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QUESTION 26
A security administrator of a large private firm is researching and putting together a proposal to purchase an IPS. The specific IPS type has not been selected, and the security administrator needs to gather information from several vendors to determine a specific product. Which of the following documents would assist in choosing a specific brand and model?
A. RFC
B. RTO
C. RFQ
D. RFI
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27
Wireless users are reporting issues with the company’s video conferencing and VoIP systems. The security administrator notices DOS attacks on the network that are affecting the company’s VoIP system (i.e. premature call drops and garbled call signals). The security administrator also notices that the SIP servers are unavailable during these attacks. Which of the following security controls will MOST likely mitigate the VoIP DOS attacks on the network? (Select TWO).
A. Configure 802.11b on the network
B. Configure 802.1q on the network
C. Configure 802.11e on the network
D. Update the firewall managing the SIP servers
E. Update the HIDS managing the SIP servers
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 28
A company has decided to use the SDLC for the creation and production of a new information system. The security administrator is training all users on how to protect company information while using the new system, along with being able to recognize social engineering attacks. Senior Management must also formally approve of the system prior to it going live. In which of the following phases would these security controls take place?
A. Operations and Maintenance
B. Implementation
C. Acquisition and Development
D. Initiation Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
A company contracts with a third party to develop a new web application to process credit cards. Which of the following assessments will give the company the GREATEST level of assurance for the web application?
A. Social Engineering
B. Penetration Test
C. Vulnerability Assessment
D. Code Review Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
As part of the testing phase in the SDLC, a software developer wants to verify that an application is properly handling user error exceptions. Which of the following is the BEST tool or process for the developer use?
A. SRTM review
B. Fuzzer
C. Vulnerability assessment
D. HTTP interceptor Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate control measure for lost mobile devices?
A. Disable unnecessary wireless interfaces such as Bluetooth.
B. Reduce the amount of sensitive data stored on the device.
C. Require authentication before access is given to the device.
D. Require that the compromised devices be remotely wiped.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective solution for sanitizing a DVD with sensitive information on it?
A. Write over the data
B. Purge the data
C. Incinerate the DVD
D. Shred the DVD Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
A network engineer at Company ABC observes the following raw HTTP request:
GET /disp_reports.php?SectionEntered=57&GroupEntered=-1&report_type=alerts&to_date=01- 01-0101&Run= Run&UserEntered=dsmith&SessionID=5f04189bc&from_date=31-10-2010&TypesEntered=1 HTTP/1.1
Host: test.example.net Accept: */* Accept-Language: en Connection: close Cookie: java14=1; java15=1; java16=1; js=1292192278001;
Which of the following should be the engineer’s GREATEST concern?
A. The HTTPS is not being enforced so the system is vulnerable.
B. The numerical encoding on the session ID is limited to hexadecimal characters, making it susceptible to a brute force attack.
C. Sensitive data is transmitted in the URL.
D. The dates entered are outside a normal range, which may leave the system vulnerable to a denial of service attack.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
Driven mainly by cost, many companies outsource computing jobs which require a large amount of processor cycles over a short duration to cloud providers. This allows the company to avoid a large investment in computing resources which will only be used for a short time.
Assuming the provisioned resources are dedicated to a single company, which of the following is the MAIN vulnerability associated with on-demand provisioning?
A. Traces of proprietary data which can remain on the virtual machine and be exploited
B. Remnants of network data from prior customers on the physical servers during a compute job
C. Exposure of proprietary data when in-transit to the cloud provider through IPSec tunnels
D. Failure of the de-provisioning mechanism resulting in excessive charges for the resources
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
A security administrator needs a secure computing solution to use for all of the company’s security audit log storage, and to act as a central server to execute security functions from. Which of the following is the BEST option for the server in this scenario?
A. A hardened Red Hat Enterprise Linux implementation running a software firewall
B. Windows 7 with a secure domain policy and smartcard based authentication
C. A hardened bastion host with a permit all policy implemented in a software firewall
D. Solaris 10 with trusted extensions or SE Linux with a trusted policy
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
After implementing port security, restricting all network traffic into and out of a network, migrating to IPv6, installing NIDS, firewalls, spam and application filters, a security administer is convinced that the network is secure. The administrator now focuses on securing the hosts on the network, starting with the servers.
Which of the following is the MOST complete list of end-point security software the administrator could plan to implement?
A. Anti-malware/virus/spyware/spam software, as well as a host based firewall and strong, two- factor authentication.
B. Anti-virus/spyware/spam software, as well as a host based IDS, firewall, and strong three- factor authentication.
C. Anti-malware/virus/spyware/spam software, as well as a host based firewall and biometric authentication.
D. Anti-malware/spam software, as well as a host based firewall and strong, three-factor authentication.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
A security architect is assigned to a major software development project. The software development team has a history of writing bug prone, inefficient code, with multiple security flaws in every release. The security architect proposes implementing secure coding standards to the project manager. The secure coding standards will contain detailed standards for:
A. error handling, input validation, memory use and reuse, race condition handling, commenting, and preventing typical security problems.
B. error prevention, requirements validation, memory use and reuse, commenting typical security problems, and testing code standards.
C. error elimination, trash collection, documenting race conditions, peer review, and typical security problems.
D. error handling, input validation, commenting, preventing typical security problems, managing customers, and documenting extra requirements.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
A number of security incidents have been reported involving mobile web-based code developed by a consulting company. Performing a root cause analysis, the security administrator of the consulting company discovers that the problem is a simple programming error that results in extra information being loaded into the memory when the proper format is selected by the user. After repeating the process several times, the security administrator is able to execute unintentional instructions through this method. Which of the following BEST describes the problem that is occurring, a good mitigation technique to use to prevent future occurrences, and why it a security concern?
A. Problem: Cross-site scripting Mitigation Technique. Input validation Security Concern: Decreases the company’s profits and cross-site scripting can enable malicious actors to compromise the confidentiality of network connections or interrupt the availability of the network.
B. Problem: Buffer overflow Mitigation Technique: Secure coding standards Security Concern: Exposes the company to liability buffer overflows and can enable malicious actors to compromise the confidentiality/availability of the data.
C. Problem: SQL injection Mitigation Technique: Secure coding standards Security Concern: Exposes the company to liability SQL injection and can enable malicious actors to compromise the confidentiality of data or interrupt the availability of a system.
D. Problem: Buffer overflow Mitigation Technique: Output validation Security Concern: Exposing the company to public scrutiny buffer overflows can enable malicious actors to interrupt the availability of a system.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39
A security administrator has been conducting a security assessment of Company XYZ for the past two weeks. All of the penetration tests and other assessments have revealed zero flaws in the systems at Company XYZ. However, Company XYZ reports that it has been the victim of numerous security incidents in the past six months. In each of these incidents, the criminals have managed to exfiltrate large volumes of data from the secure servers at the company. Which of the following techniques should the investigation team consider in the next phase of their assessment in hopes of uncovering the attack vector the criminals used?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Code review
C. Social engineering
D. Reverse engineering
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
A security manager at Company ABC, needs to perform a risk assessment of a new mobile device which the Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to immediately deploy to all employees in the company. The product is commercially available, runs a popular mobile operating system, and can connect to IPv6 networks wirelessly. The model the CIO wants to procure also includes the upgraded 160GB solid state hard drive. The producer of the device will not reveal exact numbers but experts estimate that over 73 million of the devices have been sold worldwide. Which of the following is the BEST list of factors the security manager should consider while performing a risk assessment?
A. Ability to remotely wipe the devices, apply security controls remotely, and encrypt the SSD; the track record of the vendor in publicizing and correcting security flaws in their products; predicted costs associated with maintaining, integrating and securing the devices.
B. Ability to remotely administer the devices, apply security controls remotely, and remove the SSD; the track record of the vendor in securely implementing IPv6 with IPSec; predicted costs associated with securing the devices.
C. Ability to remotely monitor the devices, remove security controls remotely, and decrypt the SSD; the track record of the vendor in publicizing and preventing security flaws in their products; predicted costs associated with maintaining, destroying and tracking the devices.
D. Ability to remotely sanitize the devices, apply security controls locally, encrypt the SSD; the track record of the vendor in adapting the open source operating system to their platform; predicted costs associated with inventory management, maintaining, integrating and securing the devices.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
A newly-appointed risk management director for the IT department at Company XYZ, a major pharmaceutical manufacturer, needs to conduct a risk analysis regarding a new system which the developers plan to bring on-line in three weeks. The director begins by reviewing the thorough and well-written report from the independent contractor who performed a security assessment of the system. The report details what seems to be a manageable volume of infrequently exploited security vulnerabilities. The likelihood of a malicious attacker exploiting one of the vulnerabilities is low; however, the director still has some reservations about approving the system because of which of the following?
A. The resulting impact of even one attack being realized might cripple the company financially.
B. Government health care regulations for the pharmaceutical industry prevent the director from approving a system with vulnerabilities.
C. The director is new and is being rushed to approve a project before an adequate assessment has been performed.
D. The director should be uncomfortable accepting any security vulnerabilities and should find time to correct them before the system is deployed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
A small company has a network with 37 workstations, 3 printers, a 48 port switch, an enterprise class router, and a firewall at the boundary to the ISP. The workstations have the latest patches and all have up-to-date anti-virus software. User authentication is a two-factor system with fingerprint scanners and passwords. Sensitive data on each workstation is encrypted. The network is configured to use IPv4 and is a standard Ethernet network. The network also has a captive portal based wireless hot-spot to accommodate visitors. Which of the following is a problem with the security posture of this company?
A. No effective controls in place
B. No transport security controls are implemented
C. Insufficient user authentication controls are implemented
D. IPv6 is not incorporated in the network
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Statement: “The system shall implement measures to notify system administrators prior to a security incident occurring.”
Which of the following BEST restates the above statement to allow it to be implemented by a team of software developers?
A. The system shall cease processing data when certain configurable events occur.
B. The system shall continue processing in the event of an error and email the security administrator the error logs.
C. The system shall halt on error.
D. The system shall throw an error when specified incidents pass a configurable threshold.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
A corporate executive lost their smartphone while on an overseas business trip. The phone was equipped with file encryption and secured with a strong passphrase. The phone contained over 60GB of proprietary data. Given this scenario, which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. File an insurance claim and assure the executive the data is secure because it is encrypted.
B. Immediately implement a plan to remotely wipe all data from the device.
C. Have the executive change all passwords and issue the executive a new phone.
D. Execute a plan to remotely disable the device and report the loss to the police.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
A user logs into domain A using a PKI certificate on a smartcard protected by an 8 digit PIN. The credential is cached by the authenticating server in domain A. Later, the user attempts to access a resource in domain B. This initiates a request to the original authenticating server to somehow attest to the resource server in the second domain that the user is in fact who they claim to be.
Which of the following is being described?
A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. SAML
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
A certain script was recently altered by the author to meet certain security requirements, and needs to be executed on several critical servers. Which of the following describes the process of ensuring that the script being used was not altered by anyone other than the author?
A. Digital encryption
B. Digital signing
C. Password entropy
D. Code signing
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
A company has asked their network engineer to list the major advantages for implementing a virtual environment in regards to cost. Which of the following would MOST likely be selected?
A. Ease of patch testing
B. Reducing physical footprint
C. Reduced network traffic
D. Isolation of applications
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The security administrator has been tasked with providing a solution that would not only eliminate the need for physical desktops, but would also centralize the location of all desktop applications, without losing physical control of any network devices. Which of the following would the security manager MOST likely implement?
A. VLANs
B. VDI
C. PaaS
D. IaaS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
A company has decided to relocate and the security manager has been tasked to perform a site survey of the new location to help in the design of the physical infrastructure. The current location has video surveillance throughout the building and entryways.
The following requirements must be met:
Able to log entry of all employees in and out of specific areas
Access control into and out of all sensitive areas
Tailgating prevention
Which of the following would MOST likely be implemented to meet the above requirements and provide a secure solution? (Select TWO).
A. Discretionary Access control
B. Man trap
C. Visitor logs
D. Proximity readers
E. Motion detection sensors
Correct Answer: BD
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QUESTION 31
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high-risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to Tom?
A. Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
B. Risks may be listed by categories
C. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
D. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Power
D. Physical
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk events?
A. These risks can be accepted.
B. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
C. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
D. These risks can be dismissed.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk response
C. Risk trigger
D. Risk event
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Adrian is the project manager of the NHP Project. In her project there are several work packages that deal with electrical wiring. Rather than to manage the risk internally she has decided to hire a vendor to complete all work packages that deal with the electrical wiring. By removing the risk internally to a licensed electrician Adrian feels more comfortable with project team being safe. What type of risk response has Adrian used in this example?
A. Mitigation
B. Transference
C. Avoidance
D. Acceptance
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:
Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from
the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established
information classification policy.
What is the role played by James in the organization?
A. Manager
B. User
C. Owner
D. Custodian
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is an entry in an object’s discretionary access control list (DACL) that grants permissions to a user or group?
A. Access control entry (ACE)
B. Discretionary access control entry (DACE)
C. Access control list (ACL)
D. Security Identifier (SID)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You are the project manager for your organization. You have identified a risk event you’re your organization could manage internally or externally. If you manage the event internally it will cost your project $578,000 and an additional $12,000 per month the solution is in use. A vendor can manage the risk event for you. The vendor will charge $550,000 and $14,500 per month that the solution is in use. How many months will you need to use the solution to pay for the internal solution in comparison to the vendor’s solution?
A. Approximately 13 months
B. Approximately 11 months
C. Approximately 15 months
D. Approximately 8 months
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which of the following refers to the ability to ensure that the data is not modified or tampered with?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Non-repudiation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Resource breakdown structure
C. RACI chart
D. Roles and responsibility matrix
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?
A. Information on prior, similar projects
B. Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
C. Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
D. Studies of similar projects by risk specialists
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a
comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases
of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Pre-certification
B. Certification
C. Post-certification
D. Authorization
E. Post-Authorization
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 43
A part of a project deals with the hardware work. As a project manager, you have decided to hire a company to deal with all hardware work on the project. Which type of risk response is this?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Exploit
D. Transference
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Risks with low ratings of probability and impact are included on a ____ for future monitoring.
A. Watchlist
B. Risk alarm
C. Observation list
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web
application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following areas can be
exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Social engineering
B. File and directory permissions
C. Buffer overflows
D. Kernel flaws
E. Race conditions
F. Information system architectures
G. Trojan horses
Correct Answer: ABCDEG
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QUESTION 21
One class B network 155. 16. 0. 0, the mask is 255. 255. 255. 192. Then subnet quantity available is ( ) , the host quantity in every subnet at most is ( )
A. 512 126
B. 1024 64
C. 1024 62
D. 256 254
E. 192 254
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
For network segment 192.168.2.16/28, how many hosts it can hold at most?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 15
D. 14
E. 7
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
The IP address 0. 0. 0.0 indicates ( ).
A. Network address
B. Broadcast address of specially designated network segment
C. All networks
D. Broadcast address of all nodes of local network segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What is the network address for 190. 233. 27. 13/16?
A. 190. 0. 0. 0
B. 190. 233. 0. 0
C. 190. 233. 27. 0
D. 190. 233. 27. 1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following address types are reserved for multicast use?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class E
D. Class D
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Which is the default network mask length of 219.25.23.56?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
What is the maximum bits of a Class B address can be used for subnet ?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 16
D. 22
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
The subnet mask of a class a address is 250. 205. 240. 0, how many bits are used to divide subnet?
A. 4
B. 0
C. 9
D. 12
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements are correct regarding OSPF Router LSA ?
A. Every router running OSPF must generate Router LSA.
B. In broadcast and NBMA network, only DR0ther generates Router LSA
C. Router LSA describes link states of the router in area.
D. Router LSA is flooded in the whole AS.
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 30
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Network LSA in OSPF network?
A. Network LSA is generated by ABR.
B. Only the router which connects NBMA or Broadcast Network may generate Network LSA.
C. DR uses Network LSA to describe routers that have established adjacency relation with it in the network.
D. Network LSA is flooded in the whole AS.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 31
Which type of LSA is only used to calculate external route?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which of the followings are OSPF packet type ?
A. LSA
B. LS Request
C. LSP
D. LS Update
E. LS Ack
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 33
Which of the following elements together uniquely identify a LSA?
A. LS type
B. Link state ID
C. Advertising Router
D. LS Sequence number
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements are correct regarding how OSPF detects old and duplicate LSAs?
A. The smaller the sequence number, the more recent the LSA.
B. The smaller the LS age, the more recent the LSA.
C. When router generates a new LSA at the first time, it will use Ox80000001 as the sequence number.
D. An LSA can be flushed from routing domain by setting its LSA age to \4axage.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 35
Which of the following statements are correct regarding intra-area route calculation of OSPF?
A. Every OSPF router only uses one Router LSA to describe local active link state for one area.
B. Every OSPF uses more than one Router LSA to describe local active link state for one area.
C. One Router LSA only describes one link.
D. One Router LSA describes more than one link.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 36
In OSPF, the process of calculating shortest path tree can be divided into two phases, calculate Transit
node first,
then calculate Stub network.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
In the process of calculating SPF tree, the cost from a node to root node equals to metric listed in the Router LSA generated by the node.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
In OSPF protocol, which of the following elements are used to describe one link?
A. Link ID
B. Data
C. Type
D. Metric
Correct Answer: ABCD QUESTION 39
OSPF uses SPF algorithm to calculate SPF tree according to topology. What is the node of the SPF tree?
A. Router
B. Router and network segment
C. Port and network segment
D. Router and port
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
In OSPF protocol, which of the following elements are used by Network LSA to describe broadcast network segment or NBMA network segment?
A. Link ID
B. Net mask
C. Attached Router list
D. Metric
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 41
Which of the connection types that Router LSA can describe?
A. Point-to-point
B. Stub
C. Transit
D. Virtual link Correct Answer: ABCD
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Question No : 46 – (Topic 1)
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
Answer: C
Question No : 47 – (Topic 1)
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. Organizational process assets.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
C. Project staff assignments.
D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.
Answer: B
Question No : 48 – (Topic 1)
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management.
B. Acquire Project Team.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
Answer: B
Question No : 49 – (Topic 1)
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group
Answer: D
Question No : 50 – (Topic 1)
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: C
Question No : 51 – (Topic 1)
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
Answer: D Question No : 52 – (Topic 1)
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Answer: D
Question No : 53 – (Topic 1)
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
Answer: A
Question No : 54 – (Topic 1)
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Answer: C Question No : 55 – (Topic 1)
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams
D. Checksheets
Answer: D
Question No : 56 – (Topic 1)
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Answer: D
Question No : 57 – (Topic 1)
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
Answer: C
Question No : 58 – (Topic 1)
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Answer: A
Question No : 59 – (Topic 1)
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
Answer: A
Question No : 60 – (Topic 1)
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Answer: A
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QUESTION 57
You are configuring NFS export settings for a share point that resides on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. What does the “All to Nobody” mapping do?
A. It prohibits export of items and contents to users.
B. It creates the group, “Nobody”, that will be used for NFS access.
C. It tells the NFS server to identify all users by their client settings.
D. It provides all NFS users with the same file privileges as the “nobody” account.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You have configured the folder at /Shared Items/Documents/ as an NFS share point on your Mac OS X Server at server.pretendco.com. Which URL should you provide to Mac OS X users to allow them to access the share point?
A. nfs://server.pretendco.com/
B. nfs://documents.server.pretendco.com/
C. nfs://server.pretendco.com/Documents/
D. nfs://server.pretendco.com/Shared Items/Documents/
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Which three actions can the FTP service in Mac OS X Server perform on requested files, before
transferring them?
Choose three – partial credit is possible.
A. Decrypt requested files
B. Encrypt requested files
C. Archive requested files
D. Compress requested files
E. Convert requested files to PDF
F. Encode requested files as MacBinary
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 60
Using Server Admin in Mac OS X Server, which two options can be set for the FTP service? Choose two – partial credit is possible.
A. Enable anonymous access
B. Disable passive mode transfers
C. Maximum number of downloadable files per session
D. Maximum number of simultaneous authenticated users
E. Allow Challenge-Response Authentication Mechanism-MD5 (CRAM-MD5)
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 61
What protocol does Mac OS X Server v10.6 use to send email between mail servers?
A. POP
B. IMAP
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
E. XMPP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
What protocol does the Mail application in Mac OS X v10.6 use to send email from a client computer to a mail server for delivery?
A. POP
B. IMAP
C. LDAP
D. SMTP
E. XMPP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
You have set up multiple mail servers to receive email for your company. Which DNS record specifies the hostname of the mail server whose availability should be checked first when mail is being routed to an employee?
A. The A record with the priority number that is lowest
B. The A record with the priority number that is highest
C. The MX record with the priority number that is lowest
D. The MX record with the priority number that is highest
E. The PTR record with the priority number that is lowest
F. The PTR record with the priority number that is highest
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Which of these is a blacklist server?
A. A server that provides a list of known open relay servers
B. A server that blocks outgoing email to specified domains
C. A server that sends mail to a large recipient group simultaneously
D. A server that allows anyone to send email through it without authenticating
E. A server that provides a list of email addresses that are known sources of spam
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
Which tactic will reduce the disk space required by mail service in Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. Enable the mail service option to compress all incoming file attachments.
B. Set a mail quota to limit the amount of mail stored for each user account.
C. Set an alternate mail store location on a striped and mirrored RAID partition.
D. Enable the “Archive mail database” option for the mail service in Server Admin.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
You are configuring users’ mail accounts in Workgroup Manager. Which option can you define for each user?
A. mail filter type
B. mail quota size
C. mail workgroup name
D. protocol each account will use to send mail to the server
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Using Server Admin you can configure a Mac OS X Server computer to send you an email notification when certain conditions occur. Which condition can trigger an email notification?
A. A software update is available for the server.
B. A user exceeds his or her assigned disk quota.
C. The number of users exceeds a specified limit.
D. The number of files on the server exceeds a specified limit.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
You have set up a Mac OS X Server computer to serve mail for a department at PretendCo. Because of security concerns, you want to make sure that your mail server only accepts mail from other mail servers on PretendCos network, which uses IP addresses 10.1.0.0 through 10.1.255.255. Which entry could you add to the list of addresses from which your server will accept relays?
A. 10.1.0.0/8
B. 10.1.0.0/16
C. 10.1.0.0/24
D. 10.1.0.0/32
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
You want to restrict access to certain pages of a website to a specific group of users. How do you password protect just a portion of your website?
A. Create a realm for the folder where the protected pages reside.
B. Assign sole ownership permissions of the website’s Documents folder to the user “www”.
C. Using Server Admin, create a second website that uses port 8080. Set the “Web Folder” setting for the new website to point to the folder of restricted content.
D. Create a group with the specified users, then set the permissions for the folder containing the protected content so that its “Group” is this new group, and “Everyone” has no access.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
You have set up a website for your users on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. To prevent others from logging into the server and accessing the website files in the Finder, you changed the Everyone permissions for all of the website files to None, made yourself the owner of the website files, and assigned group ownership of the website files to a group containing only your account. Now when users try to access the website via a browser they see an “Access forbidden!” message. Which group should have been given read access to prevent this error?
A. admin
B. root
C. staff
D. wheel
E. _www
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 71
Which statement about WebDAV is true?
A. You enable WebDAV for each website individually.
B. The URL to access a WebDAV server begins with “wdav://”.
C. You define the size of a WebDAV volume using Server Admin.
D. You can only connect to a WebDAV server using a web browser.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
Which two logs does the Mac OS X Server web service keep by default? Choose two.
A. Hits
B. Error
C. Access
D. Request
E. Throughput
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 73
You are managing the web service on a Mac OS X Server computer. The first website on the server is
configured as the default website. You want to add a second website with the address web.example.com,
which will publish documents stored in the WebDocs folder. You have created a DNS record for
web.example.com. What three additional steps must you complete in Server Admin in order to publish the
documents on the new website?
Choose three.
A. Enable proxy caching.
B. Add a new site from the Sites pane.
C. Create a realm for the WebDocs folder.
D. Select the WebDocs folder as the site’s web folder.
E. Change the new website’s Domain Name field to web.example.com.
F. Add a new realm to define browsing/authoring permissions for web.example.com.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 74
You are hosting the website www.pretendco.com on a Mac OS X Server computer. You have also configured a share point on Data, another volume on the server, to host networked home folders. A user with the short name alexander would like to access a website stored in his home folder on the server. What URL should he use?
A. http://www.pretendco.com/~alexander
B. http://www.pretendco.com/Users/alexander
C. http://www.pretendco.com/Data/Users/alexander
D. http://www.pretendco.com/Volumes/Data/Users/alexander
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which statement best describes the wiki in Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. A wiki is a website that is configured to provide access to mail accounts.
B. A wiki is a series of date-stamped and chronologically-ordered entries on a website hosted by Mac OS X Server v10.6.
C. A wiki is a folder on a website hosted by Mac OS X Server v10.6, with permissions that restrict access to the files it contains.
D. A wiki is a collection of web pages that can be edited in a web browser; the web pages allow members of a group to share information.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Which statement about setting up a wiki on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer is true?
A. To allow a user to create a wiki, select the “Web Services” option in the Advanced pane for the user account in Workgroup Manager.
B. To enable a website on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to host wikis, enable the wikiblog_module for the web service in Server Admin.
C. To allow members of a group to create a wiki, select the “Web Services” option in the Advanced pane for the group account in Workgroup Manager.
D. To enable a website on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to host wikis, select the Wikis option in the Web Services pane for the website in Server Admin.
E. To enable all websites on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to host wikis, enable the “Wikis and blogs” option in Web Services for the Settings pane for the web service in Server Admin.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
Which protocol do clients of the iCal service in Mac OS X Server v10.6 use to access calendar files on the server?
A. AFP
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. SMB
E. HTTP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 78
Which utility should you use on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer to create resources, such as rooms and projectors, in an LDAP directory so that those resources can be scheduled by iCal service users?
A. Directory
B. Address Book
C. Directory Utility
D. iCal Server Utility
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 79
What is the purpose of the federation feature in the Mac OS X Server v10.6 iChat service?
A. To allow admin users to send instant messages to all members of a given group
B. To allow iChat service users to chat with users of other instant messaging services
C. To automatically add all members of a group to the iChat buddies list for each group member
D. To allow users from different directory servers, including Active Directory, to use the iChat service
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 80
How do you configure the iChat service hosted on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to allow only the members of a specific group account to use the iChat service?
A. In Workgroup Manager, select the group account, and turn on the iChat Account option in the Advanced pane.
B. In Server Admin, in the Settings pane of the iChat service for the server, add the allowed group account to the Allow Access list.
C. In Workgroup Manager, select all of the allowed user accounts in the group, and turn on the iChat Account option in the Advanced pane.
D. In Server Admin, in the Services pane of the Access section for the server, select the iChat service, and add a group that contains all of the allowed users to the “Allow only users and groups below” list.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81
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