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QUESTION 54
What are two uses for USB ports on ISRs? (Choose two)
A. increased memory capabilities
B. secure device authentication
C. bulk flash storage
D. control over the types of files that can be stored
E. digital certificate storage
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic
C. There are excessive CRC errors
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces
F. ARP requests are timing out
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 56
Which screen on the Cisco ASDM home page would you use to see which access list rules are in effect?
A. NAT
B. Interfaces
C. Routing
D. Security Policy
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which type of antenna is used when coverage in all directions is required?
A. directional
B. bidirectional
C. omnidirectional
D. patch
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which service should be disabled or filtered via a firewall because an attacker could use the service to download a copy of Cisco IOS software from a router (thereby making the router vulnerable to DOC attacks)?
A. PAD service
B. finger service
C. TCP/UDP
D. BOOTP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Which two statement best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit.
Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and switch B is running 802.1Q STP, if the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a full circle around the topology, it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B_C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN ! STP of PVST+ Thus, there is a forwarding loop What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. Switch A sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
B. Switch B sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
C. Switch C sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
D. Switch A sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 21 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
What is used to prevent outside resources from accessing private information within the company?
A. IPsec
B. VPN
C. PIN
D. Firewalls
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which type of security allows visibility into the state of the operating system and is the only way to inspect encrypted traffic?
A. zero updated architecture
B. network-based security
C. endpoint-based security
D. ACLs
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two)
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
To avoid carrying every length of cable, lighting arrestors, and splitters when performing site surveys, engineers can outfit their survey kits with which item?
A. Category 5 cable
B. RP-TNC plug
C. antenna attenuator D. RP-TNC connector
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which two are components of AAA? (Choose two)
A. access control lists
B. Cisco IOS Software
C. Cisco Secure Access Control Server
D. Security Audit wizard
E. network access server
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three)
A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity, and security
C. producing a documented technology strategy
D. creating a bill of materials
E. presenting documented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. completing a site survey
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which port-sales SMART Design documents are available to help you better serve your customers? (Choose three)
A. Design Guide
B. Small Business Product Guide
C. Implementation Guide
D. Solution Profile
E. Cisco Configuration Assistant
F. Application Notes
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which type of VPN is deal for employees who use a home PC or public computer to access the network?
A. IP secemote access VPN
B. mobile VPN
C. dialup 0ffload VPN
D. SSL VPN
E. GET VPN
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. reduced operating costs, due to consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and accountable manner
B. greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales with customer requirements
D. improved system service quality and fewer disruptions
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit.
The tables contain information from the Cisco Configuration Professional configurations of Router A and
Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between
Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150199)
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which of the following best describe the customer benefits of change management in the operate phase?
A. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements
B. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
C. reduce operating costs and limit changE.related incidents by providing a consistent and efficient set of processes
D. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of Cisco technologies.
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products.
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources.
D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Digital
B. Optical
C. Analog
D. CDMA
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which statement correctly describes the keys witch model of deployment for call processing?
A. All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line
B. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant.
C. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which definition best describes the implementation service component within the implement phase?
A. providing a step-by-step plan that details the installation andservicE.commission tasks required in order to create a controlleD.implementation environment that emulates a customer network
B. assessing the ability of site facilities to accommodate proposed infrastructure changes
C. developing and executingprooF-oF-concept tests, validating high-level infrastructure design, and identifying any design enhancements
D. Installing, configuring and integrating systems components based on an implementation plan developed in earlier phases
E. improving a customer’s infrastructure security system
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing costs is one of the customer’s highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired.
Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub and spoke
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
How can the proper configuration of Voice Mail be tested at an end user’s IP phone?
A. Press the “i” button.
B. Press the “Settings” button.
C. Press the “Services” button.
D. Press the “Messages” button
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. distribution layer
B. core layer
C. access layer
D. network management functional module
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and maintenance
B. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. Prepare, plan design implement operate, and optimize
D. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production I E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations sign-off
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System?
A. IP Phone and desktop
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.
Which method list and method is used to authenticate the remote access VPN users? (Choose two.)
A. sdm_vpn_xauth_ml_1
B. sdm_ypn_group_ml_1
C. SDM_CMAP_1
D. local database on the ISR
E. remote TACACS+ server
F. remote Radius Server
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit. Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and Switch B is running 802.10 STP. If the
BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in
the VLAN topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by
the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B. C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN 1 STP of PVST+.
Thus, there is a forwardin loop.
What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
E. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
F. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which interface on the Cisco UC520 is assigned an IP address either statically or through DHCP?
A. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
E. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
F. WAN interface
G. LAN interface
H. Switch port
I. PSTN Interface
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. Reduced operating costs due to a consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and accountable manner
B. Greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. Notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales with customer requirements
D. Improved system service quality and fewer disruptions
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What are two ways to test the LAN connectivity on the Cisco CE520? (Choose two.)
A. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data Access VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.
B. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520
C. Ping default gateway from the Cisco UC520.
D. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-voice VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520.
E. Ping default gateway from the Cisco CE520.
F. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Distribution VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which statement correctly describes configuration of the VPN server?
A. It requires definition of a Group ID for remote clients.
B. It requires configuration of port settings for the VPN server on the Cisco UC520.
C. It uses apreshared Key for remote device authentication
D. The WAN interface is preselected.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
In a new Cisco UC520 installation, when must IP routing be configured?
A. When the service provider assigns static IP information
B. When the service provider assigns dynamic IP information.
C. When analog PSTN trunks are used.
D. When digital PSTN trunks are used.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two).
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which critical issue should you account for when implementing an integrated network security management design?
A. NAT interoperates with encrypted voice traffic
B. host-based intrusion detection systems reside in the network
C. All network devices aretime.synchronized
D. SNMP community read-write strings are configured to allow for total management access
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
In which of these phases is a customer’s current network infrastructure assessed?
A. Plan
B. Design
C. Implement
D. Prepare
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
To save time during rediscovery, which three types of device information does Cisco Configuration Assistant retain? (Choose three.)
A. IP Address
B. MAC Address
C. Host Name
D. Communication Protocol
E. Port Settings
F. Topology
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which dial plan scenario may require PSTN trunks for outbound calls?
A. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voiceE-mail system nave direct inward dial numbers using analog trunks.
B. A subset of the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voiceE-mail system have direct inward dial numbers, and the remaining employees do not have direct inward dial numbers.
C. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and thevoiceE-mail system have direct inward dial numbers using digital interfaces.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
What are two configurable options for Call Control on the Cisco UC520? (Choose two.)
A. Shared Key
B. PBX
C. Key System
D. Encryption
E. Call Waiting
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 94
Refer to the Exhibit. According to Cisco VPN Client Software output Shown, Which two Statement are correct about the connection entry named isr? (Choose Two)
A. HMAC.SHA1 is used to authenticate the remote users.
B. Preshared key is used to authenticate the remote peer
C. AES is used to provide data confidentiality.
D. The Cisco VPN Client software is assigned an internal IP address of 192.168.1.1.
E. The PC that is running the Cisco vpn Client software win not have access to the local LAN once the PC is connected into the VPN
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
QUESTION 95
Refer to the exhibit. According to the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager window, which statement about address translation is correct?
A. Using Network Address Translation, any host on the DMZ1 subnet (172.16.1.0) will be translated to a mapped address on the outside interface of 192.168.1.11. I
B. Using port address translation, DMZ2 host 172.16.10.2 will be translated on DMZ1 to IP address
172.16.1.22 with a dynamically assigned port address.
C. Using Network Address Translation host 10.0 1.10 on the inside network will be dynamically translated to a mapped address from the address pool of 192.168.1.20 to 192.168.1.94.
D. Using port address translation, outside host 192.168.1.10 with a dynamically assigned port address will be translated to 10.0.1.11 on the inside interface.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which two are benefits of installing Cisco Monitor Director at an SMB site for the partner selling the solution? (Choose two.)
A. simplifies Smart Business Communications System installation
B. allows the end customer to get free software updates
C. monthly recurring revenue mode
D. automated monthly reporting on system performance
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which Cisco Catalyst Express 520 feature optimizes quality of service?
A. Cisco Configuration Assistant
B. Cisco Smart ports
C. Cisco Network Admission Control
D. Cisco Smart Assist
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three.)
A. Identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. Documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity and security
C. Producing a documented technology strategy
D. Creating a bill of materials
E. Presentdocumented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. Completing a site survey
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. This display has been truncated to remove information that is not relevant to the question. What would be a reason that there have been 21 ignored packets?
A. EthernetO has no CDP neighbors.
B. There are no free input buffers to accept new packets
C. There are no free output buffers for packets, which are traversing the router, to go into for transmission.
D. EthernetO and the neighbor that it is connected to are not running the same routing protocol.
E. This is not a valid error display. The display has been modified to show that there have been ignored packets.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 55
When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic
C. There are excessive CRC errors
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces
F. ARP requests are timing out
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 56
Which screen on the Cisco ASDM home page would you use to see which access list rules are in effect?
A. NAT
B. Interfaces
C. Routing
D. Security Policy
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which type of antenna is used when coverage in all directions is required?
A. directional
B. bidirectional
C. omnidirectional
D. patch
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which service should be disabled or filtered via a firewall because an attacker could use the service to download a copy of Cisco IOS software from a router (thereby making the router vulnerable to DOC attacks)?
A. PAD service
B. finger service
C. TCP/UDP
D. BOOTP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Which two statement best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit.
Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and switch B is running 802.1Q STP, if the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a full circle around the topology, it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B_C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN ! STP of PVST+ Thus, there is a forwarding loop What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. Switch A sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
B. Switch B sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
C. Switch C sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
D. Switch A sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 21 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
What is used to prevent outside resources from accessing private information within the company?
A. IPsec
B. VPN
C. PIN
D. Firewalls
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which type of security allows visibility into the state of the operating system and is the only way to inspect encrypted traffic?
A. zero updated architecture
B. network-based security
C. endpoint-based security
D. ACLs
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two)
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
To avoid carrying every length of cable, lighting arrestors, and splitters when performing site surveys, engineers can outfit their survey kits with which item?
A. Category 5 cable
B. RP-TNC plug
C. antenna attenuator D. RP-TNC connector
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which two are components of AAA? (Choose two)
A. access control lists
B. Cisco IOS Software
C. Cisco Secure Access Control Server
D. Security Audit wizard
E. network access server
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three)
A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity, and security
C. producing a documented technology strategy
D. creating a bill of materials
E. presenting documented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. completing a site survey
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which port-sales SMART Design documents are available to help you better serve your customers? (Choose three)
A. Design Guide
B. Small Business Product Guide
C. Implementation Guide
D. Solution Profile
E. Cisco Configuration Assistant
F. Application Notes
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which type of VPN is deal for employees who use a home PC or public computer to access the network?
A. IP secemote access VPN
B. mobile VPN
C. dialup 0ffload VPN
D. SSL VPN
E. GET VPN
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. reduced operating costs, due to consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and accountable manner
B. greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales with customer requirements
D. improved system service quality and fewer disruptions
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit.
The tables contain information from the Cisco Configuration Professional configurations of Router A and
Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between
Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150199)
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which of the following best describe the customer benefits of change management in the operate phase?
A. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements
B. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
C. reduce operating costs and limit changE.related incidents by providing a consistent and efficient set of processes
D. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of Cisco technologies.
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products.
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources.
D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Digital
B. Optical
C. Analog
D. CDMA
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which statement correctly describes the keys witch model of deployment for call processing?
A. All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line
B. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant.
C. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which definition best describes the implementation service component within the implement phase?
A. providing a step-by-step plan that details the installation andservicE.commission tasks required in order to create a controlleD.implementation environment that emulates a customer network
B. assessing the ability of site facilities to accommodate proposed infrastructure changes
C. developing and executingprooF-oF-concept tests, validating high-level infrastructure design, and identifying any design enhancements
D. Installing, configuring and integrating systems components based on an implementation plan developed in earlier phases
E. improving a customer’s infrastructure security system
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing costs is one of the customer’s highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired.
Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub and spoke
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
How can the proper configuration of Voice Mail be tested at an end user’s IP phone?
A. Press the “i” button.
B. Press the “Settings” button.
C. Press the “Services” button.
D. Press the “Messages” button
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. distribution layer
B. core layer
C. access layer
D. network management functional module
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and maintenance
B. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. Prepare, plan design implement operate, and optimize
D. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production I E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations sign-off
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System?
A. IP Phone and desktop
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.
Which method list and method is used to authenticate the remote access VPN users? (Choose two.)
A. sdm_vpn_xauth_ml_1
B. sdm_ypn_group_ml_1
C. SDM_CMAP_1
D. local database on the ISR
E. remote TACACS+ server
F. remote Radius Server
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit. Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and Switch B is running 802.10 STP. If the
BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in
the VLAN topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by
the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B. C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN 1 STP of PVST+.
Thus, there is a forwardin loop.
What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
E. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
F. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which interface on the Cisco UC520 is assigned an IP address either statically or through DHCP?
A. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
E. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
F. WAN interface
G. LAN interface
H. Switch port
I. PSTN Interface
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. Reduced operating costs due to a consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and accountable manner
B. Greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. Notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales with customer requirements
D. Improved system service quality and fewer disruptions
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What are two ways to test the LAN connectivity on the Cisco CE520? (Choose two.)
A. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data Access VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.
B. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520
C. Ping default gateway from the Cisco UC520.
D. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-voice VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520.
E. Ping default gateway from the Cisco CE520.
F. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Distribution VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which statement correctly describes configuration of the VPN server?
A. It requires definition of a Group ID for remote clients.
B. It requires configuration of port settings for the VPN server on the Cisco UC520.
C. It uses apreshared Key for remote device authentication
D. The WAN interface is preselected.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
In a new Cisco UC520 installation, when must IP routing be configured?
A. When the service provider assigns static IP information
B. When the service provider assigns dynamic IP information.
C. When analog PSTN trunks are used.
D. When digital PSTN trunks are used.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two).
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which critical issue should you account for when implementing an integrated network security management design?
A. NAT interoperates with encrypted voice traffic
B. host-based intrusion detection systems reside in the network
C. All network devices aretime.synchronized
D. SNMP community read-write strings are configured to allow for total management access
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
In which of these phases is a customer’s current network infrastructure assessed?
A. Plan
B. Design
C. Implement
D. Prepare
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
To save time during rediscovery, which three types of device information does Cisco Configuration Assistant retain? (Choose three.)
A. IP Address
B. MAC Address
C. Host Name
D. Communication Protocol
E. Port Settings
F. Topology
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which dial plan scenario may require PSTN trunks for outbound calls?
A. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voiceE-mail system nave direct inward dial numbers using analog trunks.
B. A subset of the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voiceE-mail system have direct inward dial numbers, and the remaining employees do not have direct inward dial numbers.
C. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and thevoiceE-mail system have direct inward dial numbers using digital interfaces.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
What are two configurable options for Call Control on the Cisco UC520? (Choose two.)
A. Shared Key
B. PBX
C. Key System
D. Encryption
E. Call Waiting
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 94
Refer to the Exhibit. According to Cisco VPN Client Software output Shown, Which two Statement are correct about the connection entry named isr? (Choose Two)
A. HMAC.SHA1 is used to authenticate the remote users.
B. Preshared key is used to authenticate the remote peer
C. AES is used to provide data confidentiality.
D. The Cisco VPN Client software is assigned an internal IP address of 192.168.1.1.
E. The PC that is running the Cisco vpn Client software win not have access to the local LAN once the PC is connected into the VPN
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
QUESTION 95
Refer to the exhibit. According to the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager window, which statement about address translation is correct?
A. Using Network Address Translation, any host on the DMZ1 subnet (172.16.1.0) will be translated to a mapped address on the outside interface of 192.168.1.11. I
B. Using port address translation, DMZ2 host 172.16.10.2 will be translated on DMZ1 to IP address
172.16.1.22 with a dynamically assigned port address.
C. Using Network Address Translation host 10.0 1.10 on the inside network will be dynamically translated to a mapped address from the address pool of 192.168.1.20 to 192.168.1.94.
D. Using port address translation, outside host 192.168.1.10 with a dynamically assigned port address will be translated to 10.0.1.11 on the inside interface.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which two are benefits of installing Cisco Monitor Director at an SMB site for the partner selling the solution? (Choose two.)
A. simplifies Smart Business Communications System installation
B. allows the end customer to get free software updates
C. monthly recurring revenue mode
D. automated monthly reporting on system performance
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which Cisco Catalyst Express 520 feature optimizes quality of service?
A. Cisco Configuration Assistant
B. Cisco Smart ports
C. Cisco Network Admission Control
D. Cisco Smart Assist
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three.)
A. Identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. Documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity and security
C. Producing a documented technology strategy
D. Creating a bill of materials
E. Presentdocumented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. Completing a site survey
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. This display has been truncated to remove information that is not relevant to the question. What would be a reason that there have been 21 ignored packets?
A. EthernetO has no CDP neighbors.
B. There are no free input buffers to accept new packets
C. There are no free output buffers for packets, which are traversing the router, to go into for transmission.
D. EthernetO and the neighbor that it is connected to are not running the same routing protocol.
E. This is not a valid error display. The display has been modified to show that there have been ignored packets.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
After configuring VTP. you no longer receive updates as expected. Which command can you use to verify the number of VTP advertisements being transmitted?
A. show vtp database
B. show vtp counters
C. showvtp statistics
D. showvtp status
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
You enter the command show ip ospf neighbor and see “two-way/DROTHER” listed as the state for neighbor 10.1.1.1. What does this status indicate?
A. The neighbor 10.1 1 1 is not a DR or BDR
B. The neighbor relationship with 10.1.1.1 has not yet completed.
C. DR and BDR election is in progress.
D. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Which design phase service component includes the development and documentation of the test case or cases used to verify that a deployed infrastructure meets operational, functional, and interface requirements?
A. Implementation Plan.
B. Business Plan
C. Staging Plan
D. Detailed Design Development
E. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Which implement phase service component consists of explaining the benefits and limitations of purchased support options to a customer and ensuring that the customer understands operational processes and responsibilities?
A. Staging and System Migration
B. Post Implementation Support Handoff Meeting
C. Detailed Design Development
D. Staff Training
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
In which of these phases is a customer’s network assessed to determine its system readiness?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. implement
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
How many voice expansion slots are provided by the Cisco UC520?
A. One
B. two
C. three
D. four
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
A concern has been expressed that the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration statements can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switch port port-security
B. switch port port-security tagging
C. switch port accessvlan
D. switch port doublE.tag snooping
E. switch port mode access
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. Cisco Works Unrestricted
B. Cisco Works SNMS
C. Campus Manager D. Resource Management Essentials
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
You are troubleshooting OSPF neighbor establishment problems, which are occurring over Frame Relay interfaces that use the default OSPF network type. What should you verify in the router configuration?
A. theip ospf network point-to-point statement under the Frame Relay interface
B. The ip ospf priority 0 statement on the Frame Relay interface on the designated router
C. The neighbor statements on the Frame Relay interface
D. The framE.relay map statement on the Frame Relay interface
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 113
OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. incorrect distribute lists have been configured
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP
E. Theip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which two statements best describe the wireless implementation of Cisco Aironet root and non- root bridging? (Choose two.)
A. Point-to-point access points can be used if one is root and the other is non-root.
B. WGB can be used with an access point if the distance is less than one mile
C. Root mode must be enabled only on one side in a point-to-point link to intemperate with other vendors and comply with 802.11
D. Up to 17 non-root bridges can associate to a root bridge
E. Point-to-point WGB can be used if total number of PCs is fewer than eight. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
CORRECT TEXT
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about what is displayed? (Choose two.) Answer: C, D
QUESTION 116
The customer wants to implement wireless security through implementation of WPAv2. Which component of WPAv2 would limit the rollout because of the continued use of old access points?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 43 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. 48-bit IV
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. MIC
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
A company needs to provide sitE.to-site VPN, remote access VPN, and firewall protection. Which device best supports all three functions?
A. Cisco PIX
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Concentrator
D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
CORRECT TEXT
Which two statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) to configure the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.) Answer: B, E
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is always in the init state. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. R2 is seeing hello packets from R1.
B. R2 is not seeing hello packets from R1. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 44 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
C. The exchanging of data between R1 and R2 is occurring because each is sending hello packets.
D. Two-way communication has not been established between R1 and R2 because R2 is not seeing its router ID in the hello packets that it is receiving from R1
E. R2 has an access list defined for SO that is blocking an OSPF multicast IP address of 224.0.0.5.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 120
Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. Custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
:When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two.)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic.
C. There are excessive CRC errors.
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces.
F. ARP requests are timing out.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
Which command can be used to verify that RIPv2 is running on a router?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 45 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. show startup-config
B. show ip route
C. showip route rip
D. Show ip protocols
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router.
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers.
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM.
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
You have just configured and enabled the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set from a remote location using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Firewall wizard. You later want to doublE. check your configuration using Cisco SDM. However, you find that you can no longer connect to the Cisco IOS Firewall using Cisco SDM.
What is the probable cause of this failure?
A. You must additionally specify the Cisco SDM management port number to gain access when the configuration has been applied.
B. You have not generated an RSA key pair between the host and device to allow secure access via Cisco SDM.
C. You have been locked out via access lists mat nave been applied to the router as a result of your Cisco SDM configuration.
D. You must specify the host IP address of Cisco SDM in the Configuration panel for allowed management connections. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 46 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
An 802.11 b telephone is receiving an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is a possible cause?
A. the RSSI value on the telephone is greater than 35.
B. The access point is set to receive only at 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone do not match the settings in the access point.
D. The transmit power in the telephone is significantly lower than the transmit power in the access point.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 47 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly.
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly.
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the connection.
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
Users logging into Cisco Router and Security Device Manager should be authenticated using the Cisco ISR local user database. Currently, none of the users can access Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTP. You should check the configuration of which command or commands when attempting to resolve this problem?
A. There is no ip http secure-server
B. There is ip http authentication local
C. There is linevty 0 5 login local
D. There isaaa new-model
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
When using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager to configure AAA login authentication policies, which four methods are available? (Choose four.)
A. group RADIUS: use a list of RADIUS hosts
B. group TACACS+ use a list of TACACS+ hosts
C. enable: use enable password
D. otp: use onE.time password
E. local use local database
F. default: use line password
Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
CORRECT TEXT
Which two statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about OSPF in a multiarea environment? (Choose two.) Answer: C, D
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 48 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
QUESTION 130
You have just configured HSRP and need to determine which router is active. Which command should you enter?
A. show ip hsrp active
B. show standby active
C. show star
D. show active
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
A North American customer is using 2.4-GHz radios in a point-to-point configuration. The radio power level is 17 dBm and is transmitting at 11 Mbps. The customer is using 21.5-dBi dish antennas and 50 feet of cabling, with a loss of 8.4 dB per 100 feet. The customer increased the distance between the transmitter stations and began experiencing link problems.
Without using a professional installer, which step should the customer take to fix the situation?
A. Use a cable with a lower loss.
B. Upgrade to an 802.11a radio.
C. Install a higher gain antenna.
D. Increase the transmitter power.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
CORRECT TEXT Which three statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about the IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet standard? (Choose three.) Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION 133
A user is unable to connect to the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTPS. Which two of these might have caused this problem? (Choose two.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. Theip https server command is missing from the running configuration.
B. The ip http securE.server command is missing from the running configuration
C. The user is trying to launch Cisco Router and Security Device Manager from the inside (secured) interface with a firewall enabled.
D. The user has a privilege level lower than 15.
E. The browser security level is set too high.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access point GUI.
B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the infrastructure access points through multicast
C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority number.
D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number followed by MAC address.
E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC address.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between Router A
and Router B. Given the debug output on Router A, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Router A= debug eigrp packets
. m .
01:39:13:
EIGRP: Received HELLO on SerialQ 0 nbr 10.1.2.2
01:39:13:
AS 100, Flags 0x0, Seq 0/0 idbQ 00 iidbQ un/rely 0/0 peerQ un/rely 0/0
01:39:13:
K-value mismatch
A.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatchedmetriC.calculation mechanisms
E.
Router A will form an adjacency with Router B.
F.
Router A will not form an adjacency with Router B “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 50 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Which command assigns a cost value of “17” to a switch port?
A. spanning-tree interfacefastethernet 5/8 17
B. spanning-treeportcost 17
C. spanning-treeportcost 17
D. spanning-treevlan 1 cost 17
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
You have configured and applied a Cisco IOS Firewall access rule to the inbound, untrusted interface. You suspect that the rule may be blocking necessary traffic onto the network. What must you do to delete that rule when using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager?
A. Select ACL Editor > Access Rules to delete the rule.
B. You must remove the association between the rule and the interface before deleting the rule
C. You must delete the associated access list on the interface, then reconfigure the access list as required, and then reapply the access group to the proper interface.
D. Go to the Edit Firewall Policy tab to delete the rule.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
A customer in Europe needs to establish an 11-Mbps wireless bridge link between two office buildings that are approximately 1.3 km apart. The wireless link will pass through a public park, which contains a lake that is surrounded by trees. You run the range calculation and determine that the Cisco Aironet 1300 Series Outdoor Access Point/Bridge should work. You install the link using 10.5-dB yagis with 75 feet of standard Cisco cabling and both radios set at 20 mW. The wireless bridges are not able to establish or maintain a link.
What is needed to successfully complete this link?
A. An amplifier needs to be installed at one of the sites.
B. The antenna must be raised high enough to clear the trees
C. Lower loss cabling needs to be used to bring the EIRP into legal limits. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 51 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
D. Due to the trees, a 21-dBi dish needs to be used for its narrower beam width.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
You connect via Telnet to a Cisco access point and enter the command show dot11 link test. Which output might you obtain?
A. signal-to-noise ratio
B. incoming and outgoing signal strength
C. TX packets dropped
D. RX packets per second
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150-199). “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 52 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. the IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different.
D. the IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the Answer: interesting traffic.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.
How many active VPN clients are currently connected to the 1841 ISR router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 53 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.
Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal IP address to the VPN clients for the “test” VPN group?________________________________________________________________________
A. 10.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200 I
B. 10.1-1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.100
D. 192.168.1.2 to 192.168.1.254
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.1.2
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
Which authentication method is used by the test” VPN group?
A. RSA Encrypted Nounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. PrE.Shared Key
D. Digital Certificate
E. DH2
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
You are the network consultant. You have a customer with a small network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. The keypoint for your customer is to save money. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired..Considering the above requirements. Which solution would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. point-to-point
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
In an infrastructure based on a wireless advanced feature set using lightweight access points, by which method is a rogue contained?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 55 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. The WCS sends excessive traffic to the rogue thus overloading the access point.
B. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeassociation packets.
C. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeauthentication packets.
D. The WCS sends out excessive signals on the same channel when the rogue is detected.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
With industry-leading services and performance, the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch is Cisco’s flagship switching solution. It delivers the most comprehensive feature sets for core, distribution, wiring closet, data center, enterprise WAN routing, and Metro-Ethernet deployments. Which layer you think is recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. core
B. distribution
C. access
D. presentation
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 147
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines the activities needed to help you successfully deploy and operate Cisco technologies and optimize their performance throughout the lifecycle of your network. Which statement is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
B. site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. deployment, testing, implementation, and production
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal ip address to the VPN client for the test
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 56 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. 120.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200
B. 10.1.1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.1681.1 to 192.1681.1.100
D. 192.1681.2 to 192.1681.1.254
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Which authentication method is used by the test VPN group?
A. RSA EncryptedNounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. Pre-shared key
D. DH2
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 57 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RA and RB. Given the debug output on RA, which two statements are true?(Choose two)
A. RA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
B. RA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
C. RA will form an adjacency with RB.
D. RAwill not form an adjacency with RB.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
You are the network administrator. There is one Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System. Which port role assignment would you make for?
A. Cisco Express 520
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. CK-SA and CK-SC are running PVST+ STP, and CK-SB is running 802.1 Q STP. If the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VU\N 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VU\N 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the CK-SB-CK-SC link, because CK-SB runs only one STP merged with VU\N 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there is a forwarding loop. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 58 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs ofVLAU 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. CK-SB sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SA) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. CK-SC sends PVST+BPDUsofVU\N 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SAwill put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SB. CK-SA will put port CK-C-CK-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
A wireless autonomous 1200 access point running core feature set in root mode has its SSID set to Factory_floor and provides connection to a repeater access point with its SSID set to factory_floor, if the root-mode access point is using channel 11 which channel will the repeater “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 59 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
access point use?
A. channel 11
B. channel 1 or 6
C. anynonoverlapping channel
D. The root access point and the repeater will negotiate this setting
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
The VPN server uses a preshared key for remote device authentication
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
A customer with a large enterprise network wants to allow employees to work from home over the Internet. The customer anticipates a large amount of traffic, predominantly toward the central site. The customer also requires a VPN using strong user authentication and encryption to protect highly sensitive data. Which solution best meets this customer’s requirements?
A. remote-access VPN with software encryption
B. remote-access VPN with hardware encryption
C. site-to-site VPN with hub-and-spoke tunnels using 3DES and pre-shared secrets
D. site-to-site Cisco Easy VPN
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of RA and RB. Traffic between PC1 and PC2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between -RA and -RB. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. RAis using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while RB is using a Turbo ACL(150-199).
B. The IPSec encryption methods used by each router do not match.
C. The D-H Group settings on the two routers are the same. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 60 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
You are the network consultant. When will you assess a customer’s current network infrastructure?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. optimize
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
A client is experiencing lower throughput and more packet retransmits is one area of the wireless network. At these times, the client utility shows high signal strength but low signal quality. What may be causing this issue?
A. The client does not support Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2.
B. Diversity is not enabled in the access point.
C. The WDS is failing to register the client card in the WLSM.
D. The channel is set incorrectly in the access point or in the client configuration.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which statement is correct about the current address translation configurations on the security appliance?
A. Dynamic NAT is used to translate the 10.0.1.100 host on the inside interface to a global address of
192.168.1.1
B. Port AddressTranslation(PAT) is used to translate any host on the inside interface to the 192.168.1.100 global address.
C. Static NAT is used to translate the 172.16.1.2 host on thedmzl interface to a global address of
192.168.1.102
D. Dynamic NAT is used to translate any host ondmzl and dmz2 interfaces to a mapped address from the address from the address pool of 192.168.1.110 to 192.168.1.250 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 61 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
VLAN Hopping is one of the primary VLAN based attacks used by hackers to infiltrate network security. VLAN hopping is used to attack a network by sending packets to a port which is generally not accessible.
VLAN hopping attacks are mainly conducted in the Dynamic Trunking Protocol and, in some cases; the attacks are targeted to the trunking encapsulation protocol (802.1 q or ISL).You worry about the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switchporttrunk encapsulation
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport mode access
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
CiscoWorks SNMS is a part of the CiscoWorks family of products for managing small to large networks. CiscoWorks SIMMS is a new Web-based network management solution for small to medium-sized businesses, with 40 or fewer Cisco internetworking devices such as switches, routers, hubs, and access servers. CiscoWorks SNMS can also monitor third-party IT assets such as servers, applications, services, and printers A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks WAN Management
C. CiscoWorks LAN Management
D. CiscoWorks SNMS
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which statement is correct about the information in the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager General and License Information screen?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 62 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. The security appliance supports active/active failover only.
B. The security appliance supports 3DES-AES only.
C. The managed device is a Cisco ASA 5540 Security Appliance with VPN premium license enabled.
D. The managed device is Cisco PIX515E Security Appliance.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Which three are different types of STP inconsistencies in a Layer 2 network?(Choose three) A. MAC inconsistency
B. Root inconsistency
C. EtherChannel inconsistency
D. type inconsistency
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
According to the error log, VLAN 1 is where the BPDU was received, and VLAN 2 is where the BPDU originated. When inconsistency is detected, what happens?
A. VLAN 1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is forwarding
B. VLAN1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is listening
C. Both VLANs are listening on the port from which this BPDU is send
D. Both VLANs are blocked on the port from which this BPDU is received
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which is the current configured default gateway IP address on the security appliance?
A. 172.16.10.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 192.168.1.2
D. 10.0.1.1
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 63 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
QUESTION 166
Which statement is true about a Cisco Aironet 350 Series wireless client when its green LED appears to be off and its amber LED is blinking?
A. The client adapter is scanning for a network.
B. The client adapter is in ad hoc mode.
C. The client adapter is performing a self-test.
D. The client adapter is in power-save mode.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 167
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant. Your IT Manager tells you 802.11b telephone can receive an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is the most likely reason?
A. The value of RSSI telephone is greater than 30.
B. The access point only receives 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone mismatch the access point.
D. The telephone transmit power is significantly lower than the t the access point
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 101
You are working with multiple firewalls that have extensive Rule Bases. To simplify administration task, which of the following should you choose to do?
A. Create Network range objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks.
B. Run separate GUI clients for external and internal firewalls.
C. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as stealth and clean-up rules.
D. Save a different Rule Base for each remote firewall.
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
Currently, the Accounting Department is FTP-ing a file in the bank. Which Log Viewer Module would show you the activity occurring at the present time?
A. Security Log.
B. Active Connections Log.
C. Accounting Log-
D. Administrative Log.
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
With Blocking Scope default settings, a selected connection is terminated:
A. And all further attempts to establish a connection from the same source IP address to the same destination IP address and port will be blocked.
B. But all further attempts to establish connections from this specific source IP address will be authenticated before being denied.
C. And all further attempts to establish connections to this specific destination IP address will be denied.
D. And all further attempts to establish a connection from the same source IP address to the firewall’s IP address will be blocked.
E. Both A and D.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
Consider the following Rule Base for VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG. Assuming the default settings in global properties have NOT changed, ICMP would be allowed through the firewall. No SOURCE SERVICE ACTION TRACK
DESTINATION
1 Any Web_Server http Accept Long
2 Any Any Any Any Long
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
Which is the correct rule in the following Rule Base? No SOURCE SERVICE ACTION TRACK DESTINATION
1 Any Any Session Log Auth AllUsers@Chicago
2 Chicago Any Session Log Auth AllUsers@Chicago
3 Any Any Session Log Auth AllUsers@Any
4 Any Any User Log Auth AllUsers@Chicago
A. Rule 2
B. Rule 1
C. Rule 3
D. Rule 4
E. None of the rules allow access.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
In the Client Authentication Action Properties window (below), for the required Sign On Method section, Manual is selected.
This means:
A. If a connection matches the Rule Base the service is an authenticated service, the client is signed on after a successful authentication.
B. The user must initiate the Client Authentication Session to the gateway.
C. If a connection using any service matches Rule Base, the client is authenticated.
D. If authentication is successful, access is granted from the network that initiated the connection.
E. The user must TELNET to the target server on port 259.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
Changes made to the Security Policy do not take effect on the Enforcement Module until the administrator performs which of the following actions?
A. Saves the policy.
B. Verifies the policy.
C. Install the policy.
D. Stops firewall services on the Enforcement Module.
E. Stops firewall services on the Management module.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 108
Consider the following network: The public servers are a web form. Since the web servers accepts and initiate connections Dynamic translation is required.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 109
The fw fetch command perform the following function:
A. Attempts to fetch the policy from the Management Server.
B. Fetches users from the Management server.
C. Produces an output screen of the Rule Base.
D. Fetches the logs.
E. Fetches the systems status.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 110
Inclement weather and a UPS-failure cause a firewall to reboot. Earlier that day a tornado destroyed the building where the firewall’s Management Module was located. The Management Module was not recovered and has not been replaced. Bases on the scenario, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The firewall will continue to enforce the last rule base installed.
B. The firewall will log locally.
C. The firewall will fetch the last installed policy form local host and install it.
D. Communication between the firewall and the replacement Management Module must be established before the replacement Management Module can install a policy on the firewall.
E. Because the firewall cannot contact the Management Module, no policy will be installed.
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 111
When configuring Anti-Spoofing for VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG on the firewall interfaces, all of the following are valid address choices except:
A. Network defined by Interface IP and Net Mask.
B. Not Defined.
C. Security Policy Installed.
D. Specific
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 112
The security administrator for the following configuration only allows members of the localnet managers group access files in BigBen (the FTP Server)
Select below the rule that allows local managers to access the FTP server from any location. No SOURCE SERVICE ACTION
DESTINATION
1 BigBen ftp User Auth LocalManagers@Any
2 BigBen ftp Client Auth LocalManagers@Net_London
3 BigBen ftp Session Auth LocalManagers@Any 4 BigBen ftp User Auth LocalManagers@Net_Tokyo
A. Rule 1.
B. Rule 2.
C. Rule 3.
D. Rule 4.
E. None of these rules allow access.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 113
Assume that you are working on a Windows NT operating system. What is the default expiration for a Dynamic NAT connection NOT showing any UDP activity?
A. 30 Seconds.
B. 60 Seconds.
C. 40 Seconds.
D. 600 Seconds.
E. 3000 Seconds.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 114
Assume there has been no change made to default policy properties. To allow a telnet connection into your
network, you must create two rules.
One to allow the initial Telnet connection in.
One to allow the destination machine to send information back to the client.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 115
In Windows NT to force log entries other than the default directory.
A. You must use the cpconfig command.
B. Change the fwlog environment variable.
C. Modify the registry.
D. Change the directory in log viewer.
E. Use the fw log switch command.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 116
For most installations, the Clean-Up rule should be the last rule in Rule Base.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 117
What complements are necessary for VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG to scan e-mail, passing through the firewall, for macro viruses?
A. UFP and OPSEC-certified scanning product.
B. CVP and OPSEC-certified virus scanning product.
C. UFP and CVP.
D. UFP, CVP and OPSEC-certified content filter.
E. None of the above, VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG scans for macro viruses by default.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 118
Why would you want to verify a Security Policy before installation?
A. To install Security Policy cleanly.
B. To check up the enforcement-point firewall for errors.
C. To identify conflicting rules in your Security Policy.
D. To compress the Rule Base for faster installation
E. There us no benefit verifying a Security Policy before installing it.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
To completely setup Static NAT, you ONLY have to select Add Automatic Address Translation rules on the NAT tab, and specify a public NAT IP address.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 120
If you configure the Minutes interval for a firewall in the User Authentication session timeout box, as shown below on the Authentication Tab of the Workstations properties window, users of one time password must re-authenticate for each request during this time period.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
What does a status of Untrusted tell you?
A. A VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG firewall module has been compromised.
B. A gateway cannot be reached.
C. A module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is problematic.
D. A gateway is connected, but the management module is not the master of the module installed on the gateway.
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
Omanan Enterprises has the premier reclamation system for scrap aluminum in the western hemisphere. Then phenomenal growth over the last 10 years has led to the decision to establish a presence in the Internet in order to their customers. To that end, Omanan Enterprise network administrator, Jason has acquired a Web Server, and email server and 14 IP addresses from their ISP. Jason also purchased a Checkpoint VPN-1/FireWall-1 stand alone gateway module, with these interfaces, to protect Omanan enterprises’ corporate data their ISP will be providing DNS services. The Web Server and email server must have Static routable IP addresses. The eight member executive counsel of Omanan Enterprises would to have routable IP addresses also, so that they can video-conference with the company’s suppliers. Omanan Enterprises’ remaining 200 employees would like to have access to Internet, and the executive counsel believe that granting them access might improve company morale. Jason installs and configured Checkpoint VPN-1/FireWall1 stand alone Gateway module at the perimeter of Omanan Enterprises corporate LAN. He uses the 3rd NIC in the stand alone firewall gateway module to create DMZ. Jason installs the Web server and the email server on the DMZ. He creates tools and objects on the checkpoint VPN-1/FireWall-1 stand alone gateway module to allow HTTP, POP3 and SMTP from the Internet to the DMZ. He Creates objects to represent the web and email server and configures them for Static NAT. Jason reconfigures his DHCP server so that each of the members of the executive counsel has reserved IP address. He then sues those reservations co create Statically NAT-ed objects on the Checkpoint VPN/ Firewall-1 Standalone Gateway module. Jason creates another object represents the internal network he
configures this object for Dynamic NAT. He adds a rule allowing HTTP traffic from the internal network to
any destination. Jason created an additional rule to allow POP3 and SMTP traffic between the internal
networks and DMZ.
Choose the one phrase below that best describes Jason’s proposal.
A. The proposed solution meets the required objectives and none of the desired objectives.
B. The proposed solution meets the required objectives and only one of the desired objectives.
C. The proposed solution meets the required objectives and all desired objectives.
D. The proposed solution does not meet the required objective.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
Anna is a security administrator setting up User Authentication for the first time. She has correctly configured her Authentication rule, but authentication still does not work. What is the Check Point recommended way to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Verify the properties of the user attempting authentication and the authentication method selected in the Authentication Properties of your firewall object.
B. Verify the firewall settings of your firewall object, and the properties for the user attempting encryption and authentication.
C. Verify the properties for the user attempting authentication and make sure that the file Stealth Authentication method is selected in the Authentication properties of both the peer gateway object and your firewall object.
D. Verify both Client and User Authentication, and the authentication method selected in the Authentication properties of your Firewall object.
E. Re-import Schema from the VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG installation CD.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 124
Session authentication provides an authentication method NOT supported by protocols that can be integrated with any application. No. Source Service Action Track Install On Destination
1.
Any Local_Net telnet Accept Long Gateways
2.
Any Accept Long Gateways Pub Pub Server1 Server2
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 125
How do recover communications between your management module and enforcement module if you lock yourself out via a rule policy that is configured incorrectly?
A. Cp delete all all.
B. Cp pause all all.
C. Cp stop all all.
D. Cp unload all all.
E. Cp push all all.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 126
You have set up a firewall and management module on one NT box and a remote module on a different location. You receive only sporadic logs from the local firewall and only and control message from remote firewall. All rules on both firewalls are logging and you know the traffic is flowing through the firewall using these rules. All the firewall related services are running and you are using NAT and you receive few logs from the local firewall. What actions from the choices below would you perform to find out why you cannot see logs?
A. Make sure there is no masters file in SFWDIR/conf on the remote module.
B. Make sure there is no masters file in SFWDIR/conf on the local NT box.
C. See if you can do a fwfetch from the module.
D. Run the fw logexport -t -n from the command line prompt on the remote module.
E. Use pulist.exe from the Windows NT resource kit.
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 81
A security administrator implements Secure Configuration Verification (SCV), because SCV: (Choose THREE.)
A. Does not enable the administrator to monitor the configuration of remote computers.
B. Can block connectivity for machines that do not comply with the organization’s security policy.
C. Enables the administrator to monitor the configuration of remote computers.
D. Prevents attackers from penetrating headquarters’ Security Gateway.
E. Confirms that a remote configuration complies with the organization’s security policy.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 82
Which of the following is likely in a small-business environment?
A. Most small businesses employ a full-time information-technology staff.
B. Resources are available as needed.
C. Small businesses have security personnel on staff.
D. Most employees have experience with information security.
E. Security budgets are very small.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 83
ABC Corporation’s network is configured such that a user must log in individually at each server and access control. Which type of authentication is in use?
A. Role-based access control
B. Three-factor authentication
C. Single sign-on
D. Hybrid access control
E. Mandatory sign-on
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 84
Which type of Business Continuity Plan (BCP) test involves shutting down a primary site, bringing an alternate site on-line, and moving all operations to the alternate site?
A. Parallel
B. Full interruption
C. Checklist
D. Structured walkthrough
E. Simulation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
A(n) _______ is the first step for determining which technical information assets should be protected.
A. Network diagram
B. Business Impact Analysis
C. Office floor plan
D. Firewall
E. Intrusion detection system
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Which of the following is an example of a simple, physical-access control?
A. Lock
B. Access control list
C. Background check
D. Token
E. Firewall
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Which of the following best describes an external intrusion attempt on a local-area network (LAN)?
A. Internal users try to gain unauthorized access to information assets outside the organizational perimeter.
B. External-intrusion attempts from sources outside the LAN are not granted permissions or rights to an organization’s information assets.
C. External users attempt to access public resources.
D. External intruders attempt exploitation of vulnerabilities, to remove their own access.
E. Internal users perform inappropriate acts on assets to which they have been given rights or permissions.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
Maintenance of the Business Continuity Plan (BCP) must be integrated with an organization’s _______________ process.
A. Change-control
B. Disaster-recovery
C. Inventory-maintenance
D. Discretionary-budget
E. Compensation-review
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
Which types of security solutions should a home user deploy? (Choose TWO.)
A. Managed Security Gateway
B. Access control lists on a router
C. Personal firewall
D. Network intrusion-detection system
E. Anti-virus software
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 90
You are a system administrator for a pool of Web servers. The vendor who sells your Web server posts a patch and sample exploit for a newly discovered vulnerability. You will take all of the actions listed below. Which of the following actions should you take first?
A. Run the sample exploit against a test server.
B. Run the sample exploit against a production server.
C. Apply the patch to all production servers.
D. Test the patch on a production server.
E. Test the patch on a non-production server.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 91
_______ is a method of tricking users into revealing passwords, or other sensitive information.
A. Dumpster diving
B. Means testing
C. Social engineering
D. Risk
E. Exposure
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
Which of the following equations results in the Single Loss Expectancy for an asset?
A. Asset Value x % Of Loss From Realized Exposure
B. Asset Value x % Of Loss From Realized Threat
C. Annualized Rate of Occurrence / Annualized Loss Expectancy
D. Asset Value x % Of Loss From Realized Vulnerability
E. Annualized Rate of Occurrence x Annualized Loss Expectancy
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
Which encryption algorithm has the highest bit strength?
A. AES
B. Blowfish
C. DES
D. CAST
E. Triple DES
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
_________________ is a type of cryptography, where letters of an original message are systematically rearranged into another sequence.
A. Symmetric-key exchange
B. Steganography
C. Transposition cipher
D. Asymmetric-key encryption
E. Simple substitution cipher
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 95
Which of the following are appropriate uses of asymmetric encryption? (Choose THREE.)
A. Authentication
B. Secure key-exchange mechanisms
C. Public Web site access
D. Data-integrity checking
E. Sneaker net
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 96
What is the purpose of resource isolation?
A. To reduce the level of broadcast traffic on physical segments.
B. To ensure that anyone accessing a resource has appropriate integrity.
C. To automate the creation of access control lists and Trusted Computing Bases.
D. To enforce access controls, and clearly separate resources from each other.
E. To make people buy more computers than they really need.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 97
Why should user populations be segmented?
A. To allow resources to be shared among employees
B. To allow appropriate collaboration, and prevent inappropriate resource sharing
C. To prevent appropriate collaboration
D. To provide authentication services
E. To prevent the generation of audit trails from gateway devices
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
A(n) _______________ is an abstract machine, which mediates all access subjects have to objects.
A. ACL
B. Reference monitor
C. State machine
D. TCB
E. Router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 99
Who should have physical access to network-connectivity devices and corporate servers?
A. Customers and clients
B. Accounting, information-technology, and auditing staff
C. Managers and C-level executives
D. Only appropriate information-technology personnel
E. Only the maintenance staff
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
Which of the following represents a valid reason for testing a patch on a nonproduction system, before applying it to a production system?
A. Patches may re-enable services previously disabled.
B. Patches are a kind of virus.
C. Patches always overwrite user data.
D. Only patches on vendor-pressed CDs can be trusted.
E. Patches usually break important system functionality.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 101
How do virtual corporations maintain confidentiality?
A. Encryption
B. Checksum
C. Data hashes
D. Redundant servers
E. Security by obscurity
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 102
Enterprise employees working remotely require access to data at an organization’s headquarters. Which of the following is the BEST method to transfer this data?
A. Standard e-mail
B. Faxed information
C. Dial-in access behind the enterprise firewall
D. Virtual private network
E. CD-ROMs shipped with updated versions of the data
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
Which of the following is NOT a concern for enterprise physical security?
A. Network Intrusion Detection Systems
B. Social engineering
C. Dumpster diving
D. Property theft
E. Unauthorized access to a facility
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 104
A(n) _______________ is an abstract machine, which mediates all access subjects have to objects.
A. ACL
B. Reference monitor
C. State machine
D. TCB
E. Router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
Digital signatures are typically provided by a ____________________, where a third party verifies a key’s authenticity.
A. Network firewall
B. Security administrator
C. Domain controller
D. Certificate Authority
E. Hash function
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
Which of the following is a cost-effective solution for securely transmitting data between remote offices?
A. Standard e-mail
B. Fax machine
C. Virtual private network
D. Bonded courier
E. Telephone
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration, when developing security- awareness training materials?
A. Training material should be accessible and attractive.
B. Delivery mechanisms should allow easy development of additional materials, to complement core material.
C. Security-awareness training materials should never contradict an organizational security policy.
D. Appropriate language should be used to facilitate localization, should training materials require translation.
E. Written documentation should be archived, in case of disaster.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 108
Why should the number of services on a server be limited to required services?
A. Every open service represents a potential vulnerability.
B. Closed systems require special connectivity services.
C. Running extra services makes machines more efficient.
D. All services are inherently stable and secure.
E. Additional services make machines more secure.
Correct Answer: A
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