Category: CCNP
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QUESTION 181
Which differences are those between IGMP Snooping and CGMP? (Choose two)
A. IGMP snooping is Cisco proprietary
B. CGMP learns subscribing MAC addresses from the router
C. CGMP learns subscribing MAC addresses by passive listening
D. IGMP snooping requires layer 3 processing
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 182
Based on the partial configuration provided in the exhibit, what additional configuration is required to allow the router to properly participate in a PIM sparse-dense mode scenario?
A. IGMP needs to be enabled on the router.
B. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in sparse mode network areas.
C. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in dense mode network areas.
D. The PIM dense-mode state, refresh interval needs to be configured.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which command sequence is a requirement for configuring the IP address of the rendezvous point (RP) located at IP address 10.10.10.1?
A. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-address 10.10.10.1
B. Switch(config)# ip igmp join-group 10.10.10.1
C. Switch(config)# ip pim accept-rp 10.10.10.1 1
D. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-candidate gigabitethernet0/2
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 184
Examine the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and Recipient B are forwarding IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which option is correct?
A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 185
Study the exhibit below. IP multicast for group address 224.1.1.1 has been enabled on all routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However, hosts on Network B do not. Refer to outputs presented, what will cause this problem?
A. The multicast packets are sourced from a server with an unspecified IP address.
B. Router P4S2 does not have an RP configured on the multicast network.
C. Because of RPF failure, Router P4S2 does not forward multicast packets to Network B.
D. Router P4S2 does not regard the upstream router P4S1 as a PIM neighbor.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 186
According to the network of Layer 3 switches in the exhibit, the RPI Multicast Server only multicasts to hosts connected to multilayer switches 5 and 6. The CMU Multicast Server multicasts to hosts on multi-layer switches 1-6. Refer to the number of configuration steps involved, which way most efficiently configures the network when meeting the requirements for multicast data flow?
A. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode.
B. Configure each switch with PIM dense mode.
C. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Leave each multicast server as the root of its own multicast tree.
D. Configure each switch with PIM sparse-dense mode. Configure switch 3 as a rendezvous point for the RPI multicast stream.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 187
You are a network technician at P4S .Study the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host P4SB and Host P4SF are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which description is correct?
A. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
C. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 188
You work as a network engineer at P4S, and you are tasked to configure a large Frame Relay network. The desired topology is full mesh. Assume that n represents the
number of router
endpoints in the topology. What formula should be used to determine how many PVCs to configure?
A. n*n
B. 2*n
C. 3*n
D. n*(n-1)/2
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 189
Study the exhibit carefully. Which two conclusions can be derived from the debug ip igmp output? (Choose two.)
A. The IP multicast groups are 224.0.0.1, 224.0.1.40, and 239.255.0.1.
B. IP PIM RP mapping is static.
C. Router P4S-RA received an IGMP report version 1 from host 192.168.9.1.
D. The router sent an IGMP version 2 query out interface Ethernet1 at multicast address 224.0.0.1.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 190
From the show ip eigrp topology command output, which code is the indication of a convergence problem for the associated network?
A. Active
B. Update
C. Query
D. SIA
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 191
Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) has two modes: Sparse Mode and Dense Mode. Here, we focus on the Dense Mode. Which statement correctly describes Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast routing?
A. If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
B. PIM DM supports shared distribution trees.
C. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
D. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 192
Which three descriptions are correct regarding the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
D. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 193
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 229.138.10.7
B. 228.10.138.7
C. 228.10.10.8
D. 228.10.10.7
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 194
A P4S network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a
device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80.
Which Layer 2 multicast
address will be used by this device?
A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
D. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 195
The IP multicast global configuration command ip pim send-rp-announce loopback0 scope 31 group-list 5 issued on multicast router RTA. What are the two results? (Choose two)
A. RTA will originate RP announcements with TTL set to 31.
B. RTA will drop all RP announcements it receives if the TTL field is greater than 31.
C. RTA will forward RP announcements provided they are within the scope of 31.
D. RTA will originate RP announcements for multicast groups that match access-list 5.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 196
Which three statements correctly describe IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
B. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
C. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 197
Internet Protocol (IP) multicast is a bandwidth-conserving technology that reduces traffic by simultaneously delivering a single stream of information to thousands of corporate recipients and homes .Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 198
When a network client wants to join a multicast group, which type of IGMP message is transmitted?
A. host membership status
B. host membership report
C. host membership notification
D. host membership query
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 199
What is the MAC address that comes from the multicast address 239.255.0.1?
A. 01-01-ef-ff-00-01
B. 10-00-ef-ff-00-01
C. 01-00-5e-7f-00-01
D. 00-00-00-7f-00-01
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 200
Examine the following statements, then answer this question. When the passive-interface command is used on a router, which two routing protocols will continue to receive routing updates on an interface that is configured as passive? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 201
The P4Spany has implemented EIGRP in its network.
Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible successors? (Choose three.)
A. If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately without recalculating for a lost route.
B. A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a non-successor route to the feasible distance of the best route.
C. If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of best route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
D. The feasible successor can be found in the routing table.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 202
IP Multicast is a method of forwarding IP datagrams to a group of interested receivers. Examine the exhibit
carefully. IP multicast configuration changes have been made on several routers.
However, the IP multicast table shown in the exhibit still does not reflect the changes. What should be
done in order to display the new routing table information?
A. Issue the clear ip route * privileged EXEC command.
B. Issue the no ip mroute-cache privileged EXEC command.
C. Issue the clear ip mroute privileged EXEC command.
D. Issue the clear ip igmp group privileged EXEC command.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 203
Examine the exhibit carefully. Each router has Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled interfaces.
Based on the configuration presented on routers P4S1 and P4S2, which router
will take on the function of rendezvous point (RP) for the multicast network?
A. both routers P4S 1 and P4S 2
B. router P4S2
C. router P4S1
D. none of the routers since they are not configured with static RP
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 204
Look at the exhibit below. Which two facts are important in interpreting the output of the show ip pim interface command? (Choose two.)
A. Multiaccess, multicast segments do not elect a DR.
B. Point-to-Point links do not display DR information.
C. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on lowest IP address.
D. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on highest IP address.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 205
Which two statements best describe multicast protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
B. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
C. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
D. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 206
If you want to allow a switch to decide which ports to forward IP multicast messages , what methods may be effective? (Choose three)
A. IGMP
B. CGMP
C. IGMP snooping
D. static assignment
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 207
Look at the following exhibit. Choose two correct statements regarding the PIM sparse mode network! (Choose two)
A. The multicast source is connected to the serial 1/4 interface.
B. The multicast source is directly connected to this router.
C. The multicast receiver is directly connected to this router.
D. The RP for this network is this router.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 208
Study the exhibit carefully. According to the configuration in the exhibit ,which statement is correct ?
A. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
B. IGMP version 2 is being used.
C. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
D. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 209
P4S uses IGMP version 2 in their IP multicast network. How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 210
Study the exhibit below carefully. Switch P4S-Switch is receiving IGMP frames only on interface FastEthernet 0/3.Refer to the IGMP snooping, out of which port or ports will switch P4S-Switch forward multicast traffic?
A. all ports
B. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, 0/4
C. FastEthernet 0/3
D. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/4, 0/5, 0/6, 0/7, 0/8
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 211
Which two statements correctly describe the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network? (Choose two.)
A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse-dense mode (PIM-SDM).
B. To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join the RP.
C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM DM).
D. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM SM).
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 212
In order to display the two values used in the calculation of the EIGRP metric, which show command will be used?
A. show ip eigrp neighbor
B. show protocol
C. show interface
D. show ip eigrp interface
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 213
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This router P4S received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router P4S.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router P4S.
D. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 214
For the following options, which three IP multicast group concepts are correct? (Choose three.)
A. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
B. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
C. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 215
Which three IP multicast address related descriptions are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
C. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
D. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 127
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the
basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host
to host?
A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Which switch command enables a trunking protocol that appends a four byte CRC to the packet?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation itef
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’?
A. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
B. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
A. the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
B. the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
C. the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address
D. the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
E. protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
F. protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1.
VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is
being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are
operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the
network.
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam
http://www.TestInside.com Testinside What three configuration issues on TEST1 could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which method of Layer 3 switching uses a forwarding information base (FIB)?
A. route caching
B. flow-based switching
C. demand-based switching
D. topology-based switching
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that
user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or
access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. ICMP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. learn
C. listen
D. speak E. active
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of
a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Which protocol inserts a four byte tag into the Ethernet frame and recalculates CRC value?
A. VTP
B. 802.1Q
C. DTP
D. ISL
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
What is the cause of jitter?
A. variable queue delays TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
B. packet drops
C. transmitting too many small packets
D. compression
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 140
The original frame is encapsulated and an additional header is added before the frame is carried over
a trunk link. At the receiving end, the header is removed and the frame is forwarded to the assigned VLAN.
This describes which technology?
A. DISL
B. DTP
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. ISL
E. MPLS
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
On a multilayer Catalyst switch, which interface command is used to convert a Layer 3 interface to a
Layer 2 interface?
A. switchport
B. no switchport
C. switchport mode access
D. swithport access vlan vlan-id
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Which two statements concerning STP state changes are true? (Choose two.)
A. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
B. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to listening because it assumes itself as root.
C. Upon bootup, a port transitions from listening to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
D. If a forwarding port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
E. If a forwarding port receives an inferior BPDU, it will transition to listening.
F. If a blocked port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
How does 802.1q trunking keep track of multiple VLAN’s?
A. modifies the port index of a data frame to indicate the VLAN
B. adds a new header containing the VLAN ID to the data frame
C. encapsulates the data frame with a new header and frame check sequence
D. tags the data frame with VLAN information and recalculates the CRC value
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Given the above partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose two.)
A. VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down.
B. VLANs 1-5 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
C. VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
D. VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10.
E. VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Given the above diagram and assuming that STP is enabled on all switch devices, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
A. DSW11 will be elected the root bridge.
B. DSW12 will be elected the root bridge.
C. ASW13 will be elected the root bridge.
D. P3/1 will be elected the nondesignated port.
E. P2/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
F. P3/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?
A. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
C. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096 TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com
Testinside
E. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
F. ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?
A. standby 1 preempt
B. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1 TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Router A will assume the active state if its priority is the highest.
B. If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over.
C. When Ethernet 0/3 of RouterA comes back up, the priority will become 105.
D. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6.
E. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. SLB
E. RPR
F. RPR+
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
QUESTION 151
Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about
the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)
A. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
B. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
E. This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 200.
F. BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which two statements are true when the extended system ID feature is enabled? (Choose two.)
A. The BID is made up of the bridge priority value(two bytes) and bridge MAC address (six bytes).
B. The BID is made up of the bridge priority (four bits), the system ID (12 bits), and a bridge MAC address (48 bits).
C. The BID is made up of the system ID (six bytes) and bridge priority value (two bytes).
D. The system ID value is the VLAN ID (VID).
E. The system ID value is a unique MAC address allocated from a pool of MAC addresses assigned to the switch or module.
F. The system ID value is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
QUESTION 153
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?
A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
16.11.112.
A. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 155
16.11.111.
A. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
B. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about the EIGRP routing protocol are true? (Choose three)
A. EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including Hello, Database Description (DBD), Linkstate Request (LSR), Link-State Update (LSU), and LSAck.
B. EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.10.
C. EIGRP will not form a neighbor relationship with another peer when their AS number and K values, either or both are mismatched.
D. EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.9.
E. EIGRP will form a neighbor relationship with another peer even when their K values are mismatched.
F. EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including Hello, Update, Query, Reply, and ACK packets.
Correct Answer: BCF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.ietf.org/id/draft-savage-eigrp-00.txt (see eigrp packets) http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=27839
QUESTION 2
After DUAL calculations, a router has identified a successor route, but no routes have qualified as a feasible successor. In the event that the current successor goes down, what process will EIGRP use in the selection of a new successor?
A. EIGRP will find the interface with the lowest MAC address
B. The route will transition to the active state
C. The route will transition to the passive state
D. EIGRP will automatically use the route with the lowest feasible distance(FD)
E. EIGRP will automatically use the route with the lowest advertised distance(AD)
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation When a route (current successor) goes down, the router first checks its topology table for a feasible successor but it can’t find one. So it goes active on the that route to find a new successor by sending queries out to its neighbors requesting a path to the lost route.
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
We can not use passive-interfaces to accomplish this task because the “passive-interface…” command (in EIGRP or OSPF) will shut down the neighbor
relationship of these two routers (no hello packets are exchanged). And to filter routing updates we should configure a distribute list on R1 with an
access list that deny all and apply it to the outbound direction so that R1 can receive but cannot send routing updates.
QUESTION 4
EIGRP has been configured to operate over Frame Relay multipoint connections. What should the bandwidth command be set to?
A. the CIR rate of the lowest speed connection multiplied by the number of circuits
B. the CIR rate of the lowest speed connection
C. the CIR rate of the highest speed connection
D. the sum of all the CIRs divided by the number of connections
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If the multipoint network has different speeds allocated to the VCs, take the lowest CIR and simply multiply it by the number of circuits. This is because
in Frame-relay all neighbors share the bandwidth equally, regardless of the actual CIR of each individual PVC, so we have to get the lowest speed CIR
rate and multiply it by the number of circuits. This result will be applied on the main interface (or multipoint connection interface).
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
EIGRP is configured on all routes in the network. On a basis of the show ip eigrp topology output provided, what conclusion can be derived?
A. Router R1 can send traffic destined for network 10.6.1.0/24 out of interface FastEthernet0/0
B. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out before it declares the neighbor unreachable
C. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out inquiring for a second successor to network 10.6.1.0/24
D. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 in response to the query sent about network 10.6.1.0/24
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The “show ip eigrp topology” command lists all routes that EIGRP is aware of and shows whether EIGRP is actively processing information on that route.
Under most normal conditions, the routes should all be in a passive state and no EIGRP process are running for that route. If the routes are active, this
could indicate the dreaded stuck in active, or SIA, state.
The fields to note in this output are as follows:
P–Passive; no EIGRP computation is being performed. This is the ideal state. A–Active; EIGRP computations are “actively” being performed for this
destination. Routes constantly appearing in an active state indicate a neighbor or query problem.
Both are symptoms of the SIA problem.
U– Update; an update packet was sent to this destination. Q–Query; a query packet was sent to this destination. R– Reply; a reply packet was sent to
this destination. Route information– IP address of the route or network, its subnet mask, and the successor, or next hop to that network, or the feasible
successor.
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default
route to its neighbors?
A. R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0
B. R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
C. R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
D. R4(config-router)# default-information originate
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Unlike the ip default-gateway command, you can use ip default-network when ip routing is enabled on the Cisco router. When you configure ip default-network the router considers routes to that network for installation as the gateway of last resort on the router. For every network configured with ip default-network, if a router has a route to that network, that route is flagged as a candidate default route. Gateways of last resort selected using the ip default-network command are propagated differently depending on which routing protocol is propagating the default route. For IGRP and EIGRP to propagate the route, the network specified by the ip default-network command must be known to IGRP or EIGRP. This means the network must be an IGRP- or EIGRP- derived network in the routing table, or the static route used to generate the route to the network must be redistributed into IGRP or EIGRP, or advertised into these protocols using the network command. In this case, the 10.0.0.0 network is indeed being advertised via EIGRP.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094374.shtml#ip network
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1. However, router RTB and RTC are not receiving each other’s routes. What is the solution?
A. Configure the auto summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.
B. Issue the no ip split horizon command on router RTA.
C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each subinterface.
D. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.
E. Issue the no ip split horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.
F. Configure a distribute list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke routers.
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Split horizon controls the sending of EIGRP update and query packets. When split horizon is enabled on an interface, these packets are not sent for
destinations for which this interface is the next hop. This reduces the possibility of routing loops.
By default, split horizon is enabled on all interfaces. Split horizon blocks route information from being advertised by a router out of any interface from
which that information originated. This behavior usually optimizes communications among multiple routing devices, particularly when links are broken.
However, with nonbroadcast networks (such as Frame Relay and SMDS), situations can arise for which this behavior is less than ideal. For these
situations, you may want to disable split horizon. In this example, routes received by RTB and RTC are not being sent back out the same serial interface
on RTA, so they are not receiving each other’s routes. Disabling Split horizons on interface S0/0 on RTA will fix this issue.
QUESTION 8
Which two routing protocols require a metric to be configured when redistributing routes from other protocols? (Choose two.)
A. RIP
B. BGP
C. IS-IS
D. OSPF
E. EIGRP
Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Metrics must be set manually via configuration when redistributing into RIP and EIGRP, whereas OSPF uses a default value of 20.
Example:
EIGRP
router eigrp 1
redistribute ospf 1 metric 1544 5 255 1 1500
redistribute rip metric 1544 5 255 1 1500
network 15.0.0.0
RIP
router rip
version 2
redistribute eigrp 1 metric 2
redistribute ospf 1 metric 3
network 16.0.0.0
QUESTION 9
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The point of this question is about the condition of establish EIGRP neighbor. You can use these ways to troubleshoot the EIGRP connectivity problem.
1.
Whether EIGRP is enabled for the proper networks.
2.
Whether the K values of EIGRP neighbors is the same.
3.
Whether EIGRP autonomous number is the same.
Incorrect answers:
*. EIGRP use multicast, not broadcast.
*. EIGRP use multicast, not broadcast.
*. Hello and hold timers match is the condition of establish OSPF neighbor,not EIGRP.
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
You are the network administrator of the Route.com company. You have been tasked to implement a hub and spoke EIGRP topology over Frame Relay to provide connectivity between the networks at headquarters and all 300 spokes. Before you begin the actual implementation, which three pieces of information are more important to know than the others? (Choose three.)
A. the Committed Information Rate of all the Frame Relay PVCs
B. the Cisco IOS version running on all the routers
C. the router model number of all the spoke routers
D. the number of HQ networks connected behind the headquarter routers
E. the routing policy, such as whether or not the spokes can be used as backup transient point between the two headquarter routers
Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: You have to know the committed information rate because it is a bandwidth associated with logical connection in a PVC. You also need to know the IOS version on all routers so that there is no conflict in versions. As per the topology, you need to know the routing policy because it will be used as a backup transient point between headquarter routers
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
The Route.com company is running EIGRP between all the routers. Currently, if one of the LAN links (LAN1 or LAN2) at the headquarters flaps (goes up
and down), the HQ-RTR1 and HQ-RTR2 routers will experience high CPU usage and have a long EIGRP convergence time. As the new network
administrator, you are asked to investigate this situation and determine if there is a quick way to resolve this issue.
Which is the most important thing that you can quickly verify first to resolve this issue?
A. Verify that the bandwidth setting on all WAN links is correct.
B. Verify that the HQ-RTR1 and HQ-RTR2 routers are configured to send only a default route to all the spoke routers.
C. Verify that the HQ-RTR1 and HQ-RTR2 routers are configured for EIGRP Nonstop Forwarding.
D. Verify that all the spoke routers are configured for auto summarization.
E. Verify that all the spoke routers are configured as EIGRP stub.
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the remote router.
When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message “inaccessible.” A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router.
Any neighbor that receives a packet informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the proper updates to all peers.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/eigrpstb.html
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
When you examine the routing tables of R1 and R4, you are not able to see the R1 Ethernet subnet on the R4 routing table. You are also not able to see the R4 Ethernet subnet on the R1 routing table.
Which two configuration changes should be made to resolve this issue? Select the routers where the configuration change will be required, and select the required EIGRP configuration command(s). Choose two answers. (Choose two.)
A. R1 and R4
B. R2 and R3
C. ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 and ip summary-address eigrp 1 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0
D. variance 2
E. eigrp stub connected
F. no auto-summary
Correct Answer: BF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Of course, the routing is going through R2 and R3 to reach R4. So the two routers that need configuration change are R2 and R3. Also you need to set auto-summary to No. The no auto-summary command configures classless routing protocols such as RIPv2 and EIGRP to really act as classless because by default they’re classfull.
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
The actual speed of the serial links between R2 and R3 are 256 kb/s and 512 kb/s. When configuring EIGRP on routers R2 and R3, the network administrator configured the bandwidth of both serial interfaces to 512 kb/s.
What will be the effect?
A. EIGRP will over utilize the 512 kb/s link.
B. The interface “delay” value used in the EIGRP metric calculation will be inaccurate on the 256 kb/s serial interface.
C. The amount of bandwidth used for EIGRP routing protocol traffic on the 256 kb/s link can become excessive.
D. EIGRP can load balance between the two serial links only if the variance is set to 2 or higher.
E. Unequal cost load balancing will be disabled.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: If you assign more bandwidth than what is available between R2 and R3, the EIGRP traffic will become excessive because it uses only the actual bandwidth.
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
ROUTE.com has just implemented this EIGRP network. A network administrator came to you for advice while trying to implement load balancing across part of their EIGRP network. If the variance value is configured as 2 on all routers and all other metric and K values are configured to their default values, traffic from the Internet to the data center will be load balanced across how many paths?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.5
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
First we should list all the paths from the Internet to the data center:
+
A-B-C-H with a metric of 70 (40 + 15 + 15)
+
A-B-E-H with a metric of 60 (40+10+10)
+
A-D-E-H with a metric of 30 (10+10+10)
+
A-D-E-B-C-H with a metric of 60 (10+10+10+15+15)
+
A-D-E-F-G-H with a metric of 70 (10+10+10+20+20)
+
A-F-G-H with a metric of 60 (20+20+20)
+
A-F-E-H with a metric of 40 (20+10+10)
So the path A-D-E-H will be chosen because it has the best metric. But EIGRP can support unequal cost path load balancing. By configuring the variance value of 2, the minimum metric is increased to 60 (30 * 2) and all the routes that have a metric of less than or equal to 60 and satisfy the feasibility condition will be used to send traffic.
Besides the main path A-D-E-H we have 4 more paths that have the metric of less than or equal to 60 (we also include the Advertised Distances of these routes for later comparison):
+
A-B-E-H with an AD of 20
+
A-D-E-B-C-H with an AD of 50
+
A-F-G-H with an AD of 40
+
A-F-E-H with an AD of 20
Now the last thing we need to consider is the feasible condition. The feasible condition states:
“To qualify as a feasible successor, a router must have an AD less than the FD of the current successor route”
The FD of the current successor route here is 30 (notice that the variance number is not calculated here). Therefore there are only 2 paths that can satisfy this conditions: the path A-B-E-H & A-F-E-H.
In conclusion, traffic from the Internet to the data center will be load balanced across 3 paths, including the main path (successor path)
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
A Boston company bought the assets of a New York company and is trying to route traffic between the two data networks using EIGRP. The show command output shows that traffic will not flow between the networks. As a network consultant, you were asked to modify the configuration and certify the interoperability of the two networks. For traffic to flow from subnet 172.16.8.0/24 to the 172.16.16.0/24 subnet.
Which configuration change do you recommend?
A. Turn off autosummarization on routers N1 and B1.
B. Add IP summary addresses to the Internet-pointing interfaces of routers N1 and B1.
C. Turn off auto summarization on routers N2 and B2.
D. Add wildcard masks to the network commands on routers N2 and B2.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Basically auto route summarization happens at the classful network boundary…so that would make N1 and B1 the locations that summarization would occur for the 172.16.0.0/16 classful networks.
So if you left auto-summarization enabled on those 2 routers, you would have an issue with discontiguous networks being advertised by both routers N1 and B1 with their classful mask (172.16.0.0/16 and 10.0.0.0/8), which will cause you issues.
Turning off auto-summarization on N2 and B2 wouldn’t make any difference, as their networks wouldn’t be summarized due to the fact that they are not meeting a classful boundary on their perspective routers. N1 will receive the 172.16.8.0/24 network from N2 with auto-summarization enabled.
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
A Boston company bought the assets of a New York company and is trying to route traffic between the two data networks using EIGRP over EoMPLS. As a network consultant, you were asked to verify the interoperability of the two networks.
From the show ip route command output, what can you tell the customer about the traffic flow between the subnet in New York (172.16.8.0/24) and the subnets in Boston (172.16.16.0/24 and 10.10.16.0/24)?
A. Traffic is flowing between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and subnets 172.16.16.0 and 10.10.16.0 and no configuration changes are needed.
B. Auto-summary must be disabled on N1 and B1 before traffic can flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and subnets 172.16.16.0 and 10.10.16.0.
C. Traffic will flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and 172.16.16.0 without any further configuration changes. However, auto-summary must be disabled on N1 and B1 before traffic can flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and the 10.10.16.0 subnet.
D. Auto-summary must be disabled on N1 and B1 before traffic can flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and the 172.16.16.0 subnet. However, traffic will flow between the 172.16.8.0 subnet and 10.10.16.0 without any further configuration changes.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Basically auto route summarization happens at the classful network boundary…so that would make N1 and B1 the locations that summarization would occur for the 172.16.0.0/16 classful networks.
So if you left auto-summarization enabled on those 2 routers, you would have an issue with discontiguous networks being advertised by both routers N1 and B1 with their classful mask (172.16.0.0/16 and 10.0.0.0/8), which will cause you issues.
Turning off auto-summarization on N2 and B2 wouldn’t make any difference, as their networks wouldn’t be summarized due to the fact that they are not meeting a classful boundary on their perspective routers.
QUESTION 17
Which condition must be satisfied before an EIGRP neighbor can be considered a feasible successor?
A. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be less than or equal to the feasible distance of the current successor.
B. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be less than the feasible distance of the current successor.
C. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be greater than the feasible distance of the current successor.
D. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be equal to the feasible distance of the current successor.
E. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be greater than or equal to the feasible distance of the current successor.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The feasible successor route is a route which has a higher metric than the successor route to reach a subnet but meets the feasibility condition and can be used in the event that the successor route goes down. This route does NOT get installed in the routing table but is kept in the topology table. The feasibility condition states that the AD from a neighbor must be less than the metric of the successor route (the feasible distance [FD]) because routing through a feasible successor when the AD > FD may cause a routing loop.
QUESTION 18
Which statement about a non-zero value for the load metric (k2) for EIGRP is true?
A. A change in the load on an interface will cause EIGRP to recalculate the routing metrics and send a corresponding update out to each of its neighbors.
B. EIGRP calculates interface load as a 5-minute exponentially weighted average that is updated every 5 minutes.
C. EIGRP considers the load of an interface only when sending an update for some other reason.
D. A change in the load on an interface will cause EIGRP to recalculate and update the administrative distance for all routes learned on that interface.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The load metric (k2) represents the worst load on a link between source and destination. EIGRP routing updates are triggered only by a change in
network topology (like links, interfaces go up/down, router added/removed), and not by change in interface load or reliability.
The load is a five minute exponentially weighted average that is updated every five seconds (not five minutes) .
EIGRP considers the load of an interface only when sending an update for some other reason (like a link failure)
QUESTION 19
Your network consists of a large hub-and-spoke Frame Relay network with a CIR of 56 kb/s for each spoke. Which statement about the selection of a dynamic protocol is true?
A. EIGRP would be appropriate if LMI type ANSI is NOT used.
B. EIGRP would be appropriate, because the Frame Relay spokes could be segmented into their own areas.
C. EIGRP would be appropriate, because by default, queries are not propagated across the slow speed Frame Relay links.
D. EIGRP would be appropriate, because you can manage how much bandwidth is consumed over the Frame Relay interface.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
By default, EIGRP will limit itself to using no more than 50% of the interface bandwidth. The primary benefit of controlling EIGRP’s bandwidth usage is to avoid losing EIGRP packets, which could occur when EIGRP generates data faster than the interface line can absorb it. This is of particular benefit on Frame Relay networks, where the access interface bandwidth and the PVC capacity may be very different.
For example, in our Frame Relay topology a Hub is connected with 4 Spoke routers. The main Frame Relay interface on Hub router is 512Kpbs which is not enough to use for 6 links of 128 Kbps ( = 768 Kbps).
The solution here is we can use 512 / 6 = 85 Kbps on each subinterface of Hub by using “bandwidth 85 command. For example:
Hub(config)#interface Serial0/0.1 point-to-point Hub(config-subif)#bandwidth 85 Also on Spoke routers we need to set this value. For example on Spoke1:
Spoke1(config)#interface Serial0/1.0 point-to-point Spoke1(config-subif)#bandwidth 85
Notice that by default, EIGRP limits itself to use no more than 50% of the configured interface bandwidth. In this case EIGRP will not use more than 42.5 Kbps (50% of 85 Kbps).
(For more information about implementing EIGRP over Frame Relay, please read http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/ technologies_tech_note09186a0080094063.shtml)
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. Why are the EIGRP neighbors for this router not learning the routes redistributed from OSPF?
A. Redistribution must be enabled mutually (in both directions) to work correctly.
B. Auto-summary causes the OSPF routes redistributed into EIGRP to be summarized; thus the OSPF network 116.16.34 is summarized to 116.34.0.0, which is already covered by the EIGRP protocol.
C. Default metrics are not configured under EIGRP.
D. Both routing protocols must have unique autonomous system numbers for redistribution to function correctly.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Same as RIP, when redistribute into EIGRP from OSPF, the default metric is infinite -> We must set a seed metric when redistributing into EIGRP. Below lists the default seed metrics when redistributing from a routing protocol into another:
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. On the routing table of R4, the 10.1.1.0/24 route appears as an O E2 route.
B. On R4, the 172.16.1.0/24 route has a metric of 20.
C. The R3 S0/0 interface should not need the no ip split-horizon eigrp 1 configuration command for the 172.16.1.0/24 route to appear in the routing table of R2 as an D EX route.
D. The administrative distance of the 172.16.1.0/24 route in the routing table of R3 is 170.
E. On R5, the 4.0.0.0/8 route will have an administrative distance of 120 and a hop count of 6.
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
When redistributing into OSPF, the default route type is E2. Notice that the cost of E2 type is always the cost of external route only.
Also, the default seed metric when redistributing into OSPF is always 20 (except for BGP, which is 1)
When redistributing into EIGRP, the external EIGRP routes have an administrative distance of 170 by default
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
Looking at the topology diagram and the partial router configurations shown, which statement is true?
A. A routing loop will occur due to mutual route redistribution occurring on R1 and R2.
B. Suboptimal routing will occur due to mutual route redistribution occurring on R1 and R2.
C. Additional route filtering configurations using route maps and ACLs are required on the R1 and R2 routers to prevent routing loops.
D. R2 will not be able to redistribute the EIGRP subnets into OSPF, because R2 is missing the default seed metric for OSPF.
E. The 10.1.1.0/24 subnet will appear as 10.0.0.0/8 in the R5 routing table.
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol so the subnet 10.1.1.0/24 will be summarized to 10.0.0.0/8 in the R5 routing table. If we use RIPv2 on R1, R5 and use the “no auto-summary” command on R1 then the 10.1.1.0 subnet will appear in the routing table of R5. Notice that even if the “auto-summary” command is configured under “router eigrp 1 of R1 but when redistributing into another routing protocol EIGRP still advertises the detailed network.
QUESTION 23
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the EIGRP routers within the EIGRP routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. What should you verify to troubleshoot this problem?
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP.
D. The missing OSPF routes are present in the routing table of the border router.
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute OSPF command.
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
We are checking the routing table on EIGRP routers not OSPF so we don’t need to check the seed metric for OSPF. Besides OSPF doesn’t need to specify seed metric as all external routes get a default metric of 20 (except for BGP, which is 1). We must specify seed metrics when redistributing into EIGRP (and RIP). If not all the redistributed routes will not be seen but the question says only
some routes are missing.
The default administrative distance for external routes redistributed into EIGRP is 170 so we don’t need to set it .
The sunbet keyword is only used when redistributing into OSPF, not to other routing protocols .
We should check the routing table of the border router to see the missing OSPF routes are there or not. An incorrect distribute-list can block some
routes and we can’t see it in other EIGRP routers.
QUESTION 24
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes.
Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP.
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router.
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command.
Correct Answer: DE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: When troubleshooting EIGRP routes being distributed into OSPF, the first item to check is that the missing EIGRP routes are in fact on the router performing the redistribution (border router). If not, the routes cannot be redistributed into OSPF and troubleshooting should occur within the EIGRP AS.
The second step is to verify that the subnets keyword has been appended to the redistribute eigrp statement under the OSPF routing process. The question mentions that the networks being redistributed are using a /28 mask, with implies that the networksare actually subnets not assigned to classful boundaries.
OSPF will only redistribute classful networks by default. The keyword “subnets” allows subnets to also be be redistributed into OSPF (not merely classful routes).
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
All EIGRP load balancing parameters are set to their defaults. You want to use all the routes in the EIGRP topology for IP load balancing Which two EIGRP subcommands would you use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. traffic-share balanced
B. distance
C. maximum-paths
D. default-network
E. variance
Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Notice that the “maximum-paths” command is used to share traffic to equal cost path while the “variance” command can share traffic to unequal cost path.
In the output above we learn that EIGRP is using 2 successors to send traffic. By using the “variance 2 command we can share traffic to other feasible successor routes. But by default, EIGRP only shares traffic to 4 paths. So we need to use the “maximum-paths 6 to make sure all of these routes are used.
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 accesses the Internet using E0/0. You have been asked to configure R1 so that a default route is generated to its downstream neighbors (191.0.0.1 and 192.0.0.1). Which commands would create this configuration?
A. router eigrp 190 redistribute static ! ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Null0
B. ip default-network 20.0.0.0
C. router eigrp 190 redistribute static ! ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 Null0
D. ip default-network 20.20.20.0
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Since you are running EIGRP and you have other routers that need a default route, you can use EIGRP to distribute that without having to program static routes in each. Since 2 are default routes they are only used on the router that they are configured on. The first option has you configure the static route as well as a way to redistribute that route to other routers connecting to you via EIGRP. This will essentially publish this route the same as if it were programmed in with the network x.x.x.x sub-command in the router eigrp 100 routing table.
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
A partial routing configuration is shown. Complete the configuration so that only the default- network is redistributed from EIGRP 190 into EIGRP 212. Which ACL statement completes the configuration correctly?
A. access-list 100 permit ip 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
B. access-list 100 permit ip host 0.0.0.0 any
C. access-list 100 permit ip any host 0.0.0.0
D. A default-network cannot be redistributed between routing processes.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation The command “access-list 100 permit ip any host 0.0.0.0 means permit any source address with the destination of 0.0.0.0/0, which is the default route Note: any equals 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
host 0.0.0.0 equals 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
Which three commands should be used on router B1 to redistribute the EIGRP AS 10 routes into RIP? (Choose three.)
A. router rip
B. router eigrp 10
C. redistribute eigrp 10
D. redistribute rip
E. default-metric 10000 100 255 1 1500
F. default-metric 5
Correct Answer: ACF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a008009487e.shtml#ri p
QUESTION 29
You want the redistributed EIGRP AS 10 routes to have an administrative distance of 121 when they appear as RIP routes in the routing table of A1. Which command should you use on a router to accomplish this goal?
A. redistribute eigrp 10 metric 121
B. redistribute rip metric 121
C. default-metric 121
D. distance 121 10.1.1.6 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If you add that route back with an administrative distance of 121, the ASA will still prefer the route learned via RIP because it prefers the route with a
lower administrative distance.
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
In a redundant hub-and-spoke deployment using EIGRP, what feature can be used to ensure that routers C through F are not used as transit routers for
data traveling from router B to network 10.1.1.0? Select the best response
A. Use address summarization at routers C, D, E, and F.
B. Use the EIGRP Stub feature on routers C, D, E, and F.
C. Use passive-interface on the spoke links in routers A and B.
D. Change the administrative distance in routers A and B for routes learned from routers C, D, E, and F.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
By configuring “stub” feature on routers C D E and F, routers A and B will not try to transit traffic through these routers. For example, if the network connecting from routers A and B is down, router B will not send to network 10.1.1.0/24 from router B -> routerC/D/E/F -> router A -> network 10.1.1.0/24.
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QUESTION 146
Look at the following exhibit. You have just configured OSPF on all routers in the network. You configure area 5 as an NSSA area. You redistribute the RIPv2 routes into the OSPE field on router P4S-R5. Choose two types of LSAs that will be originated by router P4S-R5. (choose two)
A. type 2 Network LSA
B. type 3 Network Summary LSA
C. type 1 Router LSA
D. type 7 NSSA External LSA
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 147
You are a network technician at P4S. Study this exhibit
carefully. BGP has been configured on the routers in the network. However, the IBGP peers in
autonomous system 65200 have
not converged. In addition, this console message was generated on router P4S2:
*Mar 1 03:09:07.729: %TCP-6-BADAUTH No MD5 digest from 10.10.23.2(179) to 10.10.23.3(11002)
Based on the information provided, what causes this problem?
A. OSPF must be configured with the same MD5 authentication.
B. The password that is used for BGP authentication on both BGP peers in autonomous system 65200 must be the same.
C. BGP authentication can be used on eBGP peers only.
D. BGP authentication can be used on iBGP peers when the connection is configured between the loopback interfaces.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 148
Study the configuration presented in the exhibit carefully. What is the objective of the route map named test ?
A. marks all prefixes received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
B. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
C. marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
D. marks all prefixes advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 149
Which two descriptions are true regarding the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
D. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 150
According to the partial configuration that is presented in the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
B. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
C. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
D. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 151
Which two statements best describe IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
B. The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
C. An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors.
D. A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 152
IBGP is the protocol used between the routers in the same
autonomous system (AS) .Which description is correct about IBGP routers?
A. They must be directly connected.
B. They must be fully meshed.
C. They can be in a different AS.
D. They do not need to be directly connected.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 153
Which two approaches advertise internal networks to external ISPs via BGP? (Choose two.)
A. defining routes via the network statement
B. forcing the next-hop address
C. disabling synchronization
D. using aggregate routes
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 154
Which two statements best describe external BGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. Static routes or an interior gateway protocol is required between EBGP neighbors.
B. EBGP neighbors use TCP port 179 to exchange BGP routing tables.
C. EBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
D. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other EBGP peers.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 155
Look at the exhibit. Configure all routers for BGP. EBGP routes received on router P4S2 show up in the BGP table on routers P4S1 and P4S3 but not in their IP routing tables. Which would be the cause of this problem?
A. EBGP multihop is not configured on routers P4S1 and P4S3.
B. Synchronization in autonomous system 100 is turned on.
C. Synchronization in autonomous system 100 is turned off.
D. Routers P4S1 and P4S3 do not receive the same routes via an IGP.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 156
What is the reason that iBGP sessions should be fully meshed within a Transit AS?
A. A full mesh allows for optimal routing within the Transit AS.
B. Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other eBGP peers.
C. BGP requires redundant TCP sessions between iBGP peers.
D. Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 157
What is the meaning of the default value of the EIGRP variance command of 1?
A. Only the path that is the feasible successor should be used.
B. The router only performs equal-cost load balancing on all paths that have a metric greater than 1.
C. Load balancing is disabled on this router.
D. The router performs equal-cost load balancing.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 158
The Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is the core routing protocol of the Internet. Refer to the exhibit.
Routers P4SA and P4SB are running BGP but the session is active.
What command needs to be
added to establish the BGP session?
A. ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/0 ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/1
B. no synchronization
C. network 10.10.10.0
D. neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 159
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Examine the exhibit carefully. What will P4S-RB do with a packet sourced from within AS 64200 with a destination address of 192.168.25.1?
A. It will be forwarded to the null 0 interface of P4S-RB and dropped.
B. It will be dropped because network 192.168.25.0 is not in the P4S-RA routing table.
C. It will be dropped because network 192.168.25.0 is not in the P4S-RB routing table.
D. It will be forwarded to the P4S-RB 192.168.25.0 network.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 160
You work as a network technician at P4S,and study the exhibit carefully. Autonomous systems 200 and 300 have EBGP sessions established with their directly connected routers in autonomous system 100. IGP has been configured on all routers in autonomous system 100 and they successfully exchange routing updates. Traffic originated in autonomous system 200 cannot reach the destination autonomous system 300. What configuration should be done on the routers in autonomous system 100 in order for the traffic coming from autonomous system 200 to be forwarded to autonomous system 300?
A. IBGP session must be established between routers P4S1 and P4S3, and the synchronization must be
turned off.
B. IBGP session must be established between routers P4S1 , P4S2 and P4S2 , P4S3, and the synchronization must be turned on.
C. IBGP session must be established between routers P4S1 and P4S3, and the synchronization must be turned on.
D. IBGP speakers within autonomous 100 must be fully meshed, and the synchronization must be turned off.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 161
You are a network technician.Study the exhibit carefully. Router RTR is attempting to build up BGP neighbor relationships with routers RT1 and RT3. Based on the information presented in this exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.5 has an incorrect password set.
B. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.1 has an incorrect password set.
C. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.5 does not.
D. RTR has a BGP password set but neighbor 10.0.0.1 does not.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 162
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Refer to the
exhibit. Which statement accurately describes the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?
A. Route 6.6.6.0/24 is learned by an IBGP peer.
B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor 10.10.23.3.
C. The route 10.10.23.3 is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors.
D. If another path advertises the 6.6.6.0/24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more preferred.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 163
Which is the right order of the BGP attributes used for determining a route?
1.
Weight
2.
MED
3.
AS_Path
4.
Originate route
5.
Local preference
A. 1st
II. 2nd
III. 3rd
IV. 4th
B. 5th
C. 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
D. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
E. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
F. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 164
Examine the following statements carefully .A router is running BGP and receives more than one route for
a particular prefix. Assume that all the routes for this prefix have the same attributes.
Which three path features would be reasons for the router to ignore some of the routes and does not
consider them as candidates for the best path? (Choose three.)
A. paths that are marked as synchronized in the show ip bgp output
B. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is inaccessible
C. paths that are marked as not synchronized in the show ip bgp output
D. paths from an external BGP (eBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 165
Look at the following exhibit. Presume an IGP is correctly operating inside AS64192. As to BGP operation in AS64192, which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two)
A. P4S-RT2 used the BGP command neighbor 192.168.33.1 ebgp-multihop
B. P4S-RT1 used the BGP command neighbor 192.168.33.1 remote-as 64192
C. P4S-RT2 used the BGP command neighbor 192.168.33.1 remote-as 64192
D. PS4-RT2 used the BGP command update-source loopback 0
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 166
Topic – Implement multicast forwarding. ?.§53 Questions??
Describe IP Multicast (e.g., Layer-3 to Layer-2 mapping, IGMP, etc.).
Describe, configure, or verify IP multicast routing (i.e., PIM Sparse-Dense Mode).
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 167
In computer networking ,a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
C. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 168
On the basis of the partial configuration for Router A: interface serial 0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 encapsulation frame-relay ip ospf network point-to-multipoint router ospf 7 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 Which two descriptions are true? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF neighbor statements are not necessary.
B. The area 0 NBMA cloud is configured as more than one subnet.
C. The router is restricted to a hub and spoke topology.
D. DR/BDR elections do not take place.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 169
Which one of the following commands enables a multicast routing protocol on an IOS device?
A. (config-if)#multicast address {IP-address}
B. (config)#ip multicast routing
C. (config-if)#ip pim {dense-mode | sparse-dense-mode | sparsemode}
D. (config)#ip pim send-rp-announce {interface type} scope {ttl} group-list {acl}
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 170
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Study the exhibit carefully. A P4S network administrator consoles into the P4S-SW1 switch and attempts to save the switch configuration to the TFTP server that is located at IP address 10.1.2.10/24. However, whenever the copy running-config tftp command is issued with default options on switch P4S-SW1, an error is produced.
Which configuration would correct this situation?
A. P4S-SW1 (config)# interface range fastethernet 0/1 – 24 P4S-SW1 (config-if-range)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
B. P4S-R(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 P4S-R (config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
C. P4S-R (config)# interface fastethernet0/1 P4S-R (config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 69
D. P4S-R (config)# interface fastethernet0/0 P4S-R (config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.2.10
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 171
In order to enable multicast routing on an IOS device , which command should be used?
A. (config)#ip multicast-routing
B. (config-if)#ip pim {dense-mode | sparse-dense-mode | sparsemode}
C. (config-if)#multicast address {ip-address}
D. (config)#ip pim send-rp-announce {interface type} {scope ttl} {group-list acl}
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 172
Rendezvous points are configured with an access list. Which objective will this list reach?
A. Restricting source addresses that use the RP
B. Restricting users that use the RP
C. Restricting routers that use the RP
D. Limiting multicast IP addresses that use the RP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 173
Which two situations would require using multiple routing protocols? (Choose two)
A. when using UNIX host-based routers
B. because having multiple routing protocols confuses hackers
C. when smaller broadcast domains are desired
D. when migrating from an older Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) to a new IGP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 174
Examine the following options ,Multicasting supports applications that communicate:
A. many-to-many
B. one-to-many
C. many-to-one
D. one-to-one
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 175
Which command will show the multicast groups used?
A. show multicast router
B. show multicast group
C. show igmp interface
D. ip igmp snooping
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 176
Which option is not a capability of UDP multicast?
A. Limiting receivers
B. Retransmission
C. Dynamic membership
D. Packet ordering
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 177
IGMPv1 does not have a mechanism to allow a host to leave a group when it is no longer interested in the content of that group. Based on the following statements, which is an advantage of IGMPv3 over version 2?
A. Leaves
B. Joins
C. Group-specific queries
D. Source Filtering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 178
For the following MAC addresses, which will 224.1.2.3 correspond to ?
A. e000.0001.0203
B. 0100.5e01.0203
C. 1000.5e01.0203
D. 0102.0300.0000
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 179
Which two Cisco IOS commands can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two.)
A. show ip ospf protocols
B. show ip ospf interfaces
C. show ip ospf database
D. show ip ospf neighbors
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 180
Which description is correct concerning the router operation when the command ip pim sparse-mode is used?
A. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
B. When a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
C. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterward, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.
D. Group members are joined to the shared tree by their local designated router.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 111
Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.)
A. STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
B. A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C. To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay, max age) must be the same.
D. If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
E. On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
F. The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 112
The lack of which two prevents VTP information from propagating between switches? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN 1
B. a trunk port
C. VTP priority
D. a root VTP server
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. There is a valid CEF entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam
http://www.TestInside.com
Testinside
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
What is the effect of configuring the following command on a switch?
Switch(config) # spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
A. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, then PortFast is disabled and the BPDUs are processed normally.
B. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, they are ignored and none are sent.
C. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for Portfast, the port will transition to forwarding state.
D. The command will enable BPDU filtering on all ports regardless of whether they are configured for BPDU filtering at the interface level.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and
cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence
would correct the problem?
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A. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# no shut
B. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
C. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10
D. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# no shut
E. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# state active
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 118
Refer to the exhibit. What does the command channel-group 1 mode desirable do?
A. enables LACP unconditionally
B. enables PAgP only if a PAgP device is detected
C. enables PAgP unconditionally
D. enables Etherchannel only
E. enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
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A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?
A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.)
A. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs.
B. This interface is configured for access mode.
C. This interface is a member of VLAN1.
D. This interface is a member of VLAN7.
E. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 122
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true when voice traffic is forwarded on the same VLAN used by
the data traffic?
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A. Quality of service cannot be applied for the voice traffic.
B. The voice traffic cannot be forwarded to the distribution layer.
C. Port security cannot be enabled on the switch that is attached to the IP phone.
D. The voice traffic cannot use 802.1p priority tagging.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
Which two statements are true about recommended practices in VLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing should always be performed at the distribution layer.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be localized to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?
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A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
A. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
A. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
B. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
C. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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