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QUESTION 1 #
VXLAN is irrelevant to SDN technology.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
QUESTION 2 #
Congestion management uses queue scheduling to manage and control traffic when traffic congestion occurs.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
QUESTION 3 #
Which of the following queue scheduling technologies is better in a fair manner?
A. WFQ B. PQ C. FIFO D. RR
QUESTION 4 #
Which IP precedence value represents the critical service traffic?
A. 0 B. 2 C. 5 D. 6
QUESTION 5 #
Which of the following items is not the disadvantage of the traditional congestion avoidance mechanism (tail drop)?
A. Global TCP synchronization B. High jitter and long delay C. High cost D. Packets are discarded without differentiating the priority
QUESTION 6 #
How is OPEX defined?
A. Maintenance cost B. Total cost of ownership (TCO) C. Operating cost D. OandM costs
QUESTION 7 #
Which of the following statements regarding the trusted and untrusted zones are true? (Multiple Choice)
A. The direction for the access from the trusted zone to the untrusted zone is the outbound direction. B. The direction for the access from the trusted zone to the untrusted zone is the inbound direction. C. The security level of the trusted zone is 85. D. The security level of the untrusted zone is 50.
QUESTION 8 #
Which QoS technology is usually used by congestion avoidance?
A. GTS B. LR C. CAR D. WRED
QUESTION 9 #
During configuration of the WRED drop profile, the lower drop threshold and upper drop threshold for AF21 traffic are 35 and 40, the lower drop threshold and upper drop threshold for AF22 traffic are 30 and 40, and the lower drop threshold and upper drop threshold for AF23 traffic are 25 and 40. The maximum drop probability for AF21, AF22, and AF23 traffic is 10%. Before congestion occurs, which type of traffic can obtain bandwidth guarantee?
A. AF21 B. AF22 C. AF23 D. AF21, AF22, and AF23 traffic
QUESTION 10 #
Which information of labels is used for simple traffic classification?
A. DSCP priority B. IP precedence C. MPLS EXP priority D. 802.1p priority
QUESTION 11 #
BFD is a universal fast detection technology that can implement fast switchover, so BFD does not need to be used with other fast switching technologies.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
QUESTION 12 #
Which of the following statements regarding the authentication domain of the Agile Controller are true? (MultipleChoice)
A. Authentication domain are classified into the pre-authentication domain, isolation domain, and post-authentication domain. B. A pre-authentication domain defines public network resources that users can access before passing identity authentication in the area, for example, the DNS server, external authentication source, Service Manager, and Service Controller. C. An isolation domain defines resources that end-users passing identity authentication but failing the security check can access. These resources such as the patch server and antivirus server can help end-users eliminate violations. D. A post-authentication domain defines controlled network resources that end users can access after passing identity authentication and security check, for example, the ERP system, financial system, and database.
QUESTION 13 #
Which of the following statements regarding VRRP load balancing are true? (Multiple Choice)
A. Multiple virtual routers can be configured on an interface of a router so that the router functions as the master of the virtual router and the backup of another virtual router. B. In load balancing mode, multiple routers transmit service at the same time, so at least two or more virtual routers are required. C. In load balancing mode, two or more VRRP groups are created, and multiple routers transmit services. D. During priority configuration, the VRRP master of the three virtual routers can be on different routers.
Correct answer
Q1: A, Q2: A, Q3: A, Q4: C, Q5: B, Q6:A, Q7: AC, Q8: D, Q9: A, Q10: C, Q11: B, Q12: ABCD, Q13: CD
Summarize:
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If there are two BGP routes with the same destination address but different next hops in a BGP routing table, then which statement regarding the two BGP routes is true?
A. Both BGP routes are advertised to other BGP peers. B. Only the optimal route between the two is advertised to other BGP peers.
QUESTION 2
What does the IP-prefix-filter “ip ip-prefix test index 10 deny 0.0.0.0 0 less-equal 32” mean?
A. Matching only default routes B. Matching all routes C. Denying only default routes D. Denying all routes
QUESTION 3
The unicast and multicast technologies are both outstanding in solving the problem of “single source, multiple destinations” in order to allow efficient P2MP data transmission.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
QUESTION 4
Which types of packets are supported by BGP? (Select 3 answers)
A. Hello B. Notification C. Update D. Route-refresh
QUESTION 5
On a broadcast network or an NBMA network, not all neighbors need to set up adjacencies with each other. Therefore, the concept of establishing adjacency is applicable only to the broadcast network or the NBMA network.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
QUESTION 6
Which statements regarding BGP well-known mandatory attributes are true? (Select 3 answers)
A. Well-known mandatory attributes must be recognized by all BGP routers. B. Well-known mandatory attributes impacts the path decision process. C. Well-known mandatory attributes are optional in an Update packet, and can be included in an Update packet as needed. D. Well-known mandatory attributes must be included in all Update packets.
QUESTION 7
Which of following BGP attributes is used to define a set of prefixes with same properties?
A. Origin B. Nexthop C. Community D. MED
QUESTION 8
One route-policy may have several nodes with each node containing a node ID. Each node may also have multiple “ifmatch” and “apply” clauses. Which of the following statements are true? (Select 2 answers)
A. Different nodes are in an OR relationship. B. Different nodes are in an AND relationship. C. If-match clauses of a node are in an AND relationship, D. If-match clauses of a node are in an OR relationship.
QUESTION 9
How does community attribute of the BGP route set by routing policies affect route selection?
A. The Community attribute directly affects route selection because it must be compared during the route selection process. B. The Community attribute does not affect route selection because it is non-transitive and cannot be transmitted between routers. C. Routes are classified by the Community attribute which indirectly affects route selection. Different route attributes such as the Local-Preference and MED values can be set for routes in different communities.
QUESTION 10
What are the functions of an IGMFV2 Query message? (Select 3 answers)
A. A router sends IGMPv2 Query messages to collect group memberships of receiver hosts. B. A router sends IGMPv2 Query messages to elect a querier. C. A working router sends Query messages periodically. D. Based on IGMPv2 Query messages, receiver hosts can unicast Report messages to the querier by obtaining its address.
QUESTION 11
How many hosts are available per subnet if you apply a /21 mask to the class B network?
A. 510 B. 512 C. 1022 D. 2046
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the address range assigned by IANA for SSM service in IPv4?
A. 232.0.0.0/24 B. 225.0.0.0/8 C. 232.0.0.0/8 D. 239.0.0.0/8
QUESTION 13
Which of the following routes matches the ACL filter given below? “acl number 2001 rule 0 permit source 1.1.0.0 0”
A. 1.1.1.1/32 B. 1.1.1.0/24 C. 1.1.0.0/16 D. 1.0.0.0/8
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements regarding static and dynamic routing is incorrect?
A. The static route can be easily configured and managed on the enterprise network. B. The use of dynamic routing is more convenient for the administrator to manage the network following network convergence. C. The static route can automatically recover when a link failure is encountered. D. Dynamic routing will use more resources than static routes. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
When an IPsec tunnel is established between two routers, which of the following parameters does not need to be consistent between IPsec peers?
A. The security protocol used B. Data encapsulation mode C. Proposal name D. Authentication algorithm Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What is the number range of a basic ACL?
A. 2000-2999 B. 3000-3999 C. 4000-4999 D. 6000-6031 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What is the value of the Type field in RSTP configuration BPDUs?
A. 0×00 B. 0×01 C. 0×02 D. 0×03 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
If the administrator wants to update the VRP of the AR2200 router, the correct method is (). (multiple choice) A. The administrator configures the AR2200 as an FTP client to transfer VRP software through FTP. B. The administrator configures the AR2200 as an FTP server to transmit VRP software through FTP. C. The administrator configures the AR2200 as a TFTP server and transmits VRP software through TFTP. D. The administrator configures the AR2200 as a TFTP client to transmit VRP software through TFTP. Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 6
system-view [Huawei]command privilege level 3 view user save The correct statement about the above configuration the command is ()
A. Modify the save command of a user to have a permission level of 3 B. Modify the permission level of the save command in the user view to 3 C. Modify the user view command to a permission level of 3 and save the configuration D. Modify the user\’s permission level to 3 and save the configuration Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
The ACL configuration shown above is completed on the router RTA, and the following description is correct (). [RTA]acl 2001 Huawei question bank battle report group: 434299778[RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule 20 permit source 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 [RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule 10 deny source 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
A. The VRP system will automatically adjust the order of the first rule in the order of configuration. B. The VRP system does not adjust the sequence number, but will first match the rule of the first configuration. 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 C. Configuration error, the order number of the rule must be from small to large. D. The VRP system will first match the second rule in order. deny source 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
When RIPv1 is enabled on the Huawei router, the interface that is advertised to the RIP receives the RIPv1 broadcast packet, the RIPv2 broadcast packet, and the multicast packet by default.
The administrator has captured three packets in the network. Which statement regarding the captured packets is incorrect?
A. These packets represent a TCP three-way handshake process. B. 10.0.12.1 is the telnet server, while 10.0.12.2 is the telnet client. C. The three packets contain no application data. D. 10.0.12.1 uses port 50190 to build the telnet connection. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
One of the reasons that segment routing (SR) is introduced is that traditional LDP has some restrictions. Which of the following statements about LDP restrictions are true?
A. LDP does not support automatic label allocation. B. LDP supports path computation only based on IGP SPF (minimum cost), not based on traffic engineering. C. LDP path computation depends on an IGP. If the IGP and LDP are not synchronized, black holes are generated, affecting services. D. LDP has 11 types of protocol packets, which greatly increases link bandwidth consumption and device CPU usage. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11
For DHCP, the priority of an interface address pool is higher than that of a global address pool.
A. True B. False Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
The company network engineer has an AR2200 that cannot be started normally. How can the administrator want to update its VRP?
A. The administrator needs to use the console cable to connect to the router and host, and then enter the BootROM interface to complete the upgrade. B. The administrator needs to configure the AR2200 as an FTP client and use FTP to transfer the new C. The administrator needs to configure the AR2200 to obtain an IP address through DHCP and then obtain the VRP system file through TFTP. D. The administrator needs to use telnet on the local host to remotely update the VRP system files of the device. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
OSPF allows for “multiple” processes. By default, OSPF selects a process whose number is ( ).
A. 0 B. 1 C. 10 D. 100 Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
The U1900 system is connected to the PSTN through a digital trunk. In U1900, phone A cannot call user B\\’s On a mobile phone, user B can call back phone A normally.
Which of the following reasons may cause this failure? () (single choice) A. The digital trunk connection between U1900 and PSTN is faulty. B. Phone A is not registered properly. C. Phone A outbound call permission restriction D. Phone A has been added to the system\\’s blacklist of called parties Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
In the U1900+SC solution, eSpace 8950 is used to call the conference access number of the video conference system.
When the conference list page appears on the phone screen, which statement is correct () A. You can select the conference B you want to join through the touch screen of the 8950 phones. B. You can use the arrow keys on the 8950 phones to select the conference you want to join C. The number key 2468 of the 8950 phones can be used to select the conference to join D. You can use the microphone of the 8950 phones to select the conference you want to join by voice. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which of the following conference control operations are not supported by the sub-conferences of a multilevel conference? () Multiple choice A. Multi-picture polling B. Chairman polling C. Timed broadcast D. Voice control switch Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 4
Phone A has been successfully registered to the U1900 system. At some point, unplug the network cable. At this time, log in to the U1900 system to check the registration status of phone A. The following statement is wrong () A. The registration status of phone A in the U1900 system may change immediately B. The registration status of phone A in the U1900 system may remain unchanged C. The registration status of phone A in the U1900 system may change after a period of time D. The registration status of phone A in the U1900 system is updated, only after the network cable of phone A is unplugged, the change occurs after half of the registration period of phone A has passed Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
When the number of bills exceeds the limit of the number of bill pools of the U1900 unified gateway, which statement is correct? () (multiple choice) A. can be set to choose to overwrite old bills B. can be set to discard new bills C. It may cause the unified gateway to fail to register new users D. May cause all users to be unable to initiate calls Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 6
Huawei TE series terminals make point-to-point calls, and the video-related settings are all “automatic”, the following statement. The correct one () (multiple choice) A. In the case of sufficient bandwidth, the main video is given priority to the 1080P60 format. B. In the case of sufficient bandwidth, the main video is given priority to the 1080P30 format C. In the case of sufficient bandwidth, 720P60 format is preferred for the main video D. In the case of sufficient bandwidth, 720P30 format is preferred for the main video Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 7
In the U1900 series unified gateways, what is the correct statement about the prefix? () A. The prefix is divided into an intra-office prefix and outgoing prefix B. intra-office prefix refers to the prefix used when dialing between different extensions of the same company C. Since prefix 28 includes prefix 289, the system performs the called number according to the maximum matching principle Analysis, the call with the called number 28901111 should choose prefix 28 D. The prefix must correspond to the office route selection code Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
The interconnection between two U1900 series unified gateways can only be achieved through SIP trunking. () A. Right B. Wrong Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
An enterprise has deployed eight network management, DNS server, and DHCP server on its existing network. For deploying 200 IP phones, which of the following methods cannot achieve the batch configuration of TR069 parameters? () A. Configure the right domain name and IP address mapping in the DNS server B. Batch delivery via DHCP Option 246 field C. Use access scan D. Through the web configuration interface of IP Phone Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which of the following information is contained in the RTP packet () (multiple choice) A. Type of transmission media B. Number of lost packets C. serial number D. Timestamp Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 11
In video systems, image processing uses RGB color space. () Right or Wrong A. Right B. Wrong Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
In the Converged Conference 3.0 solution, no matter whether the multimedia cascade mode or the MCU center mode is used, all the audio and video media streams of the Web client need to be forwarded by the USM/MS system as a proxy? Correct or Wrong A. Correct B. Wrong Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
A single Media board of VP9660 MCU can support up to () 1080P 30 ports? A. 12 B. 36 C. 24 D. 8 Correct Answer: C
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Fortinet NSE7_PBC-6.4 Practice Test Q1-Q13 Free Online
QUESTION 1 What role does FortiWeb play in ensuring PCI DSS compliance? A. PCI specifically requires a WAF B. Provides credit card processing capabilities C. Provide ability to securely process cash transactions D. Provides load balancing between multiple web servers Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 When generating a protection configuration from an auto learning report what critical step must you do before generating the final protection configuration? A. Restart the FortiWeb to clear the caches B. Drill down in the report to correct any false positives. C. Activate the report to create t profile D. Take the FortiWeb offline to apply the profile Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 You\\’ve configured an authentication rule with delegation enabled on FortiWeb. What happens when a user tries to access the web application? A. FrotiWeb redirects users to a FortiAuthenticator page, then if the user authenticates successfully, FortiGate signals to FortiWeb to allow access to the web app B. ForitWeb redirects the user to the web app\\’s authentication page C. FortiWeb forwards the HTTP challenge from the server to the client, then monitors the reply, allowing access if the user authenticates successfully D. FortiWeb replies with a HTTP challenge of behalf of the server, the if the user authenticates successfully, FortiWeb allows the request and also includes credentials in the request that it forwards to the web app Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 What capability can FortiWeb add to your Web App that your Web App may or may not already have? A. Automatic backup and recovery B. High Availability C. HTTP/HTML Form Authentication D. SSL Inspection Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is true about Local User Accounts? A. Must be assigned regardless of any other authentication B. Can be used for Single Sign On C. Can be used for site publishing D. Best suited for large environments with many users Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 When integrating FortiWeb and FortiAnalyzer, why is the selection for FortiWeb Version critical? (Choose two) A. Defines Log file format B. Defines communication protocol C. Defines Database Schema D. Defines Log storage location Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7 How does an ADOM differ from a VDOM? A. ADOMs do not have virtual networking B. ADOMs improve performance by offloading some functions. C. ADOMs only affect specific functions, and do not provide full separation like VDOMs do. D. Allows you to have 1 administrator for multiple tenants Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 How does offloading compression to FortiWeb benefit your network? A. free up resources on the database server B. Free up resources on the web server C. reduces file size on the client\\’s storage D. free up resources on the FortiGate Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Reverse-proxy mode is best suited for use in which type of environment? A. New networks where infrastructure is not yet defined B. Environments where you cannot change your IP addressing scheme C. Flexible environments where you can easily change the IP addressing scheme D. Small Office/Home Office environments Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which of the following would be a reason for implementing rewrites? A. Page has been moved to a new URL B. Page has been moved to a new IP address C. Replace vulnerable functions. D. Send connection to secure channel Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 An e-commerce web app is used by small businesses. Clients often access it from offices behind a router, where clients are on an IPv4 private network LAN. You need to protect the web application from denial of service attacks that use request floods. What FortiWeb feature should you configure? A. Enable “Shared IP” and configure the separate rate limits for requests from NATted source IPs. B. Configure FortiWeb to use “X-Forwarded-For:” headers to find each client\\’s private network IP, and to block attacks using that. C. Enable SYN cookies. D. Configure a server policy that matches requests from shared Internet connections. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 In which operation mode(s) can FortiWeb modify HTTP packets? (Choose two.) A. Transparent Inspection B. Offline protection C. True transparent proxy D. Reverse proxy Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 What other consideration must you take into account when configuring Defacement protection A. Use FortiWeb to block SQL Injections and keep regular backups of the Database B. Also incorporate a FortiADC into your network C. None. FortiWeb completely secures the site against defacement attacks D. Configure the FortiGate to perform Anti-Defacement as well Correct Answer: D
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