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QUESTION 50
You have a file with a resource fork on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. You use the Finder to copy the file from your computer to a local volume that has a FAT32 file system. What happens to the information in the files resource fork when the file is copied to the FAT32 volume?
A. The information in the resource fork is stored in a second data segment of the file.
B. The information in the resource fork is copied to a second file on the new file system.
C. The information in the resource fork is stored as an extended attribute on the new file system.
D. The information in the resource fork is discarded from the copy of the file that resides on the new file system.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
You are about to install Mac OS X v10.6 on a computer whose hard disk is formatted as a single volume. Which statement presents a rational motivation for repartitioning the disk into multiple volumes before performing the installation?
A. You want to manually specify volume block size.
B. You want to avoid using a dedicated swap file system.
C. You want to create a RAID 5 volume that includes the internal hard disk.
D. You want to run both Mac OS X v10.6 and Mac OS X v10.5 on the computer.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
How can you find out which application the Finder will use to open a document?
A. Select the document icon in the Finder, and choose Show Default Application from the File menu.
B. Control-click the document icon in the Finder, and choose Show Application from the shortcut menu.
C. Select the document icon in the Finder, choose Get Info from the File menu, click the “Open with” disclosure triangle in the Info window, and note the application listed in the “Open with” field.
D. Open Finder preferences, and locate your document’s file type in the File Type column of the File Bindings list, then look in the Application column to find the application that the Finder will use to open your document.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which statement describes how Spotlight performs searches on a volume in Mac OS X?
A. The MDResponder background process gets query results from the /Library/Spotlight/.Spotlight-V100.idx file.
B. The .Spotlight-V100 user daemon starts, and passes query results to an invisible cache file at the root level of the volume being searched.
C. The Spotlight process starts a user daemon called .Spotlight-V100, and passes the query results to an invisible cache file at the root level of the volume being searched.
D. The Spotlight daemon maintains an index database called .Spotlight-V100 for each user in their ~/ Library/ folder, and routes query results to the QuickLook server process.
E. The metadata server background process, mds, gets query results from a general index database stored in the /.Spotlight-V100/ folder at the root level of the volume being searched.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 54
A new, 5 MB file named text.rtf was backed up by Time Machine once, but the file has been edited since then, and is now 6 MB. It is about to be backed up by Time Machine again. How will Time Machine handle this backup?
A. Time Machine will copy the 6 MB file to the backup drive, and delete the original backup copy of the file from the backup drive.
B. Time Machine will copy the 6 MB file to the backup drive, and keep both the new backup file and the original backup file on the backup drive.
C. Time Machine will identify the 1 MB of file changes, copy those changes to a new file on the backup drive, and keep both the new backup file and the original backup file.
D. Time Machine will identify the 1 MB of file changes, copy those changes to a new file on the backup drive, then create a 500 KB parity file, and keep all three files: the two new files representing the 1 MB of file changes, and the original backup file.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
How does Time Machine store the data from a Mac OS X v10.6 computer, when backing up to a directly-connected FireWire hard disk?
A. Each file is copied to a folder.
B. Each file is copied to a disk image.
C. Each file is stored as a record in a database.
D. Data from each backup is appended to a CPIO archive.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Where do most applications store their preferences in Mac OS X v10.6?
A. In a preferences database in the /Library/ folder
B. In a preferences database in each ~/Library/ folder
C. In .DS_Store files, at the root level of each ~/ folder
D. In individual files in each ~/Library/Preferences/ folder
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
How does the Finder in Mac OS X v10.6 identify the application it will use to open a file?
A. The Finder queries the Spotlight index.
B. The Finder consults a directory of Spotlight plug-ins provided by each application.
C. The Finder queries the volume catalog stored on the Mac OS Extended file system.
D. The Finder queries Launch Services, which queries a database in /Library/Caches/.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which three folders’ contents are omitted by default from Time Machine Backups in Mac OS X v10.6? Choose three.
A. /etc/
B. /tmp/
C. ~/Downloads/
D. Library/Logs/
E. Library/Caches/
F. /System/Library/
G. ~/Library/Cookies/
Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 59
What Mac OS X v10.6 tool lets you enable system features that can help users with impaired vision?
A. Speech Utility
B. Accessibility Assistant
C. Finder’s Vision preferences
D. Universal Access preferences
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
What function does Rosetta perform in Mac OS X v10.6?
A. Rosetta allows X11 applications to run natively on Mac OS X v10.6.
B. Rosetta allows Cocoa, Carbon, and Java applications to use a common set of services.
C. Rosetta allows Intel-based Macintosh computers to run software written for PowerPC-based Macintosh computers.
D. Rosetta allows PowerPC-based Macintosh computers to run software written for Intel-based Macintosh computers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which procedure can help you identify an application that will run with Rosetta?
A. Control-click the application icon, and choose Display Environment; if the Finder displays the Rosetta icon, the application will run with Rosetta.
B. From the command line, run ls in the directory where the application resides; if the application type is X11, the application will run with Rosetta.
C. Click the application icon, then choose Get Info from the Finder’s File menu; if the Kind field says, “Application (PowerPC)”, the application will run with Rosetta.
D. Click the application icon, then choose Get Info from the Finder’s File menu; if the Application Environment field says, “Rosetta”, the application will run with Rosetta.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
How does Boot Camp Assistant prepare a Mac OS X v10.6 computer for Windows installation?
A. It reformats the target hard disk as a FAT32 volume, then modifies the hard disk to act as a Windows startup disk.
B. It does not modify the target hard disk, but creates a disk image at the root of the target hard disk, and formats the disk image as a Windows volume.
C. It initializes the target hard disk with two partitions, and formats one partition as a Mac OS Extended (Journaled) volume, and the other as a Windows volume.
D. It resizes an existing partition on the target hard disk as needed, then creates a new partition on the hard disk, and formats the new partition as a Windows volume.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
An application has become unresponsive, and will not quit. Which of these procedures is NOT a method for forcing an application to quit?
A. Open Activity Monitor, select the applications name from the list of processes, then click Quit Process.
B. Press Command-Tab until the application is in the foreground, then press Command-Option- Q and select Force Quit.
C. Choose Force Quit from the Apple menu, then select the applications name from the list of applications, and click Force Quit.
D. Hold down both the Option key and the mouse button while hovering over the applications icon in the Dock, and choose Force Quit from the shortcut menu.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
You have both Preview and Adobe Reader installed on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. Both applications can open PDFs. When you double-click a PDF file in the Finder, the file automatically opens in Preview. How can you set the file to open by default in Adobe Reader instead?
A. Edit the users FileBindings.plist file so that Adobe Reader is the value for the key, PDF.
B. Open Finder Preferences, select PDF under File Type, and choose Adobe Reader from the pop-up menu.
C. Hold down the Option key while double-clicking the file icon, and choose Adobe Reader from the dialog.
D. Select the file icon, choose Get Info from the Finders File menu, click the Open with disclosure triangle in the Info window, and choose Adobe Reader from the Open with pop-up menu.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Review the screenshot of an alert dialog, and then answer the question below.
You are using a forecasting application, Crystal Ball, on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer, when you see the alert dialog above. What will happen if you click Reset and relaunch?
A. The applications preferences file is deleted, the application is relaunched, and a new preferences file is created.
B. The applications preferences file is renamed, the application is relaunched, and a new preferences file is created.
C. The applications preferences file is unchanged, the application is relaunched, and a new preferences file is saved in a new location.
D. The applications preferences file is deleted, the application is relaunched with reduced privileges, and a new preferences file is created.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 66
You type the hostname, “www.apple.com” in Safari’s address bar. If TCP/IP is configured manually, which DNS name server does your Mac OS X v10.6 computer query to identify the IP address that maps to that host?
A. The DNS name server assigned to the apple.com domain by ICANN.
B. Any DNS name server that resides on the Mac OS X v10.6 computer’s local subnet.
C. Any DNS name server on the same network router as the Mac OS X v10.6 computer.
D. A DNS name server specified in the Mac OS X v10.6 computer’s System Preferences.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
Which information must you know about a corporate VPN server before configuring the VPN software on a user’s computer to access the corporate network?
A. If the corporate VPN server supports PPPoE.
B. If the corporate VPN server supports DNSsec.
C. If the corporate VPN server supports L2TP or PPTP.
D. Which network protocols will be encrypted by the corporate VPN.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 68
Which IP address is a Mac OS X computer most likely to self-assign if no DHCP services are available on the network?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 169.254.100.100
C. 172.16.100.100
D. 192.168.100.100
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 69
Which of these Network Utility modules can you use to determine whether a host at 10.37.129.2 on your LAN is responsive?
A. Ping
B. Whois
C. Finger
D. Lookup
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
Review the screenshot of a Network preferences pane, and then answer the question below.
What is the range of IP addresses in this computer’s local network?
A. 10.1.0.0 to 10.1.255.255
B. 10.1.5.0 to 10.1.5.255
C. 10.1.5.0 to 10.1.7.255
D. 10.1.5.1 to 10.1.5.256
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 71
Review the screenshot of part of a Network Utility window, and then answer the question below.
Which statement below accurately interprets the Network Utility Lookup results shown above?
A. The DNS server for mainserver.pretendco.com is pretendco.com.
B. A reverse lookup of 10.1.0.1 returns the name mainserver.pretendco.com.
C. A reverse lookup of mainserver.pretendco.com returns the IP address 10.1.0.1.
D. A forward lookup of mainserver.pretendco.com returns the IP address 10.1.0.1.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
A Mac OS X v10.6 client computer is connected to both an Ethernet and an AirPort network. How do you specify which interface the computer will use to access the Internet?
A. Use Internet Connect to select the preferred interface, and disable the other interface(s).
B. Use the Set Service Order action to move the preferred interface to the top of the Service Order list.
C. Assign a public IP address to the preferred interface, and a private IP address to the other interface(s).
D. Enter a DNS configuration for the preferred interface, and delete the DNS configuration for the other interface(s).
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
You cannot connect to a web server from your Mac OS X v10.6 computer. How can Traceroute help you troubleshoot this issue?
A. Traceroute can determine if the web server is configured correctly.
B. Traceroute can determine if the DNS server is configured correctly.
C. Traceroute can determine if the server that the web service is running on has a firewall.
D. Traceroute can determine if each of the routers between your computer and the web server are
responsive. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 74 You want to configure a Mac OS X v10.6 computer to authenticate users using account information stored on an Active Directory server. On the Mac OS X v10.6 computer, where do you enter the information it needs in order to bind to the Active Directory server?
A. In the Open Directory plug-in the Directory Servers pane of Directory Utility
B. In the Open Directory tab of the pane that appears when you press the Advanced button in Network preferences
C. In the Active Directory tab of the pane that appears when you press the Advanced button in Network preferences
D. In the dialog that appears when you press the Network Account Server: Join button in Accounts preferences’ Login Options pane
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 75
Which of these can you use to determine whether there is network connectivity between your computer and a web server on the Internet?
A. Whois
B. Finger
C. Lookup
D. Traceroute
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 76
Which tool should you use to manually configure 100BASE-TX Ethernet on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer?
A. Console
B. Network Utility
C. Internet Connect
D. Network preferences
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 77
Web pages will not load on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. Which three troubleshooting steps can help you
identify the cause?
Choose three – partial credit possible.
A. Verify network settings in Network preferences.
B. Confirm network connectivity using Internet Connect.
C. Confirm network connectivity using Network Diagnostics.
D. Test direct IP connectivity using Network Utilitys Ping command.
E. Confirm network activity using the Activity Report in Network Monitor.
F. Verify the presence of DNS servers on the network using Network Utilitys DNS Scan command.
Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 78
In Mac OS X, what is authentication?
A. The process of accessing a computer over a network connection.
B. The process in which entities present their credentials to a computer to prove their identity.
C. The process in which a server determines the access privileges a specific user has to resources on a computer or network.
D. The process in which applications present their credentials to determine which files they can read and where they can write files.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which of these is the result of an authorization denial?
A. The login window shakes after a user enters an incorrect password.
B. Finder displays an insufficient access privileges dialog when you try to open a folder.
C. Connect To Server displays an invalid password dialog when you try to connect to a share point.
D. Finder displays a dialog that says, “The disk ‘Data’ is in use and could not be ejected” when you try to eject a CD.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
Which statement is true of Kerberos?
A. Kerberos requires LDAP.
B. Kerberos supports single sign-on.
C. Kerberos requires service discovery.
D. Kerberos sends your user name and password to each server you access.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
When you enable File Sharing in the Sharing preferences on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer, which protocol
(s)
is (are) enabled by default? Choose all that apply.
A.
AFP
B.
NFS
C.
SMB
D.
FTP
E.
AFP and FTP
F.
AFP and SMB
G.
FTP and SMB
H.
NFS and FTP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
You have enabled file sharing over SMB on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer. Before a user can authenticate via SMB with a local account on this computer, which additional step must you complete?
A. In Sharing preferences, add the user’s home folder as an SMB share point.
B. In Accounts preferences, change the user’s account type from Standard to Sharing.
C. In Sharing preferences, enable SMB sharing for the user account and enter the user’s account password.
D. In Directory Utility, enable new hash types for all user accounts, then reset the user’s account password in Accounts preferences.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
Which items in a Mac OS X v10.6 file system are accessible to any guest user who connects to the computer via SMB?
A. The contents of /System/
B. The contents of /Users/Shared/
C. The home folder of all standard users on the system
D. The Public folder of all standard and admin users on the system
E. The Drop Box folder of all standard and admin users on the system
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
You enable Stealth Mode on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer’s firewall. How does this affect the computer’s behavior?
A. The computer will not respond to incoming connection requests.
B. The computer will not respond to diagnostic probes such as ping.
C. The computer will not register any services that are offered via Bonjour.
D. The computer will not allow outgoing connections for non-approved applications.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Authorization verifies ________.
A. a file’s creator and type
B. a user’s name and password
C. a resources availability to a user account
D. a computer’s membership in a computer list
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 51
Which Switch 7700 command shows the prority used for input/output packet operations?
A. display priority-trust
B. display qos-interface all
C. display qos-interface traffic-priority
D. display qos-interface traffic-statistics
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
Which three can be used to download a configuration fole on the Switch 7700? (Choose three)
A. Use IP PROTOCOL
B. Use FTP protocol
C. Use TFTP protocol
D. Use HTTP protocol
E. Use XMODEM protocol
F. Use the system “dump” command
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 53
Which two are syslog features/ functions on the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Responsible for all system information on output
B. By default, the syslog automatically clears its file every 30 days
C. Is divided into eight levels, which can be filtered based on a level
D. Serves as an information center of the system’s software modules
E. Can be dumped to aconsole, monitor, SQL database or ASCII text file
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 54
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions on the Switch 7700? (Choose four)
A. The switch supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Link Aggregation ports must be consecutive switch ports
C. Link Aggregation ports should be set to TRUNK or HYBRID
D. Use the “display interface” command to see all ports within a group
E. Use the “display link-aggregation” command to see all ports within a group
F. A Link Aggregation port should be set to “access” if more than one VLAN is supported on the link
Correct Answer: BCDF QUESTION 55
Which two Switch Fabric Engine LED conditions indicate there is a problem with the Switch 7700? (Choose two)
A. ALMLED is off
B. ALMLED is blinking
C. RUN LED is solid green
D. RUN LED is blinking green
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 56
When two PCs on the same Virtual LAN (VLAN) are unable to communicate with each other, which three procedures will help troubleshoot the Layer 2 Data Link issue? (Choose three)
A. Flush the IP routing table
B. Check the VLAN setting for each port
C. Check the LED status on each of the ports
D. Clear and reset the Spanning Tree Protocol tables
E. Flush the Address Resolution Protocol table
F. Check the bridge forwarding table to ensure the IP/MAC address assignment is correct
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 57
Which four are hardware features/functions of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Full/half duplex on all ports
B. Four traffic queues per port
C. Store and forward switching
D. GBIC interface for flexible cabling
E. 12,000MAC addresses per unit, 64 permanent
F. Smart auto-sensing across all multi-speed copper ports
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 58
Which four are switch configuration features of the Superstack 3 switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Configuration information is stored in a read-only file
B. Switch configuration can be stored or restored from a remote server
C. Up to three software images can be saved in the switch’s flash memory
D. The switch must be reset to the factory default before a configuration can be saved
E. Only a manager or security access level user can perform save or restor operations
F. All switch information is saved to the configuration file i.e, passwords, IP addresses, etc..
G. During the software upgrade the new image will always overwrite the standby image
H. The configuration of the Distributed Fabric is saved and restored with eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)
Correct Answer: ABH
QUESTION 59
XRN Technology v2.0 allows network architects to scale bandwidth capacity.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 47
Which three are important considerations when configuring/calling a remote NBX phone connected via a cable modem or DSL link? (Choose three.)
A. Enable silence suppression and low bandwidth options in the NBX
B. Fixed or DHCP IP address can be assigned to remote NBX phones
C. An NBX gateway is required to support remote users without an NBX
D. All phone calls between the central and remote sites use Layer 2 IP packets
E. Network Address Translation (NAT) should be configured for the central site but NAT should not be used at the remote site
F. The Network Call Processor (NCP) can provide the remote phone an IP address for the duration of a call to a remote user
G. The Network Call Processor (NCP) can be configured to provide the local phone an IP address for the duration of a call to a remote user
Correct Answer: ABG QUESTION 48
Which three are NBX IP licensing features or requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Every NBX device requires a fixed IP address
B. A DHCP server is required to use IP On-the-Fly
C. IP On-the-Fly is included with all new NBX base systems
D. Companies can upgrade their license from IP On-the-Fly to Standard IP
E. IP addresses can be supplied via static or DCHP addressing when using Standard IP
F. An NBX phone can operate as a Layer 3 “IP Phone” on a per-call basis when using IP-on-the-Fly
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 49
Which three bandwidth reduction methods are supported by the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)
B. Adaptive Transform Encoding (ATE)
C. ITU-T G.723 bandwidth compression
D. ITU-T G.729 bandwidth compression
E. Silence suppression on a per-device basis only
F. Adaptive Differential Pulse Code Modulation (ADPCM)
G. Silence suppression on a system-wide or per-device basis
Correct Answer: DFG
QUESTION 50
Which four are requirements for using Virtual Tie Lines (VTL) with an NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. VTL license is required for each participating NCP
B. Each VTL counts as one NBX device for device limit
C. Each NBX must have its own Network Call Processor (NCP)
D. VTLs require a T1 or E1 Digital Line Card in each NBX system
E. A maximum of 96 VTLs are supported on any one NBX system
F. VTL requires either IP On-the-Fly or Standard IP license for each NBX system
G. VTLs maintain Quality of Service (QoS) and provide end-to-end IP-ToS tagging
Correct Answer: ACFG
QUESTION 51
Which three are requirements for conference call support across Virtual Tie Lines (VTL)? (Choose three.)
A. Requires Standard IP license for each participating NBX system
B. Must use same range of multicast addresses on all NBX systems
C. Internet Gateway Multicast Protocol (IGMP) addresses must be defined
D. WAN routers must support Internet Gateway Multicast Protocol (IGMP)
E. Supports functions such as: Music on Hold (MOH) and internal page initiation
F. Requires Network Address Translation (NAT) configuration on Virtual Tie Lines
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 52
Inbound NBX Computer Telephony Integration (CTI) calls support directory dialing and on-screen dialing and call processing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
Which four are features/requirements of the NBX Desktop Call Assistant (DCA) application? (Choose four.)
A. Requires Microsoft Windows 2000 or Windows XP
B. Requires one 3Com SKU and license per NBX system
C. Supports point and click dialing to any phone in the user’s directory
D. Provides personal inbound/outbound call logs with caller ID information
E. Uses Microsoft’s Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) to manage calls
F. Computer with NBXTSP software must have a physical connection to an NBX phone
G. Users can manage all their calls from a single on-screen computer interface, for example, call transfer, conferencing, call park
Correct Answer: CDEG
QUESTION 54
What is Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) Route Point?
A. An NBX feature enabled in the System / TAPI Setup menu that provides intelligent Layer 3 IP routing for TAPI messages on a multi-system, company-wide bases
B. Virtual Network Call Processor (NCP) device or third party application that monitors and maps incoming calls, allowing the NCP to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
C. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which outbound calls can be mapped, allowing 3rd party applications to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
D. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which inbound calls can be mapped for a 3rd party application that monitors the route point and makes intelligent call route decisions
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Which four steps should be performed when installing the NBX pcXset application? (Choose four.)
A. Select country and language
B. Check that the pcXset licenses are installed using NetSet
C. Check and install Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly on the NBX system
D. Do an audio and microphone test from the pcXset Configuration Wizard
E. Create or update the Dial Plan to insure calls are properly routed to remote sites
F. Configure the IP and MAC address of the NCP associated with the pcXset application
Correct Answer: ABDF
QUESTION 56
Which three are features/requirements for using Unified Messaging for an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Requires NBX pcXset client software
B. Can use the computer’s default media player to listen to a message
C. APX messaging service functionality is provided by IMAP client on the NBX NCP
D. IMAP4 enabled clients Notes
E. Users can use an IMAP4 compliant application to access and manage voice messages on a computer
F. Requires a Windows-based PC with a minimum of 64MB RAM, full-duplex sound card, a microphone and headset
Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 57
Which three does the Call Report (CDR) software provide for calls made on an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Track all call information
B. Track all incoming and outgoing PSTN calls
C. Track all internal calls within NBX system
D. Provides customer and department chargeback accounting
E. Track all incoming and outgoing attempted and/or abandoned calls
F. Collects telephone usage information on a per user / per call basis
G. Supports “Snap-in” modules for Microsoft Excel and Lotus 123 for integrated account reporting
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 58
Which four are Call Report (CDR) configuration options for an NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. Default setting is Disabled
B. Scramble the last digits for security
C. Determine if trunk-to-trunk calls are recorded
D. Choose how often a new tracking file will be created
E. Select what data fields will be tracked, for example, time of call, length, etc.
F. Compatibility format option, for example, Microsoft Excel or Lotus 123 formatting
G. Determine how long the tracking information will be retained before it is purged by the system
Correct Answer: ABCG
QUESTION 59
How does the NBX administrator download the Event Log file for viewing?
A. Reports / Event Log – Download Log button
B. Downloads / Event Log – choose file name and Download Logs button
C. Click on Download Logs button
D. Reports / System Data / Event Log – choose file name and Download Logs button
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
Which three changes require an NBX system reboot? (Choose three.)
A. New software version
B. Removing an interface card from an NBX chassis
C. Change to NCP information, for example, IP address, default gateway
D. Change to network protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
E. Change to Digital Line Card protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
F. Adding any new interface card to the NBX chassis, for example, Digital Line Card, Hub card, etc.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 61
A NBX Software license upgrade provides access to the specific license purchased and every prior software release.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Which four are NBX configuration backup/restore attributes? (Choose four.)
A. By default, NBX voice mail messages are backed up
B. A Backup should be done after each major configuration change
C. By default, the backup is stored to the NBX hard disk
D. To run a backup choose: System Configuration / Manage Data and click Backup Database button
E. Data included in a backup: configuration database, Auto Attendant prompts, user voice mail greetings, and optionally, all voice mail messages
F. To restore the configuration information choose: Operations/ Manage Data then select Browse to locate the configuration file and Click Restore
G. To restore an individual user’s voice messages choose: Operations/ Manage Data input the users extension and click Restore Voice Mail Messages
Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 63
Which four components are included with the NBX V3000 IP Telephony system? (Choose four.)
A. One Analog FXS port
B. 32 MB memory module
C. Four Analog FXO ports
D. 20 GB system disk drive
E. Two T1/E1 Digital Line ports
F. Network Call Processor (NCP)
G. Two 10/100 Mbps Ethernet LAN ports
Correct Answer: ACDF
QUESTION 64
What Power Status state indicates the NBX V3000 is currently booting?
A. Solid red
B. Solid green
C. Blinking red
D. Blinking green
E. Blinking yellow
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
What software version(s) is currently supported by the NBX V3000?
A. NBX R4.3
B. NBX R4.4
C. NBX R4.x
D. Same software versions as the NBX 100
E. Same software versions as the SuperStack 3 NBX
F. Same software versions as both the NBX 100 and SuperStack 3 NBX
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 47
Match each Radio Frequency (RF) propagation issue with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 48
Choose the three features supported by the 11g 54Mbps Wireless LAN Indoor Building-to-Building Bridge. (Choose three.)
A. Point-to-point or point-to-multipoint configurations
B. Multiple antenna options
C. Up to 108 Mbps in turbo mode
D. Wireless Distribution System (WDS) Bridging
E. Weatherproof enclosure
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 49
Which antenna type is typically used indoors to provide large coverage areas within a building?
A. Patch panel or parabolic antenna
B. Dipole antenna
C. Omnipole antenna
D. Yagi or semi-directional antenna
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which three are provided by the 3Com Wireless LAN Site Survey V2.x for discovered access points (APs)? (Choose three.)
A. Type of authentication and encryption activated on the APs
B. APs available in your area
C. VLAN ID of each AP
D. IP address of each AP
E. Channel used by each AP
F. Radio type for each AP, i.e., 802.1a/b/g
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 51
What is the first step a wireless station performs as it attempts to access a wireless network?
A. Beaconing
B. Active or passive scanning
C. Roaming and reassociation
D. Authentication
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
To configure encryption on an access point (AP) that is part of a Wireless Distribution System (WDS), you must configure each AP separately, using a wired-Ethernet connected computer.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
The 3Com Wireless LAN Controller WX4400 provides high-bandwidth, centralized control for up to 144 directly attached managed access points (MAPs).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
To use IEEE 802.1X Network Login for the wireless LAN (WLAN), you must configure both the 3Com access point (AP) and wireless LAN NIC for 802.1X authentication.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
Which security protocol uses a hashed password for authentication rather than using a less secure encrypted password?
A. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 (EAP-MD5)
B. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
C. 3Com Dynamic Security Link
D. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
What is the process for determining the best installation design of a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Facility walk-through
B. WLAN analyzer
C. Site survey
D. Network discovery
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
You have launched the 3Com Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) software to configure your Wireless LAN Access Point 8750. When you see the access point (AP) on your PC screen, it has an exclamation point located to the left of the AP. What is the significance of the exclamation point?
A. The AP is still booting up
B. The AP does not have an IP address assigned or is in a different subnet from your PC
C. The AP has had a device failure and is non-operational
D. The AP is configured as a Managed Access Point (MAP)
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 58
Which best describes the purpose of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) “upload” command?
A. To perform an error check on a configuration file, then load the file from a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/ Controller to the 3WXM
B. To deploy a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. To load a configuration file from a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller into 3WXM, perform an error check on the file and place the unit into the network plan
D. To perform an error check on a configuration file, then deploy the file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
What is dynamic rate shifting on Wireless LAN (WLAN) products?
A. Wireless devices that support packet bursting to increase throughput by sending more frames per a given time period
B. Automatic Turbo mode with up to 108 Mbps
C. Ability to dynamically support both IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g speeds
D. Wireless devices that automatically change the connection speed based on the quality of the signal
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 60
What is the estimated Mbps speed achieved with an IEEE 802.11a access point at the maximum distance of 50 meters (164 feet)?
A. 12 Mbps
B. 6 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 36 Mbps
E. 54 Mbps
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 61
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QUESTION 50
Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on SecurePlatform from the command line?
A. cpconfig
B. ifconfig
C. dhcp_cfg
D. sysconfig
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties and testing. He managed to lock himself out of his account. How can you unlock this account?
A. Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/.
B. Type fwm lock_admin -u <account name> from the Security Management Server command line.
C. Type fwm unlock_admin -u from the Security Gateway command line.
D. Type fwm unlock_admin from the Security Management Server command line.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties. He managed to lock all administrators out of their accounts. How should you unlock these accounts?
A. Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.
B. Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/.
C. Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the Security Management Server command line.
D. Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account; right-click on each administrator object and select unlock.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
You are the Security Administrator for ABC-Corp. A Check Point Firewall is installed and in use on SecurePlatform. You are concerned that the system might not be retaining your entries for the interfaces and routing configuration. You would like to verify your entries in the corresponding file(s) on SecurePlatform. Where can you view them? Give the BEST answer.
A. /etc/conf/route.C
B. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-ethx
C. /etc/sysconfig/netconf.C
D. /etc/sysconfig/network
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
When using SecurePlatform, it might be necessary to temporarily change the MAC address of the interface eth 0 to 00:0C:29:12:34:56. After restarting the network the old MAC address should be active. How do you configure this change?
A. Edit the file /etc/sysconfig/netconf.C and put the new MAC address in the field
B. As expert user, issue these commands: # IP link set eth0 down # IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56 # IP link set eth0 up
C. Open the WebUI, select Network > Connections > eth0. Place the new MAC address in the field Physical Address, and press Apply to save the settings.
D. As expert user, issue the command: # IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The Firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have its own Policy Package. These rules must be installed on this machine and not on the Internet Firewall. How can this be accomplished?
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a Firewall are defined by the selection in the Rule Base row Install On.
B. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point Firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install on Target.
C. When selecting the correct Firewall in each line of the Rule Base row Install On, only this Firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install on Target.
D. In the menu of SmartDashboard, go to Policy > Policy Installation Targets and select the correct firewall via Specific Targets.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Where is the IPSO Boot Manager physically located on an IP Appliance?
A. On the platform’s BIOS
B. In the directory /nvram
C. On an external jump drive
D. On built-in compact Flash memory
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
How is wear on the flash storage device mitigated on diskless appliance platforms?
A. The external PCMCIA-based flash extension has the swap file mapped to it, allowing easy replacement.
B. A RAM drive reduces the swap file thrashing which causes fast wear on the device.
C. Issue FW-1 bases its package structure on the Security Management Server, dynamically loading when the firewall is booted.
D. PRAM flash devices are used, eliminating the longevity.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Your R76 primary Security Management Server is installed on GAiA. You plan to schedule the Security Management Server to run fw logswitch automatically every 48 hours. How do you create this schedule?
A. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Select that time object’s Global Properties > Logs and Masters window, to schedule a logswitch.
B. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the primary Security Management Server object’s Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.
C. On a SecurePlatform Security Management Server, this can only be accomplished by configuring the command fw logswitch via the cron utility.
D. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the Security Gateway object’s Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Which of the following methods will provide the most complete backup of an R75 configuration?
A. Execute command upgrade_export
B. Database Revision Control
C. Policy Package Management
D. Copying the directories $FWDIR\conf and $CPDIR\conf to another server
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which of the following commands can provide the most complete restoration of a R76 configuration?
A. cpinfo -recover
B. fwm dbimport -p <export file>
C. upgrade_import
D. cpconfig
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
When restoring R76 using the command upgrade_import, which of the following items are NOT restored?
A. Licenses
B. SIC Certificates
C. Global properties
D. Route tables
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
Your organization’s disaster recovery plan needs an update to the backup and restore section to reap the new distributed R76 installation benefits. Your plan must meet the following required and desired objectives:
Required ObjectivE.
The Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than
every 24 hours.
Desired ObjectivE.
The R76 components that enforce the Security Policies should be backed up at
least once a week.
Desired ObjectivE.
Back up R76 logs at least once a week.
Your disaster recovery plan is as follows:
-Use the cron utility to run the command upgrade_export each night on the Security Management Servers.
–
Configure the organization’s routine back up software to back up the files created by the Checkpoint 156-215.13 Exam BrainDumps.com 25 command upgrade_export.
–
Configure the GAiA back up utility to back up the Security Gateways every Saturday night.
-Use the cron utility to run the command upgrade_export each Saturday night on the log servers.
–
Configure an automatic, nightly logswitch.
–
Configure the organization’s routine back up software to back up the switched logs every night.
Upon evaluation, your plan:
A. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective.
B. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective.
C. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives.
D. Does not meet the required objective.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
Your company is running Security Management Server R76 on GAiA, which has been migrated through each version starting from Check Point 4.1. How do you add a new administrator account?
A. Using cpconfig on the Security Management Server, choose Administrators
B. Using SmartDashboard, under Users, select Add New Administrator
C. Using the Web console on SecurePlatform under Product configuration, select Administrators
D. Using SmartDashboard or cpconfig
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
Peter is your new Security Administrator. On his first working day, he is very nervous and enters the wrong password three times. His account is locked. What can be done to unlock Peter’s account? Give the BEST answer.
A. It is not possible to unlock Peter’s account. You have to install the firewall once again or abstain
B. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Gateway.
C. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm lock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server
D. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
Where can you find the Check Point’s SNMP MIB file?
A. $CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mib
B. There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.
C. $FWDIR/conf/snmp.mib
D. It is obtained only by request from the TAC.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running GAiA. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout?
A. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.
B. Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.
C. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.
D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinfo.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
Many companies have defined more than one administrator. To increase security, only one administrator should be able to install a Rule Base on a specific Firewall. How do you configure this?
A. Define a permission profile in SmartDashboard with read/write privileges, but restrict it to all other firewalls by placing them in the Policy Targets field. Then, an administrator with this permission profile cannot install a policy on any Firewall not listed here.
B. Put the one administrator in an Administrator group and configure this group in the specific Firewall object in Advanced > Permission to Install.
C. Right-click on the object representing the specific administrator, and select that Firewall in Policy Targets.
D. In the object General Properties representing the specific Firewall, go to the Software Blades product list and select Firewall. Right-click in the menu, select Administrator to Install to define only this administrator.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
What is the officially accepted diagnostic tool for IP Appliance Support?
A. ipsoinfo
B. cpinfo
C. uag-diag
D. CST
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
ALL of the following options are provided by the SecurePlatform sysconfig utility, EXCEPT:
A. Export setup
B. Time & Date
C. DHCP Server configuration
D. GUI Clients
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Which of the following options is available with the SecurePlatform cpconfig utility?
A. Time & Date
B. GUI Clients
C. DHCP Server configuration
D. Export Setup
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 71
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. cpstat – date.cpstat.txt
B. fw cpinfo
C. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
D. diag
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
A. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.
B. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.
C. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.
D. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a SecurePlatform Security Gateway.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73
How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A. fw delete all.all@localhost
B. fw unload policy
C. fwm unloadlocal
D. fw unloadlocal
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 74
How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?
A. clish -c show routing active enable
B. ipsofwd list
C. cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
Which command allows you to view the contents of an R76 table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>
B. fw tab -t <tablename>
C. fw tab -x <tablename>
D. fw tab -a <tablename>
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R76 configuration report?
A. infoCP
B. cpinfo
C. infoview
D. fw cpinfo
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R76?
A. fw merge
B. fw tab -u
C. fw shutdown
D. fwm policy_print <policyname>
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a platform using GAiA. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used in Expert Mode to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.
A. eth_set
B. mii_tool
C. ifconfig -a
D. ethtool
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which command enables IP forwarding on IPSO?
A. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
B. ipsofwd on admin
C. echo 0 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. clish -c set routing active enable
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
When you change an implicit rule’s order from Last to First in Global Properties, how do you make the change take effect?
A. Run fw fetch from the Security Gateway.
B. Select Install Database from the Policy menu.
C. Reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Select Save from the File menu.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 81
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