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QUESTION 49
You have created a storage pool with three LUNs, each on a separate Xserve RAID controller. Assume that each RAID controller has a bandwidth of 200 MB/s (half-duplex). What is the theoretical bandwidth (half-duplex) of this storage pool?
A. 66 MB/s
B. 200 MB/s
C. 300 MB/s
D. 600 MB/s
E. 900 MB/s

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
In Xsan, you can set up an affinity between a folder and a ____________.
A. volume
B. metadata controller
C. hard disk
D. storage pool

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
You have taken your primary metadata controller down for maintenance, and your backup controller has taken over its role. After bringing your original controller back online, how do you cause it to resume its role as primary metadata controller for the SAN?
A. Just turn it on. It will automatically retake its position as primary controller.
B. Turn it on, and then use cvadmin to manually fail the volumes on the backup controller.
C. Turn it on, and then use Xsan Admin to manually reassign it as primary controller.
D. Turn it on, use Xsan Admin to reassign its failover priority to “high,” and then restart it.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
In a disk-to-disk-to-tape backup solution, the tape is intended to store ___________.
A. archives and files not needed immediately
B. data from folders with no affinity
C. data from Xsan volumes over 16TB in size
D. metadata and journal data

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Fibre Channel switched fabrics use ___-bit addresses.
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Press Exhibit to view the image. In the SAN topology shown in the exhibit, ________.
A. the metadata traffic is isolated from other Ethernet traffic
B. the SAN can support three concurrent streams of uncompressed 10-bit HD Video
C. one of the clients should be configured as a metadata controller to enable failover
D. the clients must be receiving DHCP services from the active controller

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Press Exhibit to view the image. In the image shown in the exhibit, which tab would you click on to get a window that allows you to add LUNs to Storage Pools in Xsan Admin.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which storage pool configuration will enhance the performance of the SAN?
A. Each volume contains one storage pool.
B. Each volume contains many storage pools.
C. Data is striped over many RAID controllers.
D. Data is striped over a single RAID controller.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 57
In order to assign affinities within a volume using Xsan Admin, the volume must be ________.
A. mounted on the current metadata controller
B. dismounted from the current metadata controller
C. mounted on at least one client
D. dismounted from all clients

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
In which file is the metadata priority setting (High, Medium, Low) stored?
A. priority.plist
B. role.plist
C. mdc.plist
D. acfs.plist

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Which utility is used to gather information about the Apple Fibre Channel PCI-X card (when installed in a computer)?
A. Activity Monitor
B. Network Utility
C. NetInfo Manager
D. Fibre Channel Utility

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
An HBA is _____________.
A. a type of connector used in Fibre Channel installations
B. a type of cable used in Fibre Channel fabrics
C. a command sent by the metadata controller to halt bus access by clients
D. an interface card that allows a computer to connect to a Fibre Channel network

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
A switching hub ____________.
A. creates a fabric
B. uses FC-AL protocol
C. uses F-Ports to connect to nodes
D. is a passive connection between nodes

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which tool is used to create LUNs on an Xserve RAID?
A. Disk Utility
B. Xsan Admin
C. Server Admin
D. RAID Admin

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
In a fabric, FC-IDs are resolved to WWNs by ____________.
A. the SFP
B. the switch
C. the N_Ports
D. the metadata controller

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
If you create multiple storage pools in a shared volume but do not configure them with affinities, what determines which pool data is written to?
A. allocation strategy
B. RAID level of the LUNs
C. port mapping
D. LUN mapping
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
When setting up user quotas in Xsan, you should ensure that each user account _____________.
A. has a unique UID
B. resides on an Open Directory LDAP server
C. has disk quotas enabled in Workgroup Manager
D. is a member of the xsanadmin group

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Which is a possible problem in an Xsan installation that does not use Directory Services?
A. UID duplication might enable unauthorized access to files.
B. Users cannot set group permissions for files saved on Xsan volumes.
C. Xsan data throughput is slower without Directory Services.
D. Group membership cannot be assigned using Finder.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
In simple Fibre Channel installations, why is a hub preferable to a physically-cabled loop?
A. A hub allows more than one pair of devices to communicate at the same time.
B. A hub allows dynamic addressing of storage.
C. A hub can automatically bypass a broken port.
D. A hub turns a loop into a fabric.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 72
The Call Home feature provides what type of notification when critical events occur?
A. SNMP
B. syslog
C. PBX
D. e-mail

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
As which two options can an RMON event manifest itself? (Choose two.)
A. log entry
B. email message
C. SNMP trap
D. script action
E. alarm

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
You have connected the Cisco MDS 9222i Switch to the existing Brocade SAN fabric which consists of five 32-port Brocade switches. You have selected interoperability mode 3, created VSAN 10 that operates in that interoperability mode, and configured the fc1/1 interface that is connected to the Brocade as an E_port. The connectivity is still broken. Which option should you apply to fix the connectivity?
A. Change the interoperability mode to 0.
B. Restart the Brocade switch for the interoperability mode to work.
C. Set BB_credits on the MDS 9222i fc1/1 interface to 16.
D. Deploy static DomainID using values from 1 to 31. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 32 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
With regards to FCIP encapsulation, which statement is true?
A. The Fibre Channel frame is encapsulated into an IP packet.
B. The Fibre Channel frame is encapsulated into an MPLS packet.
C. The Fibre Channel frame is encapsulated into an Ethernet frame.
D. The Fibre Channel frame is encapsulated into an iSCSI packet.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
When large Fibre Channel frames must be sent from an MSM 18/4 module at the central site to the remote offices, what is the consequence of disabling the Path MTU Discovery and using the default Ethernet MTU?
A. Packet shaping becomes effective.
B. Minimum retransmission interval is prolonged.
C. Jumbo frames are enabled.
D. Large Fibre Channel frames are fragmented.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Refer to the exhibit. The customer’s ISL links are flapping and seem to go down every few days. While troubleshooting the problem, they determine that the speed of failover to the redundant path is taking too long. What is the recommended solution to the problem, involving turning on a feature?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 33 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

A. use port tracking
B. disable the flapping ISL
C. use port channel
D. adjust FSPF link costs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTIONS

QUESTION 78
A customer has some performance problems in their SAN environment. They want to use a Cisco MDS 9000 Port Analyzer Adapter to connect to the Cisco MDS Switch to troubleshoot the performance problems. Which two options need to be configured on the MDS Switch? (Choose two.)
A. Put the port into the proper zone that will be monitored.
B. Set the port speed to the value corresponding with the PAA setting.
C. Put the port in SD port mode.
D. Configure any port channel necessary.
E. Turn off flow control

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 34 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
QUESTION 79
What must be changed when connecting the Cisco MDS Switch to an existing McData switch using interoperability mode 4?
A. The VSAN 1 must be used.
B. The MDS sWWN must be configured using McData OUI.
C. The fcdomain must be disruptively restarted.
D. Source, destinction, and exchange ID load balancing must be used.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Refer to the exhibit.

The customer connects two switches or which the E_port does not come up. Which command should the administrator use resolve the problem?
A. mds(config)# fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 1 mds(config)# fcdomain restart disruptive vsan 1
B. mds(config)# fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 1 mds(config)# fcdomain restart vsan 1
C. mds(config-vsan-db)# fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 1 mds(config-vsan-db)# fcdomain restart disruptive vsan 1
D. mds(config-vsan-db)# fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 1 mds(config-vsan-db)# fcdomain restart vsan 1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
QUESTION 81
What would you do to connect the Nexus 5000 switch to the existing Fibre Channel SAN, where the Brocade switch with core PID = 0 is used, without disruption to the existing network?
A. Use interoperability mode 2 on the Nexus 5000.
B. Use standard interoperability mode 0 on both switches.
C. Connect the Brocade switch through an MDS with VSANs deployed.
D. Deploy VSANs and inter-VSAN routing on the Nexus 5000.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
You have connected your Cisco MDS 9508 Switch to an existing McData SAN fabric using VSAN 100. You have changed the sWWN using McData OUI, deployed static DomainID 10, and changed the VSAN 10 interoperability mode to 4. The Cisco MDS is having a connectivity problem with the McData-based fabric. Why is there no connectivity?
A. Only VSAN 1 can be used to connect to McData switches.
B. You have forgotten to unsuspend VSAN 100.
C. To use interoperability mode 4, you need to reset the McData switch.
D. The zoning must be done using the sWWN and interface ID.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 36 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Which option should you deploy to prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?
A. IPsec
B. fabric binding
C. FC-SP
D. SME

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 21
Which of the following is a valid precaution you should take while working inside an I Mac (24-inch Late 2006) system that is plugged into AC power but has not yet been powered on?
A. Do not turn the unit upside-down
B. Avoid putting your fingers near the fans
C. Make sure you are NOT wearing a grounded ESD wrist strap
D. Do not touch the processor heat sink because it could burn your fingers

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
A MacBook Pro with a known-good main battery fails to power on, even when connected to a known-good power adapter. Which of the following should be tried FIRST?
A. Reset the SMC
B. Replace the logic board
C. Replace the DC in board
D. Run apple Service Diagnostic

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
A MacBook sometimes becomes unresponsive and the cursor freezes on the display when running an application. You have verified the symptom, and have already attempted to force the application to quit, but the computer remains unresponsive. What should you try next?
A. Disconnect all power sources for several minutes to reset the SMC
B. Hold the eject button down for several seconds to reset the application
C. Hold the trackpad button down for several seconds to regain cursor control
D. Press the power button for several seconds to try shutting the computer down
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
What is the proper way to calibrate the main battery in a MacBook?
A. Charge the battery while running the Battery Calibration Utility
B. The battery is calibrated out of the box, no further steps are needed
C. Charge the battery overnight. Make sure battery status indicates 100% before disconnecting AC adapter
D. Charge the battery fully. Wait 2 hours. Run the MacBook on battery until it goes to sleep. Wait 5 hours. Charge it fully again
E. Charge the battery halfway. Wait 2 hours. Finish charging the battery. Run the MacBook on battery until it goes to sleep. Charge it fully again.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
What precautions should be taken if a discharged CRT must remain exposed for any length of time?
A. You should reset the Power Manager Unit on the logic board
B. You should perform a full set of video adjustments on the CRT
C. You should remove the CRT from the computer or display assembly
D. You should establish an ongoing connection between the CRT anode and ground

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Which section of any Apple service manual is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing an internal component?
A. Views
B. Basics
C. Take Apart
D. Troubleshooting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
Which of the following scenarios would be most appropriate to use Apple hardware Test?
A. You want to test a Mac’s Ethernet port after its logic board has been replaced
B. You are unsure if the customer’s issue is caused by software or hardware
C. You need to check the Mac’s LCD display for any pixel anomalies
D. You want to verify that Mac OS X has been installed properly

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
Verifying that a computer functions properly after you repair it ensures that______.SELECT THREE
A. third –party software is working
B. the original issue has been resolved
C. the computer fails under service warranty
D. the computer will continue to function after the repair
E. no new problems have been introduced during the repair

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 29

Examine the exhibit. What type of AirPort Extreme (802.11n) port does the number “2” identify?
A. USB
B. Power
C. FireWire
D. Ethernet

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
Which of the following is NOT a good step to take when working onsite on a computer?
A. Place parts on the floor
B. Use a grounded ESD mat
C. Wear a grounded ESD wrist strap
D. Check the polarity of the grounded power outlet
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 31

Examine the exhibit. Is this the correct tool to remove the top cover from a MAC mini?
A. Yes

B. No Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
Which one of the following is NOT a risk when working around CRTs?
A. Implosion
B. Overheating
C. Electric shock
D. Toxi materials

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Which of the following statements describes how CCFL backlighting is similar to LED backlighting when troubleshooting backlighting issues in Apple displays?
A. Both types of displays use an inverter board.
B. Both types of displays are diagnosed identically.
C. Both types of displays are powered by a low DC voltage source.
D. Both types of displays have components that are individually replaceable.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 137
Study the exhibit carefully. Configure BGP on all routers, turn off synchronization , and none of the default attributes have been changed except the local preference attribute on P4S4. Which path will be preferred by P4S2 to reach the network 100.100.100.0/24?

A. P4S2, P4S1 because it has the shortest AS-path
B. P4S2, P4S3, P4S4, P4S5 because it has a higher local preference
C. P4S2, P4S1 because it has a lower local preference
D. P4S2, P4S3, P4S4, P4S5 because it has a lower admin distance

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 138
Based on the configuration provided in the exhibit, how would the BGP updates that come from router P4S1 be replicated inside autonomous system 65200?

A. All BGP updates that are received on router P4S2 will not be sent to routers P4S3 and P4S4.
B. All BGP updates that are received on router P4S2 will be sent directly to router P4S5.
C. All BGP updates that are received on router P4S2 will be sent to routers P4S3 and P4S4. Routers P4S3 and P4S4 will then forward those BGP updates to router P4S5.
D. None of the BGP updates that are received on router P4S2 will ever be received by router P4S5.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 139
There are two routes in BGP to a destination. Assume that both paths were originated locally and have the same weight, what will be the next determining factor in choosing the best path?
A. lowest origin code
B. highest local preference
C. lowest MED
D. lowest neighbor IP address

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 140
For the following commands, which one displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?
A. show ip bgp peers
B. show ip bgp
C. show ip bgp paths
D. show ip bgp summary

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 141
Which two reasons are of the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
B. The network was learned via IBGP.
C. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
D. The network was defined by a static route.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 142
Which one of the following statements accurately describes EBGP?
A. EBGP requires a full mesh.
B. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 143
Judging from the show ip bgp summary output, which two descriptions are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The BGP session to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor is established.
B. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established.
C. The BGP session to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor is established.
D. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.2.2.2 neighbor.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 144
The command bgp always-compare-med is added to a router configuration. What will be the objective of this command?
A. forces the router to compare metrics of routes from different autonomous systems
B. forces the router to compare the communities of routes from different autonomous systems
C. forces the router to compare the local preference of routes from different autonomous systems
D. forces the router to compare the weight of routes from different autonomous systems

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 47
Certkiller .com has a requirement for 24×7 monitoring of the physical environment within its rack
enclosures.
Which solution is the most cost-effective?

A. dedicated power bar/outlet strips in each rack enclosure
B. temperature and humidity sensors in each rack enclosure
C. proprietary software to monitor the internal server temperature
D. carry-out thermography service using a thermal imaging camera

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The Netshelter VX rack enclosure is compatible with most IT equipment because it compiles with the ____standard, which makes it compatible with 99%of all servers.
A. UL1778
B. EIA310.D
C. EN50091-1
D. NEMA PE-1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
Which three solutions improve airflow in an enclosure in a raised-floor environment?
A. blanking panels
B. rack air distribution unit
C. enclosure with split rear door
D. enclosure with glass front door
E. temperature and humidity sensors
F. cable management brackets and trays

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 50
An IT server room demands 8kva with an estimated growth of 20%. The company wants an APC UPSs
solution with high availability and serviceability at a low cost.
Which solution would you recommend?

A. a silcon 10 kva
B. a symmetra singl=phase 12 kva LX
C. a symmetra PX with 10 kw of power
D. an infrastructure for small & medium data center solution starting with 10kw

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Which two service advantages does a Symmetra UPS within Infrastruxure offer over traditional solutions?
A. Mean time repair is reduced
B. Built-in redundancy reduces component failures
C. The service bypass panel allows isolation of UPS
D. The required a Skill level for troubleshooting is reduced.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 52
An enterprise data center manager is in charge of 47 production server several switches hubs routers and workstations. The computer room is backed up by a symmetra PX 40KW with an external battery cabinet giving a runtime of about 22 minutes at full load. They do not have a generator. Forty-two of the 47 servers are critical and the manager wants to shut them down gracefully using his LAN, in order to not damage the operating systems. Which application would you recommend?
A. Enterprise MANAGER
B. PowerChute Business Edition
C. PowerChute Network Shutdown
D. PowerChute Professional Edition

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
An office building has a chiller plant that supplies chilled water throughout the building for general cooling of the occupied spaces. The chilled water is not available outside regular business hours. A tenant is planning to occupy an office in the building,. The new tenant has a computer room for their IT support equipment that occupies 10 racks at an average of 2.7 KW per rack and runs 24 hours a day. Which solution provides the greatest efficiency and reliability for the computer room?
A. roof-top unit
B. chilled-water unit
C. ceiling-mounted unit
D. glycol-cooled unit with economizer
E. refrigerant-based unit with secondary chilled-water cool

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 54
A site requires UPS power to feed a combination of desktop computer, existing rack mount server loads, and non-rack loads. Assume 35kw of combined load (20kw for servers and 15kw for PCs.) and a three -phase available sourc. What is the highest available, easy-to=manage and easy-to-maintain solution?
A. all Smart-UPS and Back-UPS
B. one 40kw traditional UPS with one PDU for each load type
C. one 20kw three-phase single-module UPS system for each types of load
D. one 40kw N+1 Symmetra PX with overhead and under floor distribution

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
The basement air conditioning unit leaks water onto the data center floor. The facility manager wants to install a water sensor in the data center’s basement and received e-mail notification through the company’s LAN when there is water on the floor. The water sensor uses only normally open or normally closed contacts when water is detected. What should the facility manager do?
A. connect a Network MANAGEMENT card for e-mail notification
B. install powernet manager on an available computer for e-mail notification
C. connect a building management card to the water sensor for e-mail notification
D. connect an environmental monitoring unit to the water sensor for e-mail notification

Correct Answer: D
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