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QUESTION 1
The Vault administrator can change the Vault license by uploading the new license to the system Safe.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements are NOT true when enabling PSM recording for a target Windows server? Choose all that apply.
A. The PSM software must be installed on the target server. B. PSM must be enabled in the Master Policy (either directly, or through an exception). C. PSMConnect must be added as a local user on the target server. D. RDP must be enabled on the target server.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which of the following logs contains information about errors related to PTA?
A. ITAlog.log B. diamond.log C. pm_error.log D. WebApplication.log
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
The Password upload utility can be used to create safes.
If a user is a member of more than one group that has authorizations on a safe, by default that user is granted____________________.
A. the vault will not allow this situation to occur. B. only those permissions that exist on the group added to the safe first. C. only those permissions that exist in all groups to which the user belongs. D. the cumulative permissions of all the groups to which that user belongs.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
PSM for Windows (previously known as “RDP Proxy”) supports connections to the following target systems
Your organization has a requirement to allow users to “check out passwords” and connect to targets with the same account through the PSM. What needs to be configured in the Master policy to ensure this will happen?
A. Enforce check-in/check-out exclusive access = active; Require privileged session monitoring and isolation = active B. Enforce check-in/check-out exclusive access = inactive; Require privileged session monitoring and isolation = inactive C. Enforce check-in/check-out exclusive access = inactive; Record and save session activity = active D. Enforce check-in/check-out exclusive access = active; Record and save session activity = inactive
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
DRAG-DROP Match the built-in Vault User with the correct definition. Select and Place:
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QUESTION 1
What are the three requirements for all FlexPod Datacenter solutions? (Choose three.)
A. two NetApp storage controllers in a high-availability (HA) pair configuration B. a separate 100 Mbps Ethernet/1 Gbps Ethernet out-of-band management network C. a pair of Fabric Extenders in a redundant configuration D. two Cisco UCS 6200, 6300, or 6400 Series Fabric Interconnects in a redundant configuration E. redundant boot-from-SAN LUN paths
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 2
Your environment currently has a 12-node NetApp cluster serving iSCSI. You need to add at least four more nodes to serve FC to your environment. In this scenario, what should you do?
A. You can safely add up to 4 more storage controllers in the current cluster B. You can safely add up to 6 more storage controllers in the current cluster C. You must create a new cluster with the new storage controllers D. You can safely add up to 12 more storage controllers in the current cluster
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You want to ensure the uniqueness of the Cisco UCS WWNNs and WWPNs in the SAN for a FlexPod solution. In this the situation, Cisco recommends using which WWN prefix for all blocks in a pool?
A. 30:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX B. 40:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX C. 20:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX D. 60:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
A customer wants to use a Cisco Nexus 93180YC-FX switch to support the FC protocol for booting from SAN without having to deploy additional Cisco 900 Series MDS switches in their FlexPod Datacenter configuration. In this scenario, what is required for this solution?
A. The customer must enable the FC license on the 93180YC-FX switch B. The customer must deploy the 93180YC-FX switch as part of a Cisco ACI fabric C. The customer must directly connect the NetApp AFF system to the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects D. The customer must add an expansion FC module to the 93180YC-FX switch
A customer is verifying that they have separation on their FC switch fabric to protect their FlexPod solution from their other storage devices. Which two technologies enable the customer to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. WWPN zoning B. VASN C. IQN igroup D. VLAN
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6
A customer with a FlexPod solution wants to expand their NetApp ONTAP 9.7 switchless cluster. The new hardware must support expansion slots. In addition, they will also upgrade to a 100 Gbps-capable cluster interconnect switch for future growth.
In this scenario, which two additional components will satisfy the requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Nexus 3232C B. Nexus N3132Q-V C. NetApp FAS2720 D. NetApp AFF A400
During a design meeting, a customer states that their goal is to deliver continuous availability across both network and storage during business continuity events. The customer has two data centers that are 80 km apart, and they want the configuration to be as logically unified across both sites as possible.
In this scenario, which FlexPod data protection solution achieves this goal?
A. FlexPod with NetApp Cloud Sync B. FlexPod with NetApp SnapCenter C. FlexPod with NetApp MetroCluster IP D. FlexPod with NetApp FabricPool
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
A customer is performing a server refresh of their FlexPod solution to accommodate business growth. The customer is interested in using Cisco C-Series servers, and supporting multiple 40 Gbps links to each server, upgrading from the existing 10 Gbps links.
Which two VICs support these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS 1480 VIC B. Cisco UCS 1497 VIC C. Cisco UCS 1495 VIC D. Cisco UCS 1440 VIC
You have taken over the management of an existing FlexPod system as part of a new job role. You want to find details of existing support and service contracts available for the system. Which two resources would you use to find this information? (Choose two.)
A. NetApp Interoperability Matrix Tool B. Cisco Device Coverage Checker Tool C. NetApp Support website D. FlexPod.com website
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
A customer wants to replace their Cisco UCS 6248UP with the current Cisco UCS 6454. They are currently using six 16 Gbit uplinks per Fabric Interconnect for FC and do not want to change the speed and number of ports used. In this scenario, what is the minimum number of unified ports that must be configured for FC for a comparable configuration?
A customer has decided to deploy Red Hat OpenShift on a FlexPod solution, based on a published Cisco Validated Design. The customer intends to use the NetApp Trident to attach persistent storage to the customer\\’s containers from the customer\\’s NetApp AFF controllers.
In this scenario, which two storage protocols are supported? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI B. FC C. NFS D. SMB
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12
Which two support account levels are minimally required when you deploy a FlexPod Datacenter solution? (Choose two.)
A. NetApp SupportEdge Expert NBD B. Cisco SmartNet Total Care 24x7x4 C. NetApp SupportEdge Advisor 24x7x4 D. Cisco Solution Support 24x7x4
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 13
You are asked to evaluate SaaS-based monitoring solutions for your FlexPod environment. Other than being SaaSdelivered, selection criteria include full lifecycle management, environment automation, and the ability to monitor third-party storage that is slated for retirement.
In this scenario, which product satisfies the requirements?
A. NetApp Cloud Insights B. NetApp OnCommand Insight C. Cisco UCS Manager D. Cisco Intersight
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QUESTION 1
An administrator would like to review, approve, or reject all the firewall policy changes made by the junior administrators.
How should the Workspace mode be configured on FortiManager?
A. Set to workflow and use the ADOM locking feature B. set to read/write and use the policy locking feature C. Set to normal and use the policy locking feature D. Set to disable and use the policy locking feature
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What are the factory default settings on FortiManager? (Choose three.)
A. Username is admin B. Password is fortinet C. FortiAnalyzer features are disabled D. Reports and Event Monitor panes are enabled E. port1 interface IP address is 192.168.1.99/24
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 3
What configuration setting for FortiGate is part of a device-level database on FortiManager?
A. VIP and IP Pools B. Firewall policies C. Security profiles D. Routing
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
What does a policy package status of Modified indicate?
A. FortiManager is unable to determine the policy package status B. The policy package was never imported after a device was registered on FortiManager C. Policy configuration has been changed on a managed device and changes have not yet been imported into FortiManager D. Policy package configuration has been changed on FortiManager and changes have not yet been installed on the managed device.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
View the following exhibit.
An administrator has created a firewall address object, Training, which is used in the Local-FortiGate policy package. When the install operation is performed, which IP Netmask will be installed on the Local-FortiGate, for the Training firewall address object?
A. 10.0.1.0/24 B. It will create a firewall address group on Local-FortiGate with 192.168.0.1/24 and 10.0.1.0/24 object values C. 192.168.0.1/24 D. Local-FortiGate will automatically choose an IP Network based on its network interface settings.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
View the following exhibit.
When using the Install Config option to install configuration changes to managed FortiGate, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Once initiated, the install process cannot be canceled and changes will be installed on the managed device B. Will does not create new revisions in the revision history C. Installs device-level changes to FortiGate without launching the Install Wizard D. Provides the option to preview configuration changes prior to installing them
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Refer to the following exhibit:
Which of the following statements are true based on this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The same administrator can lock more than one ADOM at the same time B. Ungraceful closed sessions will keep the ADOM in a locked state until the administrator session times out C. Unlocking an ADOM will submit configuration changes automatically to the approval administrator D. Unlocking an ADOM will install configuration automatically on managed devices
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
Which of the following conditions triggers FortiManager to create a new revision history? (Choose two.)
A. When configuration revision is reverted to previous revision in the revision history B. When FortiManager installs device-level changes to a managed device C. When FortiManager is auto-updated with configuration changes made directly on a managed device D. When changes to the device-level database are made on FortiManager
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
An administrator configures a new firewall policy on FortiManager and has not yet pushed the changes to the managed FortiGate.
In which database will the configuration be saved? A. Device-level database B. Revision history database C. ADOM-level database D. Configuration-level database
An administrator wants to delete an address object that is currently referenced in a firewall policy. Which one of the following statements is true?
A. FortiManager will not allow the administrator to delete a referenced address object B. FortiManager will disable the status of the referenced firewall policy C. FortiManager will replace the deleted address object with the none address object in the referenced firewall policy D. FortiManager will replace the deleted address object with all address object in the referenced firewall policy
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
You are using the Quick Install option to install configuration changes on the managed FortiGate. Which two statements correctly describe the result? (Choose two.)
A. It will not create a new revision in the revision history B. It installs device-level changes to FortiGate without launching the Install Wizard C. It cannot be canceled once initiated and changes will be installed on the managed device D. It provides the option to preview configuration changes prior to installing them
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12
An administrator has assigned a global policy package to custom ADOM1. Then the administrator creates a new policy package, Fortinet, in the custom ADOM1. Which statement about the global policy package assignment to the newly created policy package Fortinet is true?
A. When a new policy package is created, it automatically assigns the global policies to the new package. B. When a new policy package is created, you need to assign the global policy package from the global ADOM. C. When a new policy package is created, you need to reapply the global policy package to the ADOM. D. When a new policy package is created, you can select the option to assign the global policies to the new package.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
As a result of enabling FortiAnalyzer features on FortiManager, which of the following statements is true?
A. FortiManager will reboot B. FortiManager will send the logging configuration to the managed devices so the managed devices will start sending logs to FortiManager C. FortiManager will enable ADOMs automatically to collect logs from non-FortiGate devices D. FortiManager can be used only as a logging device.
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
The 19 in VGG19 represents the subordinate sum of the number of layers in the network?
A. Pooling layer B. Convolutional layer C. Input layer D. Fully connected layer
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
In the vehicle detection scene of traffic law enforcement, the penalties for vehicles that violate regulations are rather missed, instead of false alarms, so as not to produce false fines, which of the system\\’s instructions are high?
A. Recall rate B. confidence C. Accuracy D. Correct rate
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which of the following technologies belong to the application of image segmentation?
A. Connected domain segmentation B. Motion segmentation C. Target segmentation D. Threshold division
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 4
What is the correct description of the nature of the probability density function?
A. The integral of the probability density function in positive and negative infinity is 0 B. The value of the probability density function is greater than or equal to 0 C. The value of the probability density function can take any value D. The integral of the probability density function at positive and negative infinity is 1
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
Modifying the H component of the HSV color space will change the image?
A. Brightness B. Saturation C. Hue D. Contrast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
In the Huawei Cloud Face Recognition Service, users can create multiple face libraries without restrictions.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
In natural language processing, the most commonly used deep learning algorithm is CNN, because of its memory function?
A. TRUE B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
The various indicators of the bilinear interpolation method are better than the nearest neighbor interpolation method. The nearest neighbor interpolation method has been eliminated by the bilinear interpolation method in practical applications.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Image recognition tasks can be divided into three levels, according to the abstraction of the processing content, from low to high?
A. Image processing, image analysis, image understanding B. Image analysis, image understanding, image processing C. Image understanding. Image analysis. Image Processing D. Image analysis, image processing, image understanding
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is the correct description of probability and likelihood?
A. If the random variable X follows a certain distribution, the likelihood refers to the possibility of X = x given the parameters. B. If the random variable X follows a certain distribution, the probability refers to the probability of X = x given the parameters C. If the random variable X follows a certain distribution, the likelihood refers to the truthfulness of a group of parameters under the condition of X = x D. If the random variable X follows a certain distribution, the probability refers to the fact that a certain set of parameters has a truth size under the condition of X=x
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11
Through the image algorithm, the foreground, and background of a person who takes a picture taken by an ordinary mobile phones are segmented, and then the () operation is performed on the () part, which can achieve the same effect as an SLR camera.
A. Background, median filtering B. Foreground, mean filtering C. Background, mean filtering D. Foreground, median filter value
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
A deep neural network is a traditional multi-house perception layer with one or more hidden layers.
A. TRUE B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Gamma change is processed by (), histogram equalization is processed by (), and mean filtering is processed by (). (Single choice)
A. Point processing, local processing. Overall handling B. Local processing, point processing, overall processing C. Point processing. Overall processing, partial processing D. Overall processing, point processing, local processing
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following would be a reason for implementing rewrites?
A. Page has been moved to a new URL B. Page has been moved to a new IP address C. Replace vulnerable functions. D. Send connection to secure channel
QUESTION 2
What can an administrator do if a client has been incorrectly Period Blocked?
A. Disconnect the client from the network B. Manually release the IP from the temporary Blacklist C. Nothing, it is not possible to override a Period Block D. Force a new IP address to the client.
QUESTION 3
How does an ADOM differ from a VDOM?
A. ADOMs do not have virtual networking B. ADOMs improve performance by offloading some functions. C. ADOMs only affect specific functions and do not provide full separation as VDOMs do. D. Allows you to have 1 administrator for multiple tenants
QUESTION 4
What capability can FortiWeb add to your Web App that your Web App may or may not already have?
A. Automatic backup and recovery B. High Availability C. HTTP/HTML Form Authentication D. SSL Inspection
QUESTION 5
You are deploying FortiWeb 6.0 in an Amazon Web Services cloud. Which 2 lines of this initial setup via CLI are incorrect? (Choose two.)
A. 6 B. 9 C. 3 D. 2
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is true about Local User Accounts?
A. Must be assigned regardless of any other authentication B. Can be used for Single Sign-On C. Can be used for site publishing D. Best suited for large environments with many users
QUESTION 7
What other considerations must you take into account when configuring Defacement protection
A. Use FortiWeb to block SQL Injections and keep regular backups of the Database B. Also incorporate a FortiADC into your network C. None. FortiWeb completely secures the site against defacement attacks D. Configure the FortiGate to perform Anti-Defacement as well
QUESTION 8
A client is trying to start a session from a page that should normally be accessible only after they have logged in. When a start page rule detects invalid session access, what can FortiWeb do? (Choose three.)
A. Reply with a “403 Forbidden” HTTP error B. Allow the page access but log the violation C. Automatically redirect the client to the login page D. Display an access policy message, then allow the client to continue, redirecting them to their requested page E. Prompt the client to authenticate
QUESTION 9
When generating a protection configuration from an auto-learning report what critical step must you do before generating the final protection configuration?
A. Restart the FortiWeb to clear the caches B. Drill down in the report to correct any false positives. C. Activate the report to create t profile D. Take the FortiWeb offline to apply the profile
QUESTION 10
In Reverse proxy mode, how does FortiWeb handle the traffic that does not match any defined policies?
A. Non-matching traffic is allowed B. non-Matching traffic is held in the buffer C. Non-matching traffic is Denied D. Non-matching traffic is rerouted to FortiGate
QUESTION 11
Under what circumstances would you want to use the temporary uncompress feature of FortiWeb?
A. In the case of compression being done on the FortiWeb, to inspect the content of the compressed file B. In the case of the file being a .MP3 music file C. In the case of compression is done on the webserver, inspect the content of the compressed file. D. In the case of the file being an .MP4 video
QUESTION 12
Which of the following FortiWeb features is part of the mitigation tools against OWASP A4 threats?
A. Sensitive info masking B. Poison Cookie detection C. Session Management D. Brute Force blocking
QUESTION 13
When the FortiWeb is configured in Reverse Proxy mode and the FortiGate is configured as a SNAT device, what IP address will the FortiGate\’s Real Server configuration point at?
A. Virtual Server IP on the FortiGate B. Server\’s real IP C. FortiWeb\’s real IP D. IP Address of the Virtual Server on the FortiWeb
The answer is posted here:
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