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QUESTION 1
Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization’s configuration management process?
A. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Chief Information Officer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then working within a budget to implement the plan
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3
The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) play the
role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about ISSO and
ISSE?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes.
B. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
D. An ISSO takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes.
E. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Information system owner
B. Authorizing Official
C. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
D. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores,
transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are
identified by DIACAP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Accreditation
B. Identification
C. System Definition
D. Verification
E. Validation
F. Re-Accreditation
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 7
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Role-Based Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Policy Access Control
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following refers to an information security document that is used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS
C. TCSEC
D. SSAA
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:
Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from
the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established
information classification policy.
What is the role played by James in the organization?
A. Manager
B. Owner
C. Custodian
D. User
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels shows that the procedures and controls have been implemented?
A. Level 4
B. Level 1
C. Level 3
D. Level 5
E. Level 2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. Which of the following is the correct order of C&A phases in a DITSCAP assessment?
A. Definition, Validation, Verification, and Post Accreditation
B. Verification, Definition, Validation, and Post Accreditation
C. Verification, Validation, Definition, and Post Accreditation
D. Definition, Verification, Validation, and Post Accreditation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a
comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases
of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Post-Authorization
B. Pre-certification
C. Post-certification
D. Certification
E. Authorization
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 13
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. Which of the following statements are true about Certification and Accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
B. Accreditation is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
C. Certification is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
D. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
Which of the following requires all general support systems and major applications to be fully certified and accredited before these systems and applications are put into production? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NIST
B. FIPS
C. FISMA
D. Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 15
The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security information. What are the different types of NIACAP accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Secure accreditation
B. Type accreditation
C. System accreditation
D. Site accreditation
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 16
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance
(IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among the eight
areas of IA defined by DoD?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B. DC Security Design & Configuration
C. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
D. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 17
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores,
transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are
identified by DIACAP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Validation
B. Re-Accreditation
C. Verification
D. System Definition
E. Identification
F. Accreditation
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is a subset discipline of Corporate Governance focused on information security systems and their performance and risk management?
A. Lanham Act
B. ISG
C. Clinger-Cohen Act
D. Computer Misuse Act
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Ben is the project manager of the YHT Project for his company. Alice, one of his team members, is confused about when project risks will happen in the project. Which one of the following statements is the most accurate about when project risk happens?
A. Project risk can happen at any moment.
B. Project risk is uncertain, so no one can predict when the event will happen.
C. Project risk happens throughout the project execution.
D. Project riskis always in the future.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project’s success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization’s profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event’s probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Mitigation-ready project management
C. Risk utility function
D. Risk-reward mentality
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Cost management plan
C. Risk management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact should they happen. You have studied the risk events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants you to do more. They’d like for you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and impact with a financial amount for each risk event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
A. Risk response plan
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Risk response
D. Contingency reserve
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Authorizing Official
B. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Information system owner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You are working as a project manager in your organization. You are nearing the final stages of project execution and looking towards the final risk monitoring and controlling activities. For your project archives, which one of the following is an output of risk monitoring and control?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Requested changes
D. Risk audits
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management Manual?
A. DoDD 8000.1
B. DoD 7950.1-M
C. DoD 5200.22-M
D. DoD 8910.1
E. DoD 5200.1-R
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning. Which of the following processes take place in phase 3? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
B. Document and implement a mitigation plan.
C. Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
D. Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project. Which of the following statement is most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?
A. The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.
B. The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.
C. The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.
D. The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop DIACAP strategy.
B. Assign IA controls.
C. Assemble DIACAP team.
D. Initiate IA implementation plan.
E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
F. Conduct validation activity.
Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 30
Information risk management (IRM) is the process of identifying and assessing risk, reducing it to an
acceptable level, and implementing the right mechanisms to maintain that level. What are the different
categories of risk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. System interaction
B. Human interaction
C. Equipment malfunction
D. Inside and outside attacks
E. Social status
F. Physical damage
Correct Answer: BCDEF
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QUESTION 106
A Security Policy has several database versions. What configuration remains the same no matter which version is used?
A. Objects_5_0.C
B. fwauth.NDB
C. Rule Bases_5_0.fws
D. Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) certificate
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 107
You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which one of the following would you choose to do?
A. Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks.
B. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.
C. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.
D. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 108
Which rules are not applied on a first-match basis?
A. Client Authentication
B. Session Authentication
C. User Authentication
D. Cleanup
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 109
Installing a policy usually has no impact on currently existing connections. Which statement is TRUE?
A. All connections are reset, so a policy install is recommended during announced downtime only.
B. Users being authenticated by Client Authentication have to re-authenticate.
C. Site-to-Site VPNs need to re-authenticate, so Phase 1 is passed again after installing the Security Policy.
D. All FTP downloads are reset; users have to start their downloads again.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 110
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have a unique Policy Package. These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are
defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.
B. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install.
C. In the SmartDashboard policy, select the correct firewall to be the Specific Target of the rule.
D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
A ___________ rule is used to prevent all traffic going to the R75 Security Gateway.
A. Cleanup
B. Stealth
C. Reject
D. IPS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed the default check from Accept Control Connections under the Policy > Global Properties > FireWall tab. In order for the Security Management Server to install a policy to the Firewall, an explicit rule must be created to allow the server to communicate to the Security Gateway on port __________.
A. 259
B. 256
C. 80
D. 900
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 113
To check the Rule Base, some rules can be hidden so they do not distract the administrator from the unhidden rules. Assume that only rules accepting HTTP or SSH will be shown. How do you accomplish this?
A. This cannot be configured since two selections (Service, Action) are not possible.
B. Ask your reseller to get a ticket for Check Point SmartUse and deliver him the Security Management Server cpinfo file.
C. In SmartDashboard menu, select Search > Rule Base Queries. In the window that opens, create a new Query, give it a name (e.g. “HTTP_SSH”) and define a clause regarding the two services HTTP and SSH. When having applied this, define a second clause for the action Accept and combine them with the Boolean operator AND.
D. In SmartDashboard, right-click in the column field Service > Query Column. Then, put the services HTTP and SSH in the list. Do the same in the field Action and select Accept here.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 114
What CANNOT be configured for existing connections during a policy install?
A. Reset all connections
B. Re-match connections
C. Keep all connections
D. Keep data connections
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 115
What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?
A. To permit implied rules.
B. To drop all traffic to the management server that is not explicitly permitted.
C. To prevent users from connecting directly to the gateway.
D. To permit management traffic.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 116
Which of these Security Policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A. Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible.
B. Using domain objects in rules when possible.
C. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base.
D. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 117
Your perimeter Security Gateway’s external IP is 200.200.200.3. Your network diagram shows:Required:
Allow only network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 to go out to Internet, using 200.200.200.5.
The local network 192.168.1.0/24 needs to use 200.200.200.3 to go out to the Internet.
Assume you enable all the settings in the NAT page of Global Properties.
How do you achieve this requirement?
A. Create a network object 192.168.0.0/16. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page. Enter
200.200.200.5 as the hiding IP address. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
B. Create network objects for 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Enable Hide NAT on both network objects, using 200.200.200.5 as hiding IP address. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.3 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.5.
C. Create an Address Range object, starting from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.20.254. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page of the address range object. Enter Hiding IP address 200.200.200.5. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
D. Create two network objects: 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Add the two network objects to a group object. Create a manual NAT rule like the following: Original source -groupobject; Destination – any; Service – any; Translated source – 200.200.200.5; Destination -original; Service – original.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 118
Because of pre-existing design constraints, you set up manual NAT rules for your HTTP server. However, your FTP server and SMTP server are both using automatic NAT rules. All traffic from your FTP and SMTP servers are passing through the Security Gateway without a problem, but traffic from the Web server is dropped on rule 0 because of anti-spoofing settings. What is causing this?
A. Allow bi-directional NAT is not checked in Global Properties.
B. Translate destination on client side is not checked in Global Properties under Manual NAT Rules.
C. Manual NAT rules are not configured correctly.
D. Routing is not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway’s external interface. You browse to from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0 to exit the network. How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker?
A. Two, one for outbound, one for inbound
B. Only one, inbound
C. Only one, outbound
D. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
Which of the following statements BEST describes Check Point’s Hide Network Address Translation method?
A. Translates many source IP addresses into one source IP address
B. Many-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
C. Translates many destination IP addresses into one destination IP address
D. One-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 121
Which Check Point address translation method allows an administrator to use fewer ISP-assigned IP addresses than the number of internal hosts requiring Internet connectivity?
A. Static Source
B. Static Destination
C. Dynamic Destination
D. Hide
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?
A. Host
B. HTTP Logical Server
C. Address Range
D. Gateway
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 123
Which Check Point address translation method is necessary if you want to connect from a host on the Internet via HTTP to a server with a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address on your DMZ?
A. Hide Address Translation
B. Static Destination Address Translation
C. Port Address Translation
D. Dynamic Source Address Translation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 124
You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the firewall external interface and the Internet. What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
B. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
C. Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
D. Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall’s external address.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped by antispoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause?
A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal – Network defined by IP and Mask. Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.
B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology to External.
C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External. Change topology to Others +.
D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal – Network defined by IP and Mask. Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 126
Which NAT option applicable for Automatic NAT applies to Manual NAT as well?
A. Translate destination on client-side
B. Enable IP Pool NAT
C. Allow bi-directional NAT
D. Automatic ARP configuration
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?
A. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24.
B. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule.
C. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24.
D. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 128
You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You want internal users from 10.10.10.x to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway’s external interface.
What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ servers’ public IP addresses?
A. When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.
B. When connecting to internal network 10.10.10.x, configure Hide NAT for the DMZ network behind the Security Gateway DMZ interface.
C. When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.
D. When trying to access DMZ servers, configure Hide NAT for 10.10.10.x behind the DMZ’s
interface. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 129 An internal host initiates a session to and is set for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway. The initiating traffic is an example of ____________.
A. None of these
B. source NAT
C. destination NAT
D. client side NAT
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 130
A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the _________.
A. source on client side
B. source on server side
C. destination on client side
D. destination on server side
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 131
A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT. Client side NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server?
A. A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway’s upstream router.
B. Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
C. Nothing else must be configured.
D. A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 132
When translation occurs using automatic Hide NAT, what also happens?
A. The destination port is modified.
B. Nothing happens.
C. The destination is modified.
D. The source port is modified.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 133
The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
A. Address translation
B. Log Consolidation Engine
C. User data base corruption
D. Phase two key negotiation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT.
A. This is an example of Hide NAT.
B. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.
C. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine the NAT settings.
D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:
A. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.
B. The Security Gateway’s ARP file must be modified.
C. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
D. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 74
You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running SecurePlatform. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout?
A. Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.
B. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.
C. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.
D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinto.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
Many companies have defined more than one administrator. To increase security, only one administrator should be able to install a Rule Base on a specific Firewall. How do you configure this?
A. Define a permission profile in SmartDashboard with read/write privileges, but restrict it to all other firewalls by placing them in the Policy Targets field. Then, an administrator with this permission profile cannot install a policy on any Firewall not listed here.
B. In the General Properties of the object representing the specific Firewall, go to the Software Blades product list and select Firewall. Right-click in the menu, select Administrator to Install to define only this administrator.
C. Put the one administrator in an Administrator group and configure this group in the specific Firewall object in Advanced / Permission to Install.
D. Right-click on the object representing the specific administrator, and select that Firewall in Policy Targets.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a SecurePlatform. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.
A. cthtool
B. ifconfig a
C. eth_set
D. mii_tool
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Which command enables IP forwarding on IPSO?
A. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
B. clish -c set routing active enable
C. echo 0 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. ipsofwd on admin
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
Looking at an fw monitor capture in Wireshark, the initiating packet in Hide NAT translates on________.
A. I
B. O
C. o
D. i
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 79
You want to create an ASCII formatted output file of the fw monitor command. What is the correct syntax to accomplish this task?
A. fw monitor -e “accept;” > /tmp/monitor.txt
B. fw monitor -e “accept;” -f > /tmp/monitor.txt
C. fw monitor -m iO -e “accept;” -o /tmp/monitor.txt
D. fw monitor -e “accept;” -w /tmp/monitor.txt
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 80
The button Get Address, found on the Host Node Object > General Properties page, will retrieve what?
A. The domain name
B. The fully qualified domain name
C. The Mac address
D. The IP address
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81
When you change an implicit rule’s order from last to first in global properties, how do you make the change take effect?
A. Select save from the file menu
B. Reinstall the security policy
C. Select install database from the policy menu
D. Run fw fetch from the security gateway
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
You create implicit and explicit rules for the following network. The group object internal-networks includes networks 10.10.10.0 and 10.10.20.0. Assume Accept ICMP requests is enabled as Before last in Global Properties.
Based on these rules, what happens if you Ping from host 10.10.10.5 to a host on the Internet by IP address? ICMP will be:
A. dropped by rule 0.
B. dropped by rule 2, the Cleanup Rule.
C. accepted by rule 1.
D. dropped by the last Implicit rule.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?
A. Host
B. Domain
C. Network
D. Security Gateway
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 84
Spoofing is a method of:
A. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.
B. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through port address Translation.
C. Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address
D. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 85
Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?
A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset.
B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig and type a new activation key.
C. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.
D. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 86
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam You installed Security Management Server on a computer using SecurePlatform in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second SecurePlatform computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?
1) Run cpconfig on the gateway, set secure internal communication, enter the activation key and reconfirm.
2) Initialize internal certificate authority (ICA) on the security Management server.
3) Confirm the gateway object with the host name and IP address for the remote site.
4) Click the communication button in the gateway object’s general screen, enter the activation key, and click initialize and ok.
5) Install the security policy.
A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
B. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
C. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
You want to reset SIC between smberlin and sgosaka.
In SmartDashboard, you choose sgosaka, Communication, Reset. On sgosaka, you start cpconfig, choose Secure Internal Communication and enter the new SIC Activation Key. The screen reads The SIC was successfully initialized and jumps back to the cpconfig menu. When trying to establish a connection, instead of a working connection, you receive this error message:
What is the reason for this behavior?
A. You must first initialize the Gateway object in SmartDashboard (i.e., right-click on the object, choose Basic Setup / Initialize).
B. The Gateway was not rebooted, which is necessary to change the SIC key.
C. The Check Point services on the Gateway were not restarted because you are still in the cpconfig utility.
D. The activation key contains letters that are on different keys on localized keyboards. Therefore, the activation can not be typed in a matching fashion.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
Which rule should be the Cleanup Rule in the Rule Base?
A. Last. It serves a logging function before the implicit drop.
B. Last, it explicitly drops otherwise accepted traffic
C. Before last followed by the Stealth Rule.
D. First, it explicitly accepts otherwise dropped traffic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
What are the two basic rules which should be used by all Security Administrators?
A. Administrator Access and Stealth rules
B. Cleanup and Administrator Access rules
C. Network Traffic and Stealth rules
D. Cleanup and Stealth rules
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
When you hide a rule in a Rule Base, how can you then disable the rule?
A. Use the search utility in SmartDashboard to view all hidden rules Select the relevant rule and click Disable Rule(s).
B. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and select Disable Rule(s).
C. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and uncheck Hide, then right-click and select Disable Rule(s); re-hide the rule.
D. Hidden rules are already effectively disabled from Security Gateway enforcement.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 91
A Stealth rule is used to:
A. Use the Security Gateway to hide the border router from internal attacks.
B. Cloak the type of Web server in use behind the Security Gateway.
C. Prevent communication to the Security Gateway itself.
D. Prevent tracking of hosts behind the Security Gateway.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 92
A Clean-up rule is used to:
A. Drop without logging connections that would otherwise be dropped and logged fry default
B. Log connections that would otherwise be accepted without logging by default.
C. Log connections that would otherwise be dropped without logging by default.
D. Drop without logging connections that would otherwise be accepted and logged by default
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 93
Which statement is TRUE about implicit rules?
A. They are derived from Global Properties and explicit object properties.
B. The Gateway enforces implicit rules that enable outgoing packets only.
C. You create them in SmartDashboard.
D. Changes to the Security Gateway’s default settings do not affect implicit rules.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 94
You have included the Cleanup Rule in your Rule Base. Where in the Rule Base should the Accept ICMP Requests implied rule have no effect?
A. First
B. Before Last
C. Last
D. After Stealth Rule
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 95
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed all default check boxes from the Policy / Global Properties / Firewall tab. In order for the Security Gateway to send logs to the Security Management Server, an explicit rule must be created to allow the Security Gateway to communicate to the Security Management Server on port ______.
A. 259
B. 257
C. 900
D. 256
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
Examine the following Security Policy. What, if any, changes could be made to accommodate Rule 4?
A. Nothing at all
B. Modify the Source or Destination columns in Rule 4
C. Remove the service HTTPS from the Service column in Rule A
D. Modify the VPN column in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 97
A Security Policy has several database versions. What configuration remains the same no matter which version is used?
A. Rule Bases_5_0.fws
B. Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) certificate
C. Fwauth.NDB
D. Objects_5_0.C
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce a common set of rules. To minimize the number of policy packages, which one of the following would you choose to do?
A. Install a separate local Security Management Server and SmartConsole for each remote Security Gateway.
B. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway and specify Install On / Gateways.
C. Create a single Security Policy package with Install On / Target defined whenever a unique rule is required for a specific Gateway.
D. Run separate SmartDashbord instance to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 99
Which rules are not applied on a first-match basis?
A. Cleanup
B. User Authentication
C. Session Authentication
D. Client Authentication
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 100
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have a unique Policy Package. These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.
B. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install.
C. In the SmartDashboard main menu go to Policy / Policy Installation / Targets and select the correct firewall to be put into the list via Specific Targets.
D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 101
Which of these security policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A. Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible
B. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
C. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D. Using domain objects in rules when possible
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 102
Your perimeter Security Gateway’s external IP is 200.200.200.3. Your network diagram shows: RequireD. Allow only network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 to go out to the Internet, using 200.
200.200.5.
The local network 192.168.1.0/24 needs to use 200.200.200.3 to go out to the Internet.
Assuming you enable all the settings in the NAT page of Global Properties, how could you achieve these requirements?
A. Create a network object 192.168.0.0/16. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page. Enter 200.200.200.5 as the hiding IP address. Add and ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.”
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Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
address of 200.200.200.3.
B. Create network objects for 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Enable Hide NAT on both network objects, using 200.200.200.5 as hiding IP address Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.3 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.5.
C. Create an Address Range object, starting from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.20.254. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page of the address range object. Enter Hiding IP address 200.200.200.5. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
D. Create two network objects: 192.168.10.0/24. and 192.168.20.0/24. Add the two network objects. Create a manual NAT rule like the following Original source group object; Destination any Service -any, Translated source 200.200.200.5; Destination original, Service original.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway’s external interface. You browse to from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0 to exit the network. How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker?
A. Only one, outbound
B. Two, one for outbound, one for inbound
C. Only one, inbound
D. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 104
Which of the following statements BEST describes Check Point’s Hide Network Address Translation method?
A. Many-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
B. Translates many destination IP addresses into one destination IP address
C. Translates many source IP addresses into one source IP address
D. One-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
Which Check Point address translation method allows an administrator to use fewer ISP-assigned IP addresses than the number of internal hosts requiring Internet connectivity?
A. Static Destination
B. Hide
C. Dynamic Destination
D. Static Source
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
NAT can be implemented on which of the following lists of objects?
A. Host, Network
B. Host, User
C. Domain, Network
D. Network, Dynamic Object
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 107
You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the external interface of the firewall and the Internet. What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A. Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B. Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall’s external address.
C. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped by anti- spoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause?
A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External.Change topology to Others +.
B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology to External
C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal -Network defined by IP and Mask Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side
D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal – Network defined by IP and Mask. Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
Which NAT option applicable for Automatic NAT applies to Manual NAT as well?
A. Allow bi-directional NAT
B. Automatic ARP configuration
C. Enable IP Pool NAT
D. Translate destination on client-side
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?
A. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service
B. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24
C. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule
D. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You want internal users from
10.10.10.x
to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway’s external interface.
A.
When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers
B.
When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.
C.
When connecting to internal network 10 10.10 x. configure Hide NAT for the DMZ servers.
D.
When connecting to the internal network 10.10.10x, configure Hide Nat for the DMZ network behind the DMZ interface of the Security Gateway
What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ servers’ public IP addresses?
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the_________.
A. source on client side
B. destination on server side
C. destination on client side
D. source on server side
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 113
A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT. Client side NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server?
A. Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
B. A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
C. Nothing else must be configured.
D. A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway’s upstream router.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
When translation occurs using automatic Hide NAT, what also happens?
A. Nothing happens.
B. The source port is modified.
C. The destination port is modified.
D. The destination is modified.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
A. Phase two key negotiation
B. User data base corruption
C. Address translation
D. Log Consolidation Engine
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 116
Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT.
A. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine NAT settings.
B. This is an example hide NAT.
C. There is an example of Static NAT and translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.
D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:
A. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
B. The Security Gateway’s ARP file must be modified.
C. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
D. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 118
Static NAT connections, by default, translate on which firewall kernel inspection point?
A. Post-inbound
B. Eitherbound
C. Inbound
D. Outbound
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 119
In a Hide NAT connection outbound, which portion of the packet is modified?
A. Source IP address and destination port
B. Destination IP address and destination port
C. Source IP address and source port
D. Destination IP address and destination port
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 120
You are MegaCorp’s Security Administrator. There are various network objects which must be NATed. Some of them use the Automatic Hide NAT method, while others use the Automatic Static NAT method. What is the order of the rules if both methods are used together? Give the best answer.
A. The Administrator decides on the order of the rules by shifting the corresponding rules up and down.
B. The Static NAT rules have priority over the Hide NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range
C. The Hide NAT rules have priority over the Static NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range
D. The position of the rules depends on the time of their creation. The rules created first are placed at the top; rules created later are placed successively below the others.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 121
Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when: i) NAT decision is based on the destination port ii) Source and Destination IP both have to be translated iii) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway only iv) NAT should be performed on the server side
A. (i), (ii), and (iii)
B. (i), and (ii)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. only (i)
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 122
After filtering a fw monitor trace by port and IP, a packet is displayed three times; in the i, I, and o inspection points, but not in the O inspection point. Which is the likely source of the issue?
A. The packet has been sent out through a VPN tunnel unencrypted.
B. An IPSO ACL has blocked the outbound passage of the packet.
C. A SmartDefense module has blocked the packet
D. It is an issue with NAT
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 123
A marketing firm’s networking team is trying to troubleshoot user complaints regarding access to audio-streaming material from the Internet. The networking team asks you to check the object and rule configuration settings for the perimeter Security Gateway. Which SmartConsole application should you use to check these objects and rules?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartDashboard
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 124
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Grouping authentication rules with address-translation rules
B. Grouping rules by date of creation
C. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup Rule
D. Grouping functionally related rules together
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Adding SAM rules at the top of the Rule Base
B. Placing frequently accessed rules before less frequently accessed rules
C. Grouping rules by date of creation
D. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 135
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed all default check boxes from the Policy / Global Properties / Firewall tab. In order for the Security Gateway to send logs to the Security Management Server, an explicit rule must be created to allow the Security Gateway to communicate to the Security Management Server on port ______.
A. 259
B. 257 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
C. 900
D. 256
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 136
Examine the following Security Policy. What, if any, changes could be made to accommodate Rule 4?
A. Nothing at all
B. Modify the Source or Destination columns in Rule 4
C. Remove the service HTTPS from the Service column in Rule A
D. Modify the VPN column in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 137
A Security Policy has several database versions. What configuration remains the same no matter which version is used?
A. Rule Bases_5_0.fws “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 55 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
B. Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) certificate
C. Fwauth.NDB
D. Objects_5_0.C
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 138
You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce an extensive number of rules. To simplify Security administration, which one of the following would you choose to do?
A. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway
B. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly
C. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules
D. Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 139
You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce a common set of rules. To minimize the number of policy packages, which one of the following would you choose to do?
A. Install a separate local Security Management Server and SmartConsole for each remote Security Gateway.
B. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway and specify Install On / Gateways.
C. Create a single Security Policy package with Install On / Target defined whenever a unique rule is required for a specific Gateway.
D. Run separate SmartDashbord instance to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 140
Which rules are not applied on a first-match basis?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 56 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. Cleanup
B. User Authentication
C. Session Authentication
D. Client Authentication
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 141
Installing a policy usually has no impact on currently existing connections. Which statement is TRUE?
A. Users being authenticated by Client Authentication have to re-authenticate.
B. Site-to-Site VPNs need to re-authenticate, so Phase 1 is passed again after installing the Security Policy.
C. All FTP downloads are reset; users have to start their downloads again.
D. All connections are reset, so a policy install is recommended during announced downtime only.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 142
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have a unique Policy Package. These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.
B. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install.
C. In the SmartDashboard main menu go to Policy / Policy Installation / Targets and select the correct firewall to be put into the list via Specific Targets.
D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
Which of these security policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A. Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible
B. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
C. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D. Using domain objects in rules when possible
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 144
Your perimeter Security Gateway’s external IP is 200.200.200.3. Your network diagram shows:
RequireD. Allow only network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 to go out to the Internet, using 200.
200.200.5.
The local network 192.168.1.0/24 needs to use 200.200.200.3 to go out to the Internet.
Assuming you enable all the settings in the NAT page of Global Properties, how could you achieve these requirements?
A. Create a network object 192.168.0.0/16. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page. Enter 200.200.200.5 as the hiding IP address. Add and ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.”
-www.actualtests.com 58 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
address of 200.200.200.3.
B. Create network objects for 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Enable Hide NAT on both network objects, using 200.200.200.5 as hiding IP address Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.3 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.5.
C. Create an Address Range object, starting from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.20.254. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page of the address range object. Enter Hiding IP address 200.200.200.5. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
D. Create two network objects: 192.168.10.0/24. and 192.168.20.0/24. Add the two network objects. Create a manual NAT rule like the following Original source 璯roup object; Destination ?any Service ? any, Translated source ?200.200.200.5; Destination ?original, Service ?original.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 145
Because of a pre-existing design constraints, you set up manual NAT rules for your HTTP server. However, your FTP server and SMTP server are both using automatic NAT rules. All traffic from your FTP and SMTP servers are passing through the Security Gateway without a problem, but traffic from the Web server is dropped on rule 0 because of anti-spoofing settings. What is causing this?
A. Allow bi-directional NAT is not checked in Global Properties.
B. Manual NAT rules are not configured correctly.
C. Translate destination on client side is not checked in Global Properties under manual NAT rules.
D. Routing is not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 146
You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway’s external interface. You browse to from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0 to exit the network. How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker?
A. Only one, outbound
B. Two, one for outbound, one for inbound “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 59 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
C. Only one, inbound
D. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 147
Which of the following statements BEST describes Check Point’s Hide Network Address Translation method?
A. Many-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
B. Translates many destination IP addresses into one destination IP address
C. Translates many source IP addresses into one source IP address
D. One-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 148
Which Check Point address translation method allows an administrator to use fewer ISP-assigned IP addresses than the number of internal hosts requiring Internet connectivity?
A. Static Destination B. Hide
C. Dynamic Destination
D. Static Source
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 149
NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 60 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. Address Range
B. HTTP Logical Server
C. Host
D. Gateway
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 150
NAT can be implemented on which of the following lists of objects?
A. Host, Network
B. Host, User
C. Domain, Network
D. Network, Dynamic Object
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 151
Which Check Point address translation method is necessary if you want to connect from a host on the Internet via HTTP to a server with a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address on your DMZ?
A. Static Destination Address Translation
B. Port Address Translation
C. Dynamic Source Address Translation
D. Hide Address Translation
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 152
You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the external interface of the firewall and the Internet.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 61 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A. Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B. Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall’s external address.
C. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 153
After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped by anti- spoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause?
A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External.Change topology to Others +.
B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology to External
C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal -Network defined by IP and Mask Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side
D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal – Network defined by IP and Mask. Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 154
Which NAT option applicable for Automatic NAT applies to Manual NAT as well?
A. Allow bi-directional NAT
B. Automatic ARP configuration
C. Enable IP Pool NAT
D. Translate destination on client-side “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 62 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 155
Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?
A. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service
B. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24
C. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule
D. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 156
You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You want internal users from
10.10.10.x to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway’s external interface.
What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ servers’ public IP addresses?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 63 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam A. When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers
B. When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.
C. When connecting to internal network 10 10.10 x. configure Hide NAT for the DMZ servers.
D. When connecting to the internal network 10.10.10x, configure Hide Nat for the DMZ network behind the DMZ interface of the Security Gateway
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 157
An internal host initiates a session to and is set for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway. The initiating traffic is an example of __________.
A. None of these
B. source NAT
C. destination NAT
D. client side NAT
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 158
A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the_________.
A. source on client side
B. destination on server side
C. destination on client side
D. source on server side
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 159
A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT. Client side NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server?
A. Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
B. A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
C. Nothing else must be configured.
D. A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway’s upstream router.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 160
When translation occurs using automatic Hide NAT, what also happens?
A. Nothing happens.
B. The source port is modified.
C. The destination port is modified.
D. The destination is modified. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 65 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 161
The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
A. Phase two key negotiation
B. User data base corruption
C. Address translation
D. Log Consolidation Engine
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 162
The fw monitor utility would be best to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
A. An error occurs when editing a network object in SmartDashboard
B. A statically NATed Web server behind a Security Gateway cannot be reached from the Internet.
C. You get an invalid ID error in SmartView Tracker for phase 2 IKE key negotiations.
D. A user in the user database is corrupt.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 163
Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 66 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine NAT settings.
B. This is an example hide NAT.
C. There is an example of Static NAT and translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.
D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 164
In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:
A. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
B. The Security Gateway’s ARP file must be modified.
C. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
D. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 165
Secure Internal Communications (SIC) is completely NAT-tolerant because it is based on:
A. MAC addresses.
B. SIC names.
C. SIC is not NAT-tolerant. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 67 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
D. IP addresses.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 166
Static NAT connections, by default, translate on which firewall kernel inspection point?
A. Post-inbound
B. Eitherbound
C. Inbound
D. Outbound
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 167
In a Hide NAT connection outbound, which portion of the packet is modified?
A. Source IP address and destination port
B. Destination IP address and destination port
C. Source IP address and source port
D. Destination IP address and destination port
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 168
You are MegaCorp’s Security Administrator. There are various network objects which must be NATed. Some of them use the Automatic Hide NAT method, while others use the Automatic Static NAT method. What is the order of the rules if both methods are used together? Give the best answer.
A. The Administrator decides on the order of the rules by shifting the corresponding rules up and down. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 68
Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
B. The Static NAT rules have priority over the Hide NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range
C. The Hide NAT rules have priority over the Static NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range
D. The position of the rules depends on the time of their creation. The rules created first are placed at the top; rules created later are placed successively below the others.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 169
Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when:
i) NAT decision is based on the destination port
ii) Source and Destination IP both have to be translated
iii) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway only
iv) NAT should be performed on the server side
A. (i), (ii), and (iii)
B. (i), and (ii)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. only (i)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 170
In order to have full control, you decide to use Manual NAT entries instead of Automatic NAT rules. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. When using Static NAT, you must enter ARP entries for the Gateway on all hosts that are using the NAT Gateway with that Gateway’s internal interface IP address.
B. When using Static NAT, you must add proxy ARP entries to the Gateway for all hiding addresses.
C. If you chose Automatic NAT instead, all necessary entries are done for you.
D. When using Dynamic Hide NAT with an address that is not configured on a Gateway interface, “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 69 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam you need to add a proxy ARP entry for that address.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 171
After filtering a fw monitor trace by port and IP, a packet is displayed three times; in the i, I, and o inspection points, but not in the O inspection point. Which is the likely source of the issue?
A. The packet has been sent out through a VPN tunnel unencrypted.
B. An IPSO ACL has blocked the outbound passage of the packet.
C. A SmartDefense module has blocked the packet
D. It is an issue with NAT
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 172
A marketing firm’s networking team is trying to troubleshoot user complaints regarding access to audio-streaming material from the Internet. The networking team asks you to check the object and rule configuration settings for the perimeter Security Gateway. Which SmartConsole application should you use to check these objects and rules?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartDashboard
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 173
Which statement below describes the most correct strategy for implementing a Rule Base?
A. Add the Stealth Rule before the last rule. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 70 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
B. Umit grouping to rules regarding specific access.
C. Place the most frequently used rules at the top of the Policy and the ones that are not frequently used further down.
D. Place a network-traffic rule above the administrator access rule.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 174
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Grouping authentication rules with address-translation rules
B. Grouping rules by date of creation
C. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup Rule
D. Grouping functionally related rules together
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 175
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Adding SAM rules at the top of the Rule Base
B. Placing frequently accessed rules before less frequently accessed rules
C. Grouping rules by date of creation
D. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 176
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules
B. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup Rule “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 71 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
C. Placing more restrictive rules before more permissive rules
D. Grouping authentication rules with QOS rules
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 177
You would use the Hide Rule feature to:
A. Make rules invisible to incoming packets.
B. View only a few rules without the distraction of others
C. Hide rules from read-only administrators.
D. Hide rules from a SYN/ACK attack.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 178
When you add a resource object to a rule, which of the following occurs?
A. All packets that match the resource will be dropped.
B. All packets matching that rule are either encrypted or decrypted by the defined resource.
C. All packets matching the resource service are analyzed through an application-layer proxy.
D. Users attempting to connect to the destination of the rule will be required to authenticate.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 179
You are a Security Administrator using one Security Management Server managing three different firewalls. One of the firewalls does NOT show up in the dialog box when attempting to install a Security Policy. Which of the following is a possible cause?
A. The firewall object has been created but SIC has not yet been established.
B. The license for this specific firewall has expired. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 72 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
C. The firewall has failed to sync with the Security Management Server for 60 minutes.
D. The firewall is not listed in the Policy Installation Targets screen for this policy package.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 180
Your shipping company uses a custom application to update the shipping distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateway’s Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Since you are responsible for multiple sites, you want notification by a text message to your cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following would work BEST for your purpose?
A. SmartView Monitor Threshold
B. SNMP trap
C. Logging implied rules
D. User-defined alert script
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 181
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To ensure project success, what do teams need to pay attention to? (Choose two.)
A. creating a Use Case Diagram for the requirements
B. involving users as early as possible
C. creating a clear statement of business objectives
D. reviewing and validating requirements with stakeholders to achieve a shared vision and concurrence
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 2
What does a business process diagram represent?
A. global processes
B. enterprise processes
C. organizational processes
D. company to company processes
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
With the appropriate privileges, which three actions can users take to manipulate folders? (Choose three.)
A. move artifacts between folders within the same project area
B. move folders within a project within the same project area
C. copy folders from one project area to another
D. delete folders within a project within the same project area
E. link folders between project areas
Answer: B,D
Which valid system files can be uploaded to a Rational Requirements Composer project?
A. Word, Excel, CSV, and HTML only
B. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
C. Word, Excel, CSV, HTML, and images
D. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
Which detailed requirements do use cases contain?
A. functional requirements
B. non-functional requirements
C. testable requirements
D. feature requirements
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
Which two capabilities in Rational Requirements Composer allow authors to create and modify artifact content, attributes, and links in the Artifact editor? (Choose two.)
A. artifact format
B. Open Artifact checkbox
C. Edit button
D. double-clicking the artifact
E. right-clicking the artifact
Answer: B,C
Which two actions can be taken against each artifact under review? (Choose two.)
A. approve
B. pass
C. disapprove
D. reject
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 8
Which statement best describes the process of creating saved filters?
A. Saved filters are created, and then you define the filters that go into it.
B. After you have defined your collection, you can then decide which artifacts appear in the saved filter.
C. After you have created your artifacts, you can associate the artifacts to your filter.
D. After you have defined filter criteria, you can save the filter for future use.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
What does the use case model consists of?
A. actors and use cases
B. diagrams only
C. text only
D. diagrams and text
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
An administrator wants to prevent a user role from updating project and personal dashboards.
Where should the administrator manage this from?
A. Manage Project Properties
B. Open My Personal Dashboard (default)
C. Manage this Project Area
D. Lifecycle Project Administration
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 11
Where is a process performed?
A. only within a company
B. within or across companies only
C. within or across organizations only
D. within or across companies and organizations
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
When does a review reach the Finalized state?
A. when all required reviewers have marked the review complete
B. when all required reviewers have Approved, Disapproved, or Abstained on all artifacts in the review
C. when all required reviewers have marked the review complete, and the review creator has clicked the Finalize Review button
D. when all required reviewers have marked all artifacts Approved
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
Besides derivation and impact analysis, what does traceability support?
A. elaboration, progress analysis, and lifecycle coverage analysis
B. progress analysis and lifecycle coverage analysis only
C. elaboration and progress analysis only
D. elaboration and lifecycle coverage analysis only
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
A business analyst on a project wants to identify which requirements were changed last week by a specific team member. Which attributes should be selected and filtered to only display those artifacts?
A. Name and Last modified on
B. Name and Status
C. Last modified on and Last modified by
D. Created on and Created by
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 15
Which three OSLC link types would be used in a Saved Filter to get Lifecycle Traceability across the Collaborative Lifecycle Management (CLM) solution from Rational Requirements Composer? (Choose three.)
A. Tracked by
B. Validated by
C. Implemented by
D. Developed by
E. Tested by
Answer: A,B,C
After an artifact is embedded in another artifact, which two controls can be used to manipulate the embedded requirement? (Choose two.)
A. hide
B. show
C. maximize
D. delete
E. minimize
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 17
A requirements collection has been completed by the business analysts, and is now ready for the development team to start working. What should the business analyst link to?
A. Requirement Implementation plan
B. Development plan
C. Test plan
D. User Story
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
Which lifecycle states do both formal and informal reviews have?
A. New, In progress, Reviewed, Complete
B. Draft, In progress, Paused, Reviewed, Finalized
C. New, Under review, Reviewed, Finalized
D. Draft, Under review, Paused, Complete, Finalized
Answer: B
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