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QUESTION 111
In a VSX Gateway cluster, which of the following objects are available by default as installation targets for the Management Virtual System?
A. Internal Virtual Switch cluster object
B. Individual Virtual Systems for each Customer’s cluster member
C. Virtual System cluster of each Customer
D. External Virtual Router cluster object
E. External Virtual Switch cluster object
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
Which of the following VLAN membership types is considered explicit in its propagation?
A. Route-based
B. MAC address-based
C. Port-based
D. Session-based
E. State-based
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 113
When Virtual Systems are deployed in Bridge mode, they use ____________ to detect failures and forward traffic to another Virtual System in a cluster?
A. BPDU
B. MPLS
C. VRRP
D. OSPF
E. STP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 114
Which of the following can function as a Management Server for a VSX Gateway?
A. Provider-1 NGX: Multi -Log Monitor
B. SmartCenter Server
C. Check Point Integrity
D. Security Management Portal
E. VPN-1/FireWall-1 Small Office
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning a VSX NGX deployment?
A. A separate management interface is required for a management network to access and control a VSX Gateway.
B. Multiple VSX Administrators can be configured with granular permission control in a SmartCenter Server management environment.
C. VSX Administrators can manage VSX Gateways and clusters through the Internet. No special management interface is required.
D. The functionality of VSX NGX is based on NG FP0.
E. All VSX virtual devices now share all functions of a standard NGX Security Gateway.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 116
Consider the following scenario: You have two VSX Gateways configured for High Availability. Each has one dedicated management interface, one synchronization interface, one external interface, and two interfaces used to connect to protected customer networks. How many cluster interfaces do you have in this configuration?
A. Three; one Management Virtual System cluster, one External Virtual Router cluster, and one Virtual System cluster containing both customer Virtual Systems
B. Five; one VSX Gateway cluster, one Management Virtual System Cluster, one External Virtual Router cluster, and two Virtual System clusters
C. Two; one External Virtual Router cluster, and one cluster containing all Virtual Systems
D. One; one VSX cluster containing all components
E. Four; one Management Virtual System cluster, one External Virtual Router cluster, and two Virtual System clusters
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 117
Which of the following interfaces are configured by running sysconfig, during installation of a VSX Gateway in a High Availability environment?
A. Synchronization interface
B. Dedicated Customer interface
C. External interface
D. Management interface
E. Any configured VLAN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 118
Which process uses an encrypted TCP connection to perform Full Synchronization of VSX Gateways in a cluster?
A. cpd
B. srd
C. fwd
D. synd
E. vpnd
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
Which of the following is NOT a type of physical interface seen in a VSX Gateway?
A. Warp
B. Internal
C. Dedicated management
D. External
E. Synchronization
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
Which of the following virtual devices will NOT fail over, if its interface fails in a VSX High Availability configuration?
A. Virtual System in Bridge mode
B. External Virtual Router
C. Internal Virtual Router
D. Virtual System with VLAN interfaces
E. Management Virtual System interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 121
Both SmartCenter Server and Provider-1 can be used for central configuration, management, and monitoring of multiple VSX Gateways and Virtual Systems. What criteria are used to decide which management model is used?
A. Licensing restrictions and costs, administrative requirements, and operation model
B. The size of the deployment and planned expansion, administrative requirements, and security model
C. The size of the deployment and planned expansion, end-user requirements, operation model, and licensing restrictions
D. The size of the deployment and planned expansion, administrative requirements, operation model, and licensing restrictions
E. The size of the deployment and planned expansion, end-user requirements, and security model
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
The External Virtual Router is associated with a dedicated interface. It is considered to be which type of interface?
A. Warp
B. Synchronization
C. Virtual
D. Physical
E. Symbolic
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 123
Security Policies enforced by Virtual Systems are applied to __________ connected to the Virtual IP Stack.
A. All interfaces
B. Virtual interfaces
C. Physical interfaces
D. Warp and virtual interfaces
E. Warp interfaces
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 124
What type of synchronization happens when a Gateway joins a VSX cluster?
A. Partial Synchronization
B. Alpha Synchronization
C. Delta Synchronization
D. Dynamic Synchronization
E. Full Synchronization
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 125
If you want your customer’s Virtual Systems to give protected hosts access to and from the Internet, which of the following must be configured as a public IP address?
A. Default Gateway IP address of the Virtual Switch
B. Main IP of the customer’s Virtual System
C. Main IP of the Virtual Switch
D. Default Gateway IP address of the Management Virtual System
E. Main IP of the Management Virtual System
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 126
What is required to prevent loops in Virtual Systems in a Cluster XL environment?
A. BPDU
B. MPLS
C. STP
D. VRRP
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 127
When configuring VSX Gateway clustering, the VSX Administrator assigns a unique __________ to each VSX Gateway in the cluster.
A. Synchronization interval
B. Management Server
C. Initial state (Active/Standby)
D. Name
E. Subnet mask
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 128
You are configuring source-based routing in a VSX Gateway deployment with both External and Internal Virtual Routers. Which of the following functions cannot be configured for the Virtual Systems?
A. Virtual System clustering
B. Anti-spoofing measures
C. Network Address Translation
D. Remote access VPNs
E. Intranet VPNs
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 129
A Virtual System in Bridge mode:
A. Routes traffic based on layer-3 information.
B. Forwards all traffic received from a switch.
C. Can participate in a VPN.
D. Can perform Network Address Translation.
E. Uses VRRP to manage failover.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 130
TRUE or FALSE. A Virtual System in Bridge mode can enforce anti-spoofing definitions.
A. True, anti-spoofing must be manually defined in bridge mode.
B. True, as long as the Virtual System has more than two interfaces defined.
C. True, as long as Network Address Translation is performed.
D. True, anti-spoofing measures are defined automatically in Bridge mode.
E. False, anti-spoofing cannot be configured for Virtual Systems in Bridge mode.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 131
Which of the following components controls the synchronization interface for each VSX Gateway?
A. External Virtual Router
B. Management Virtual System
C. Internal Virtual Router
D. VSX Management Server
E. Network Synchronization Server
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 132
Which of the following VSX Gateway components are unique to, and NOT shared by, each Virtual System?
A. VSX Policy Editor
B. Context Identification Module
C. VSX Inspection Module
D. VSX Management Server
E. Virtual Router
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
When configuring a new Virtual System for your VSX Gateway configuration, what should you do first?
A. Create a new Customer and CMA, to be used as the Virtual System’s Management Server.
B. Open the Admin CMA SmartDashboard, and create a new CMA object to be used as the Virtual System’s Management Server.
C. Add a new Virtual System to the Main Customer, so that the Admin CMA can be used as the Management Server.
D. Open the Global SmartDashboard, and create a new Virtual System object.
E. Open the Admin CMA SmartDashboard, and create a new Virtual System object.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
Which of the following is a Multi-Context process?
A. cpd
B. synd
C. vsxd
D. gwd
E. psd
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
The __________ interface is configured in a VLAN environment, to allow multiple Virtual Systems to share a single physical interface on a VSX Gateway.
A. Synchronization
B. Warp
C. Symbolic
D. Physical
E. Virtual
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 136
What is the difference between Single-Context and Multi-Context processes?
A. Single-Context processes are implemented in standard firewall deployments, while only Multi-Context processes are implemented in VSX Gateway deployments.
B. Single-Context processes are shared between VSX Gateways in an HA configuration, while Multi-Context processes are shared between VSX Gateways in a Load Sharing environment.
C. Single-Context processes are ones in which all Virtual Systems share, while Multi-Context processes are unique to each Virtual System.
D. Single-Context processes are implemented in a single VSX Gateway environment, while Multi-Context processes are only implemented in VSX Gateway High Availability (HA).
E. Single-Context processes are unique to each Virtual System on a Gateway, while Multi-Context processes are ones in which all Virtual Systems share.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 137
Which of the following is the only interface configured by running sysconfig, during the installation of a VSX Gateway in a single Gateway environment?
A. Synchronization interface
B. Dedicated Customer interface
C. Internal Virtual Router interface
D. Management interface
E. External interface
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
In a standard VSX configuration, each Virtual System is configured with which of the following interfaces?
A. One leading to the Management Virtual System, and one leading to the Internal Virtual Router/Switch
B. One leading to the Management Virtual System, and one leading to the External Virtual Router
C. One leading to a router on the external network, and one for the physical interface leading to the protected network
D. One leading to the External Virtual Router/Switch, and one for the physical interface leading to the protected network
E. One for the physical interface leading to the protected network, and one leading to the Management Virtual System
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 139
When configuring __________, the interface leading to the External Virtual Router should be set as the main IP address, and should be publicly routable.
A. Anti-spoofing
B. Virtual Systems in Bridge mode
C. Network Address Translation
D. A Virtual Switch
E. VLAN trunking interfaces
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 140
At installation, the _________ is bound to all configured physical interfaces of a VSX Gateway, UNLESS the interfaces are specifically assigned to another component.
A. VSX Management Server
B. External Virtual Router
C. Synchronization Network
D. Management Virtual System
E. Internal Virtual Router
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 21
Scenario: An architect is designing a NetScaler solution that implements GSLB. The solution must provide StoreFront access through a single URL worldwide and maintain a highly available configuration globally as well as locally.
How many StoreFront servers are recommended to implement this configuration?
A. Six, one site for each store
B. Six, two in each datacenter
C. Three, one in each datacenter
D. Four, two in the primary and two in the backup datacenter Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Scenario: Personnel are being trained using a test XenDesktop site. They must be restricted to accessing this site only while on company premises. Which StoreFront configuration should the architect recommend?
A. Enable the Domain pass-through authentication method on the store.
B. Disable the Pass-through from NetScaler authentication method on the store.
C. Configure the StoreFront servers with a separate store for this site, NOT enabled for remote access.
D. Install a certificate issued by the internal Windows Certificate Services server on the StoreFront servers.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
Which two design decisions should the architect recommend to improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Clipboard policy
B. Configure Drive encryption
C. Configure Flash redirection
D. Configure Media redirection Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 24
Which two manually performed tasks can be streamlined by implementing a Citrix environment? (Choose two.)
A. Database backup
B. Application patching
C. Security assessment
D. Certificate management
E. Operating system installation Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 25
The company’s HDX policies must apply to a pooled virtual desktop environment without affecting any virtual applications.How should an architect apply the HDX policies?
A. By using a SmartAccess filter
B. By using a client name policy filter
C. By using a delivery group type policy filter
D. By giving the virtual desktop policy a higher priority than the virtual application policy Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
Scenario: HR staff have a requirement to print confidential information to USB-attached printers in their offices. Any printer model may be used for this purpose. Which two recommended options should the architect consider for this solution? (Choose two.)
A. Configuring ‘Client printer names’
B. Configuring ‘Auto-create client printers’
C. Configuring ‘Universal print driver usage’
D. Enabling ‘Automatic installation of in-box printer drivers’
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 27
The architect should recommend a Universal License because it is required for __________. (Choose the phrase that correctly completes the sentence.)
A. ICA Proxy
B. SmartAccess
C. two-factor authentication
D. SSL access inside the network Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
An architect recommends full SSL VPN connections for remote users. Which type of NetScaler license should be applied for these users?
A. User
B. Device
C. Platform
D. Universal
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
Which action should an architect avoid recommending when designing a monitoring solution?
A. Installing vendor-supplied tools to monitor physical hardware
B. Installing Command Center to monitor NetScaler appliances
C. Installing agents onto NetScaler appliances to monitor utilization
D. Installing Citrix Director to monitor the XenDesktop environment Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
An architect is explaining options for profile management. What is one issue that the architect must address in the current environment?
A. Folder redirection is implemented.
B. Roaming users have local profiles.
C. Startup scripts are used in the environment.
D. PositivelyFinance does NOT work with roaming profiles.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31
Which tool should the architect use in preparation for migration to Windows Server 2012 to determine application compatibility and suitability for virtualization?
A. AppDNA
B. App-V Sequencer
C. EdgeSight for End Points
D. Windows Upgrade Advisor Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
All nurses currently use Windows XP workstations to access critical medical applications and require different applications depending on their role.Which two delivery models meet the nurses’ requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Local VM deployment with streamed applications
B. Streamed VHD deployment with streamed applications
C. Hosted server OS deployment with locally installed applications
D. Hosted desktop OS deployment with locally installed applications
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 33
In the new environment, the PositivelyFinance application will be deployed as a server OS- hosted application.Which two policy settings should an architect recommend to prevent data leakage from the PositivelyFinance application? (Choose two.)
A. HDX policy setting with Client drive mapping set to `Prohibited’
B. HDX policy setting with Client Clipboard Redirection set to `Prohibited’
C. HDX policy setting with File redirection on Client Network drives set to ‘Prohibited’
D. Active Directory group policy with the Do not allow clipboard redirection setting set to `Disabled’
E. Active Directory group policy with the Prevent access to drives setting set to `Restrict all drives’
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 34
An architect is evaluating the user profile management solution for the desktop and application virtualization solution.Which two pieces of information should the architect collect? (Choose two.)
A. User time zone
B. User profile size
C. Installed language pack
D. Client device CPU/RAM
E. Application compatibility of profile type
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 35
Which IOPS figures must an architect take into account when determining the IOPS requirements for a user group?
A. logical, logon, and raw
B. functional, logoff, and boot
C. steady state, boot, and raw
D. steady state, logon, and boot
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
Which three statements are true regarding the Radiology group? (Choose three.)
A. Mobility is important to Radiology users.
B. Mobility is unimportant to Radiology users.
C. Virtualization resource requirements are high.
D. Smooth Roaming is important to Radiology users.
E. Virtualization resource requirements are moderate.
F. Smooth Roaming is unimportant to Radiology users.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 37
An architect recommends using the monitoring function of Citrix Director to determine if users can connect to applications.Which Windows service should the architect also include in the monitoring solution?
A. Citrix Configuration Service on the Delivery Controller
B. Citrix Configuration Replication on the StoreFront server
C. World Wide Web Publishing Service on the StoreFront server
D. World Wide Web Publishing Service on the server OS machine
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
An architect is designing a solution that minimizes the storage footprint by utilizing thin provisioning in the datacenter.Which solution should the architect recommend for XenServer shared storage?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Scenario: The company is considering replacing the Windows XP computers with new devices as part of the new solution. The new devices should require minimal support and administration, while providing a centrally managed desktop solution.
Which two methods should an architect consider to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Client OS desktop delivery group accessed from thin-client devices by using Citrix Receiver
B. Server OS desktop delivery group accessed from thin-client devices by using Citrix Receiver
C. Client OS desktop delivery group accessed from Windows-based physical desktops by using Citrix Receiver
D. Server OS application delivery group accessed from Windows-based physical desktops by using Citrix Receiver
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 40
Scenario: Some contractors require access to various corporate applications. They must also be able to install their own applications within the environment for testing purposes.
Which two delivery methods fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Hosted server OS with Profile Management enabled
B. Pooled hosted desktop OS with Personal vDisk enabled
C. Hosted server OS with persistent server operating system
D. Assigned hosted desktop OS with persistent desktop operating system
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 41
An architect is recommending an antivirus policy for Provisioning Services servers that are being used to provision pooled desktops. Which two options should the architect recommend for optimal performance? (Choose two.)
A. Enable scan on read
B. Prohibit write cache scanning
C. Increase scheduled scanning frequency
D. Exclude scanning of the target device drivers
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 42
An architect needs to design a solution that optimizes resource usage for Call Center users. How do server OS machines achieve this goal?
A. By offering optimal performance
B. By providing rapid application rollouts
C. By ensuring the greatest security level by design
D. By accommodating high user density on each server
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
The company’s security officer has stated that for compliance reasons, all internal and external network traffic must be encrypted. Which additional type of encryption should the architect recommend?
A. SecureICA
B. IPsec
C. SSL and SecureICA
D. L2TP Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 21
A Citrix Administrator creates a session printer for the Engineering group; however, engineers report that
random characters are printed when they print.
Which policy settings could be causing the issue?
A. Printer assignments
B. Universal driver preference
C. Wait for printers to be created
D. Auto-create generic universal printer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Users accessing applications hosted on a specific server OS machine are unable to connect to printers from within their sessions. What could be the cause of this issue?
A. The Universal Print Server is NOT installed.
B. The universal printer driver policy is disabled.
C. The auto-create client printer policy is enabled.
D. The Citrix Print Manager Service is NOT running.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
After a recent upgrade, a user is attempting to launch Microsoft Word 2010 from Receiver for Web and
receives the following error:
Cannot start app ‘Microsoft Word 2010’.
What are two potential reasons for this error? (Choose two.)
A. The application is disabled.
B. The server OS machine is NOT registered.
C. The server OS machine is in maintenance mode.
D. The user does NOT have permission to access the application.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 24
Scenario: An iPad user is connected to the internal wireless network. The user is attempting to use Microsoft Word 2010. This user can see other hosted applications on the iPad but CANNOT see Microsoft Word. Other users have access to Microsoft Word on their iPads.
What is preventing the user from seeing Microsoft Word 2010 on their iPad?
A. The application is NOT enabled.
B. NetScaler is NOT configured in StoreFront.
C. The user is NOT assigned to the application.
D. The server OS machine is in maintenance mode.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Scenario: A user attempts to launch their virtual desktop, “Win7 Desktop,” from within Receiver for Web.
The virtual desktop fails to launch, and the user receives a notification stating:
Cannot start desktop “Win7 Desktop”.
Which two methods could a Citrix Administrator use to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Close Receiver for Web and then reopen it.
B. Restart the virtual desktop using Citrix Director.
C. Install a new SSL Certificate on the StoreFront server.
D. Right-click the desktop icon within Receiver for Web and select ‘Restart’.
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 26
Scenario: A user is unable to access their remote PC. The user has tried to restart the machine but is unable to do so. Why is the user unable to restart the remote PC?
A. The user is still logged in at their remote PC.
B. A user CANNOT remotely restart a remote PC.
C. The Citrix Delivery Service is NOT running on the remote PC.
D. Citrix Studio has NOT been configured to manage the remote PC.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Scenario: A company has two delivery groups with two server OS machines in each delivery group. One delivery group is for Microsoft Office 2007 server OS machines, and one delivery group is for Microsoft Office 2010 server OS machines.
Microsoft Office 2010 users are reporting performance issues, including latency and slowness in general.
Which two tools could a Citrix Administrator use to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Citrix Director
B. Citrix Quick Launch
C. Performance Monitor
D. Microsoft Event Viewer
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 28
Scenario: A CPU-intensive email application is added to a server OS machine. Several users report poor application performance, including high latency and slowness in general. The Help Desk logs show that this issue occurs at varying times of the day and has been reported from multiple remote offices.
Which two utilities should a Citrix Administrator use to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Citrix Studio
B. CDFControl
C. Citrix Director
D. Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 29
After a Citrix Administrator creates a bonded network on XenServer, provisioned desktops fail to start up from the network. What could be a cause of this issue?
A. UDP 69 is closed.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The connection to the CIFS share is broken.
D. The status of the bonded network shows as ‘Disconnected’.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
The Export Provisioning File option in the StoreFront Management Console contains __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. the information required to rebuild a store
B. connection details for the Delivery Controller
C. connection details for the hosting infrastructure
D. connection details for stores, including any Access Gateway deployments and beacons configured for the stores
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31
Which three 60-minute historical trends can a Citrix Administrator view when using Citrix Director? (Choose three.)
A. CPU usage
B. Machine failures
C. License checkouts
D. Connection failures
E. Concurrent sessions
F. Memory consumption
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 32
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator replaces the production StoreFront server with a new StoreFront server. Users access their resources from StoreFront through NetScaler.
Which NetScaler policy must the administrator modify in order to allow users to continue to access resources securely from external locations?
A. Traffic
B. Session
C. Authorization
D. Authentication
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
The Sales team requests that a Citrix Administrator enhance the user experience on tablet devices. Which policy setting should the administrator enable to meet the requirements of the Sales team?
A. Multimedia Conferencing
B. Flash Content Redirection
C. Windows Media Redirection
D. Launch touch-optimized desktop
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
A Citrix Administrator needs to ensure that individual support teams are only able to control the delivery groups for their units.
Which feature should the administrator configure to ensure that the appropriate teams have administrator access to the desktops for their particular unit?
A. Scopes
B. Exclusion filters
C. User assignment
D. SmartAccess settings
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which two actions should a Citrix Administrator take prior to deleting desktop OS machines from a machine catalog? (Choose two.)
A. Turn off the desktop OS machines.
B. Place the desktop OS machines in maintenance mode.
C. Remove the desktop OS machines from the hypervisor.
D. Delete the Active Directory account for the desktop OS machines.
E. Enable maintenance mode on the hypervisor hosting the desktop OS machines.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
Which two methods could a Citrix Administrator use to ensure that users are able to launch multiple virtual desktop sessions? (Choose two.)
A. Change the ‘Desktops per user’ setting in the delivery groups settings.
B. Give the user multiple devices so that they can have a session open on each.
C. Create two host connections from the Delivery Controller to different hypervisors.
D. Create two delivery groups from the same catalog and assign the users to both delivery groups.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 37
A Citrix Administrator publishes an application but receives reports that the application is NOT visible in Receiver through StoreFront.
Why is the application NOT visible to users?
A. The application is disabled.
B. The path to the executable is incorrect.
C. There are some user groups NOT assigned to the application.
D. There are NO available server OS machines in the machine catalog.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is publishing a text editor for developers to use when they need to edit their configuration files. The administrator needs to ensure that the text editor launches when a developer attempts to open a configuration file.
What should the administrator implement to ensure that the hosted application launches when a developer attempts to edit a configuration file?
A. Application Security
B. Applications Strings
C. Content Redirection
D. Advanced Access Control
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 39
Which action should a Citrix Administrator take to add pooled desktops with personal vDisk to an existing Provisioning Services farm?
A. Use the XenDesktop Setup Wizard from the Provisioning Services Console.
B. Create the virtual machines manually and import the target devices using a .CSV file.
C. Create target devices in the Provisioning Services Console using the MAC addresses.
D. Enable ‘Auto-Add’ in the Provisioning Services Console and start up the virtual machines from the network.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
A Citrix Administrator needs to change the port used for communication between StoreFront and the Delivery Controller.
Which configuration in the StoreFront Management Console should the administrator modify to meet this goal?
A. Stores
B. Beacons
C. Gateways
D. Authentication
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator uses Machine Creation Services to provision desktops in an environment. Productivity applications are installed locally into desktop OS machines. The administrator is instructed to update the productivity applications.
Which action should the administrator take after updating the applications in order to ensure that users are provided with the updated applications?
A. Update the master image then update the delivery group.
B. Update the machine catalog then update the delivery group.
C. Update the desktops then update the appropriate machine catalog.
D. Update the master image then update the appropriate machine catalog.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 42
Users report that when they work remotely on weekends, they experience noticeably longer desktop launch times. Which action should a Citrix Administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. Set peak hours for the weekend.
B. Analyze the logon times in Citrix Director.
C. Schedule the weekend backups to run at night.
D. Increase the number of active machines during the weekends.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which two tools could a Citrix Administrator use to back up XenServer metadata? (Choose two.)
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix XenCenter
D. XenServer Host Console
E. XenServer Web Self Service
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 44
Which command enables a Citrix Administrator to back up the XenServer pool configuration database?
A. xe pool-ha-disable
B. xe pool-sync-database
C. xe pool-dump-database
D. xe pool-restore-database
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator take to adjust the size of a vDisk assigned to a server OS machine? (Choose two.)
A. Create a new vDisk.
B. Edit properties of the vDisk.
C. Edit the .PVP file with Notepad.
D. Use BNImage to reverse the image.
E. Mount the vDisk on the Provisioning Server.
Correct Answer: AD
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QUESTION 69
What is the correct frequency response for the G.711 audio algorithm?
A. 300Hz to 3.4kHz
B. 50Hz to 7kHz
C. 300Hz to 7kHz
D. 50Hz to 3.4kHz
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Which of the following describes one ISDN B-Channel?
A. Network that provides 64 kilobits per second
B. Network that provides 4800 kilobits per second
C. Network that provides various rates up to 1,920,000 bits per second
D. Network that is unable to function
E. Network that provides 1,536,000 bits per second
F. Network that provides 128 kilobits per second
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which of the following correctly describes echo as it relates to acoustic echo cancellations?
A. The result of sound bouncing off the walls in the room caused by the person speaking in that room being picked up by the microphones.
B. The sound one hears when the far-end is talking and one tries to talk at the same time.
C. The sound of the far-end being returned to themselves, caused by the room microphones picking up the audio from the room loudspeakers.
D. The sound of the room reverberation as picked up by the local microphones, amplified and returned to the far-end.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72
Which signals are being used with Y/C video?
A. Kodachrome and polychrome
B. Chrominance and luminance
C. Red, green and blue
D. Yustra spectrum and composite
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
Which of the following are the ITU-T Standard that describes the Transport for T.120?
A. T.121
B. T.124
C. T.123
D. T.126
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
The H.239 Standard is best described as
A. Role Management -People and Content Standard for H.320 only.
B. Role Management or People and Content Standard for H.300 Series.
C. Audio Coding and Additional Media Channels.
D. Role Management and Chair Control.
E. Role Management -People and Content Standard for H.321 only.
F. Role Management and Additional Far End Camera Control.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
The G.722.1 operates up to frequency response bandwidth of
A. 7000Hz.
B. 12,000Hz.
C. 600Hz.
D. 1200Hz.
E. 4800Hz.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Which audio coding standards are described by H.320?
A. G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723
B. G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1
C. G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726
D. G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 77
Which of the following is considered 4SIF?
A. 640 X 480
B. 1024 X 768
C. 720 X 480
D. 800 X 600
E. 704 X 576
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
High-Definition Videoconferencing will require and use
A. the same camera from NTSC and PAL VTC systems
B. typical off the shelf web camera
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. high-definition camera
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
BERT testing is used for what purpose?
A. Verifying the number of Audio bit errors
B. Verifying the number of the Network bit errors
C. Verifying the number of Video bit errors
D. None of the other alternatives apply.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
Which of the following Call Establishment Packets are used for ISDN Call Setup on the D Channel?
A. SETUP / CALL PROCEDING / IN PROGRESS / ALERT / CONNECT ACK
B. SETUP / CALL ROUTING OPEN / RELEASE COMPLETE
C. SETUP / RECEIVER READY / WAIT INDICATOR
D. None of the other alternatives apply.
E. SETUP / REQUEST FOR CALL / CALL SETUP VALID
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
Open System Interconnect describes a Model for
A. 7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer 1 as the most important.
B. 7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer 7 as the most important.
C. None of the other alternatives apply..
D. 3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with Layer 1 as the most important.
E. 3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with Layer 3 as the most important.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which of the following video display resolutions are true 16:9 Aspect Ratio?
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QUESTION 84
NEEDS VERIFICATION. Refer to the exhibit.
What must you do to resolve the connectivity problems over the fc1/7 interface?
A. The interface port type must be set toTE_port.
B. The VSAN load balancing scheme must be changed.
C. The Domain ID on the switch must be Changed.
D. The Beacon should be turned on.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
A customer is connecting some new Cisco MDS switches to an existing Brocade SAN network. The goal is to replace the existing Brocade switches with Cisco switches, while maintaining the existing multivendor SAN fabric. What must be configured to use standard interoperability mo —- between the multivendor equipment?
A. Only VSAN 1 can be used. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 37 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
B. Domain IDs between 97 and 127 must be used.
C. Only port-based zoning can be used.
D. Full zone set distribution must be used.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which command in used to configure VLAN 100 on the Gigabit Ethernet 2/1 interface through which iSCSI-enabled servers should be connected to the Fibre Channel targets?
A. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 100
B. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 vlan 100
C. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 encapsulation isl 100
D. interface gigabitethernet2/1 vlan 100
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit.
What alarm will be sent for this RMON event?
A. FCIP link failure
B. Fibre Channel link down
C. Fibre Channel link failure “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 38 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
D. Fibre Channel link reestablishment
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
You have deployed a Fibre Channel network with iSCSI-attached servers and clients in multiple IP networks. In you Fibre Channel network, you have deployed a Cisco MDS 9222i switch as an iSCSI gateway. Which option prevents clients from attaching to different iSCSI virtual targets that are used by servers?
A. Use iSCSI proxy initiator mode on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces for the server side.
B. Deploy static iSCSI initiator maps and attach them to Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
C. Dedicate one Gigabit Ethernet interface for servers and restrict those iSCSI virtual target advertising to the dedicated Gigabit Ethernet interface.
D. Enable the trespass option for the iSCSI virtual targets.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 39 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
The customer network has blue and red VSANs redundantly connected. Path A having a 4-ISL port channel and Path B having a 2-ISL port channel. Changes to the physical topology are not allowed for the next six months. All the traffic now flows over Path A with congestion occurring on both VSANs at peak times. The blue VSAN is, on the average, generating four times the amount of data than that of the red VSAN. How can the blue and red VSAN traffic be separated over the two paths, while preserving redundancy?
A. Make a zone in the blue VSAN with only ISL ports on Path B, and make another zone in the red VSAN with only ISL ports on Path A.
B. Make a zone in the blue VSAN with only ISL ports on Path A, and make another zone in the red VSAN with only ISL ports on Path B.
C. In the blue VSAN, give Path B a lower FSPF cost than Path A, in the red VSAN, give Path A a lower FSPF cost than Path B.
D. In the blue VSAN, give Path A a lower FSPF cost than Path B, in the red VSAN, give Path B a lower FSPF cost than Path A.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action should you take to connect the Cisco MDS Switch to an existing Brocade and McData multivendor using interoperability mode 1?
A. Reconfigure the DomainID to 100.
B. Change the sWWN using the McData OUI.
C. Force the principal switch election with priority 1.
D. Disable the VSAN functionality.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. Which two options do you need to deploy for the topology depicted to interconnect the MDS (SAN) and the Nexus 5000 (LAN)? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel expansion module
B. consolidated network adapter
C. Fibre Channel license package
D. FCoE-enabled module
E. generation 3 line cards
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 41 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
What is the effect of enabling the VSAN scope with number 500 when creating the SalesUser role?
A. The user connecting to the Fibre Channel fabric would be restricted to VSAN 500.
B. The user would be able to use allowed commands in VSAN 500 only.
C. The user would be excluded from VSAN 500.
D. The user would be able to create VSAN from 1 to 500.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Which two Cisco MDS features allow fabric-wide consistent and VSAN-independent configurations of the zoning information? (Choose two.)
A. CFS
B. sWWN
C. Fibre Channel alias
D. Device alias
E. Interface ID
F. port-based zoning
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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