering on at least one of the ASA interface
C. Enabling the ASA to periodically download the dynamic database from Cisco
D. Enabling DNS inspection globally
E. Configuring the manual white and black lists
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which two statements about the Cisco ASA configuration is true? (Choose two.)
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
A. NAT Control is enabled
B. The Cisco ASAis setup as the DHCP server for hosts on the inside and outside interfaces
C. All IP traffic is permitted from the inside host to the outside
D. All hosts on the inside and on the outside can access Cisco ASDM
E. Access to the CLI in privileged mode will be authenticated using the LOCAL database on the Cisco ASA
F. The ASAis using a persistent self-signed certificated so users can authenticate the Cisco ASA when accessing it via Cisco ASDM
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
On the Cisco ASA, tcp-map can be applied to a traffic class using which MPF CLI configuration command?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
A. inspect
B. sysopt connection
C. tcp-options
D. parameters
E. set connection advanced-options
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
On the Cisco ASA, where are the Layer 5-7 policy maps applied?
A. inside the Layer 3-4 policy map
B. inside the Layer 3-4 class map
C. inside the Layer 5-7 class map
D. inside the Layer 3-4 service policy
E. inside the Layer 5-7 service policy
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit. Which two options will result from the Cisco ASA configuration? (Choose two.)
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
A. The outside hosts can use the 192.168.100.1 IP address to reach the web server on the inside network.
B. The global IP address of the web server is 209.165.200.230.
C. The inside web client will use the 209.165.200.230 IP address to reach the web server and the Cisco ASA will translate the 209.165.200.230 IP address to the 192.168.100.1 IP address.
D. The Cisco ASA will translate the DNS A-Record reply from the DNS server to any inside client for the web server (web server IP = 192.168.100.1).
E. The web server will be reachable only from the inside.
F. The web server will be reachable only from the outside.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
The Cisco ASA is configured in multiple mode and the security contexts share the same outside physical interface. Which two packet classification methods can be used by the Cisco ASA to determine which security context to forward the incoming traffic from the outside interface? (Choose two.)
A. unique interface IP address
B. unique interface MAC address
C. routing table lookup
D. MAC address table lookup
E. unique global mapped IP addresses
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
With Cisco ASA active/active or active/standby stateful failover, which state information or
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
table is not passed between the active and standby Cisco ASA by default?
A. NAT translation table
B. TCP connection states
C. UDP connection states
D. ARP table
E. HTTP connection table
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit. What requirement is mandatory when configuring a Cisco ASA to operate in transparent firewall mode?
A. IP routing must be disabled on the Cisco ASA using the noip routing global configuration command.
B. The Cisco ASA must be configured to use the same MAC address on its outside and inside interfaces.
C. ARP inspection must be enabled on both the inside and outside interfaces using thearpinspection interface-name enable flood command.
D. Both the inside and outside interfaces must be configured with the same security level.
E. An inboundEtherType ACL is required on the inside and outside interfaces to permit ARP traffic.
F. The management IP address of the Cisco ASA configured with theip address global configuration command must belong in the 10.0.1.0/24 subnet.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The connection isawaiting outside ACK to SYN.
B. The connection is initiated from the inside.
C. The connection is active and has received inbound and outbound data.
D. The connection is an incomplete TCP connection.
E. The connection is a DNS connection.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which five options are valid logging destinations for the Cisco ASA? (Choose five.)
A. AAA server
B. Cisco ASDM
C. buffer
D. SNMP traps
E. LDAP server
F. email
G. TCP-based securesyslog server
Correct Answer: BCDFG Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
When troubleshooting redundant interface operations on the Cisco ASA, which configuration should be verified?
A. Thenameif configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
B. The MAC address configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
C. The active interface is sending periodic hellos to the standby interface.
D. The IP address configuration on the logical redundant interface is correct.
E. The duplex and speed configuration on the logical redundant interface are correct.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 64
What mechanism is used on the Cisco ASA to map IP addresses to domain names that are contained in the botnet traffic filter dynamic database or local blacklist?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
A. HTTP inspection
B. DNS inspection and snooping
C. WebACL
D. dynamicbotnet database fetches (updates)
E. staticblacklist
F. static white list
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which three statements about traffic shaping capability on the Cisco ASA are true? (Choose three.)
A. Traffic shaping can be applied to all outgoing traffic on a physical interface or in the case of the Cisco ASA 5505, on a VLAN
B. Traffic shaping can be applied in the input or output direction.
C. Traffic shaping can cause jitter and delay.
D. You can configure both traffic shaping and priorityqueueing on the same interface.
E. Traffic shaping is not supported on the Cisco ASA 5580.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the policy map named test is true?
A. Only HTTP inspection will be applied to the TCP port 21 traffic.
B. Only FTP inspection will be applied to the TCP port 21 traffic.
C. both HTTP and FTP inspections will be applied to the TCP port 21 traffic.
D. No inspection will be applied to the TCP port 21 traffic, because the http class map configuration
conflicts with the ftp class map
E. All FTP traffic will be denied, because the FTP traffic will fail the HTTP inspection.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
QUESTION 67
When troubleshooting a Cisco ASA (running 8.2.2) that is operating in transparent firewall mode, what should you verify to ensure proper operation?
A. The Cisco ASA has not been configured for inside static or dynamic NAT.
B. The Cisco ASA global IP address belongs to the same subnet as the directly connected interfaces.
C. The outside and inside interfaceare connected to different Layer 3 subnets.
D. The Cisco ASA is using a dedicated management interface for management access.
E. The Cisco ASA is configured for ARP inspection.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which Cisco ASA object group type offers the most flexibility for grouping different services together based on arbitrary protocols?
A. network
B. ICMP
C. protocol
D. TCP-UDP
E. service
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
DRAG DROP A. Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Which three parameters are set using the set connection command within a policy map on the Cisco ASA
8.2 release? (Choose three.)
A. per-client TCP and/or UDP idle timeout
B. per-client TCP and/or UDP maximum session time
C. TCP sequence number randomization
D. maximum number of simultaneous embryonic connections
E. maximum number of simultaneous TCP and/or UDP connections
F. fragments reassembly options
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?
A. If another path advertises the 6.6.6.0/24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more preferred.
B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor 10.10.23.3.
C. The route 10.10.23.3 is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors.
D. Route 6.6.6.0/24 is learned by an IBGP peer.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)
A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are limited scoped addresses that have been reserved for OSPF.
E. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses 224.0.1.1 and 238.1.1.1 could not be used together.
E. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
F. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.)
A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two multicast protocol statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
B. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
C. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
E. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which command enables OSPF for IPv6?
A. router ospf process-id PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. ipv6 ospf process-id
C. ipv6 router ospf process-id
D. router ospf ipv6 process-id
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the output. What IOS command produces this output?
A. show ip ospf
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ipv6 ospf interface
D. show ipv6 ospf
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a voice VLAN?
A. Physically the voice network and the data network are separate.
B. The voice traffic will normally be on a different IP subnet than will the data traffic.
C. End user intervention is necessary to place the phone into the proper VLAN.
D. The same security policy should be implemented for both voice and data traffic.
E. The data VLAN must be configured as the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos on the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect when the switchport priority extend cos 3 command is configured on the switch port interface connected to the IP phone?
A. Effectively, the trust boundary has been moved to the PC attached to the IP phone.
B. The computer is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The IP phone is enabled to override with a CoS value of 3 the existing CoS marking of the PC attached to the IP phone.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will extend the trust boundary to the distribution layer switch.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP. D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
D. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point.
E. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose three.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
E. PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured. F. The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
In what three ways is QoS applied in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. No traffic marking occurs at the core layer. Layer 2/3 QoS tags are trusted from distribution layer switches and used to prioritize and queue the traffic as it traverses the core.
B. IP precedence, DSCP, QoS group, IP address, and ingress interface are Layer 2 characteristics that are set by the access layer as it passes traffic to the distribution layer. The distribution layer, once it has made a switching decision to the core layer, strips these off.
C. MAC address, Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS), the ATM cell loss priority (CLP) bit, the Frame Relay discard eligible (DE) bit, and ingress interface are established by the voice submodule (distribution layer) as traffic passes to the core layer.
D. The distribution layer inspects a frame to see if it has exceeded a predefined rate of traffic within a certain time frame, which is typically a fixed number internal to the switch. If a frame is determined to be in excess of the predefined rate limit, the CoS value can be marked up in a way that results in the packet being dropped.
E. The access layer is the initial point at which traffic enters the network. Traffic is marked (or remarked) at Layers 2 and 3 by the access switch as it enters the network, or is “trusted” that it is entering the network with the appropriate tag.
F. Traffic inbound from the access layer to the distribution layer can be trusted or reset depending upon the ability of the access layer switches. Priority access into the core is provided based on Layer 3 QoS tags.
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What does the command clear ipv6 ospf process accomplish?
A. The OSPF adjacencies are cleared and initiated again.
B. The route table is cleared. Then the OSPF neighbors are reformed.
C. The shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed on the LSA database.
D. The OSPF database is repopulated. Then the shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?
A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7 accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been
assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is
able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the
exhibit, which statement is true?
A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?
A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?
A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of interface
FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command
sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?
A. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
B. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
C. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
E. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
An administrator types in the command router ospf 1 and receives the error message: “OSPF process
1 cannot start.” (Output is omitted.) What should be done to correctly set up OSPF?
A. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address.
B. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address and is up.
C. Ensure that IP classless is enabled.
D. Ensure that the interfaces can ping their directly connected neighbors.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands,
which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 7 LSAs into type 5 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
B. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 7 LSAs throughout the backbone.
C. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 5 LSAs throughout the backbone.
D. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 5 LSAs into type 7 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
E. RTA will not redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What are two Cisco IOS commands that can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two.)
A. show ip ospf database
B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show ip ospf protocols
D. show ip ospf interfaces
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is the default metric used on IS-IS routers for each interface?
A. The cost is set to 10 for all interfaces.
B. The cost is set to 10 for LAN interfaces and 20 for WAN interfaces.
C. The cost is based on the speed of the interface.
D. The cost is based on a composite of bandwidth and delay of the interface.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What does IS-IS use to establish and maintain neighbor relationships between IS’s?
A. IIH
B. LSP
C. CLNS
D. CLNP
E. ISH
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is periodically sent by a DIS on a LAN to ensure that all adjacent neighbors’ IS-IS link-state databases are synchronized?
A. complete SNP (CSNP)
B. partial SNP (PSNP)
C. database query
D. database description packet (DDP)
E. link-state summary
F. hello
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This volume is part of the Exam Certification Guide Series from Cisco 642-892.Cisco 642-892 in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help Cisco 642-892 Certification candidates identify weaknesses,concentrate their study efforts,and enhance their confidence as Cisco 642-892 exam day nears.