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Pass4itSure 350-401 dumps the latest Cisco 350-401 questions (free)
Question 1:
Which access control feature does MAB provide?
A. user access based on IP address
B. allows devices to bypass authenticate*
C. network access based on the physical address of a device
D. simultaneous user and device authentication
Correct Answer: C
Question 2:
What does the Cisco DNA Center use to enable the delivery of applications through a network and to yield analytics for innovation?
A. process adapters
B. Command Runner
C. intent-based APIs
D. domain adapters
Correct Answer: C
The Cisco DNA Center open platform for intent-based networking provides 360- degree extensibility across multiple components, including:
+ Intent-based APIs leverage the controller to enable business and IT applications to deliver intent to the network and to reap network analytics and insights for IT and business innovation. These enable APIs that allow Cisco DNA Center to
receive input from a variety of sources, both internal to IT and from line-of-business applications, related to application policy, provisioning, software image management, and assurance.
A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0.
Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?
A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point
B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
Correct Answer: A
Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR while Point-to-point/multipoint do not elect DR/BDR. Therefore we have to set the two Gi0/0 interfaces to a point-to-point or point-to-multipoint network to ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur.
Question 5:
Which of the following are the three components of the three-tier hierarchical networking model used in the classical Cisco networks design? (Choose three.)
A. Distribution
B. Core
C. Access
D. Leaf
E. Spine
Correct Answer: ABC
Question 6:
In Cisco DNA Center, what is the integration API?
A. southbound consumer-facing RESTful API. which enables network discovery and configuration management
B. westbound interface, which allows the exchange of data to be used by ITSM. IPAM and reporting
C. an interface between the controller and the network devices, which enables network discovery and configuration management
D. northbound consumer-facing RESTful API, which enables network discovery and configuration management
In a Cisco SD-Access fabric architecture, which of the following are valid device roles (Choose three.)
A. Control Plane Node
B. Access routing device
C. Edge Node
D. Border Node
E. Distributed Node
Correct Answer: ACD
Question 8:
When is an external antenna used inside a building?
A. only when using Mobility Express
B. when it provides the required coverage
C. only when using 2 4 GHz
D. only when using 5 GHz
Correct Answer: B
Question 9:
You have configured router R1 with multiple VRFs \’s in order to support multiple customer VPN networks. If you wanted to see the best path for the 10.2.1.0.24 route in VRF Green, what command would you use?
A. show ip route vrf Green 10.2.1.0
B. show ip route 10.2.1.0 vrf Green
C. show route all 10.2.1.0
D. show ip route 10.2.1.0 Green
Correct Answer: A
#show ip route vrf mgmt 10.100.10.1 % IP routing table vrf mgmt does not exist
Question 10:
A firewall address of 192 166.1.101 can be pinged from a router but, when running a traceroute to It, this output is received.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The firewall blocks ICMP traceroute traffic.
B. The firewall rule that allows ICMP traffic does not function correctly
C. The firewall blocks ICMP traffic.
D. The firewall blocks UDP traffic
Correct Answer: D
Question 11:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to create an EEM script that adds an entry to a locally stored text file with a timestamp when a configuration change is made. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 12:
A customer deploys a new wireless network to perform location-based services using Cisco DNA Spaces The customer has a single WLC located on-premises in a secure data center. The security team does not want to expose the WLC to the public Internet.
Which solution allows the customer to securely send RSSI updates to Cisco DNA Spaces?
A. Implement Cisco Mobility Services Engine
B. Replace the WLC with a cloud-based controller.
C. Perform tethering with Cisco DNA Center.
D. Deploy a Cisco DNA Spaces connector as a VM.
Correct Answer: D
Question 13:
A customer wants to use a single SSID to authenticate loT devices using different passwords. Which Layer 2 security type must be configured in conjunction with Cisco ISE to achieve this requirement?
A. Fast Transition
B. Central Web Authentication
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management
D. Identity PSK
Correct Answer: D
With the advent of the Internet of things, the number of devices that connect to the Internet is increased multifold. Not all of these devices support 802.1x supplicant and need an alternate mechanism to connect to the internet.
One of the security mechanisms, WPA-PSK could be considered as an alternative. With the current configuration, the pre-shared key is the same for all clients that connect to the same WLAN.
In certain deployments such as Educational Institutions, this results in the key being shared with unauthorized users resulting in security breaches. Therefore, above mentioned and other requirements lead to the need for provisioning unique pre-shared keys for different clients on a large scale.
Identity PSKs are unique pre-shared keys created for individuals or groups of users on the same SSID.
No complex configuration is required for clients. The same simplicity of PSK makes it ideal for IoT, BYOD, and guest deployments.
Supported on most devices, where 802.1X may not, enabling stronger security for IoT.
Easily revoke access, for a single device or individual, without affecting everyone else.
Thousands of keys can easily be managed and distributed via the AAA server.
Question 14:
How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?
A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate.
B. It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate.
C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery.
D. It drops packets randomly from lower-priority queues.
Correct Answer: B
Traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time. The result of traffic shaping is a smoothed packet output rate.
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Which configuration command can you apply to an HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. no additional config is required
B. standby 1 track ethernet
C. standby 1 preempt
D. standby 1 priority 250
Correct Answer: A
Simply because that will be the default behavior routers would follow in the event all other routers in the HSRP group fail, then it would not keep attributes such as priority or preemption. What preemption does in summary is to make sure that the configured Priority on all routers within the same HSRP group is always respected.
That is, if R1 is configured on the HSRP group with a priority of 150 but he stands as active since all other routers currently subscribed to that group have a priority of 150, then will router will preempt the current active router and will take over hence becoming the new active router.
With preemption disabled, the new router does not preempt the current active router, unless routers in the group have to renegotiate their roles based on each router\’s priority at the time of negotiation.
Q2:
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
A. active
B. on
C. auto
D. desirable
Correct Answer: B
The Static Persistence (or “on” mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol is used. In this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received.
Q3:
A network engineer is implementing a corporate SSID for WPA3-Personal security with a PSK. Which encryption cipher must be configured?
A. CCMP128
B. GCMP256
C. CCMP256
D. GCMP128
Correct Answer: A
Q4:
Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
A. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications
B. reports device errors to a controller
C. generates statistics for network hardware and traffic
D. communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware
Correct Answer: A
Q5:
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
A. NAT
B. 6 to 4 tunneling
C. L2TPv3
D. dual-stack
Correct Answer: B
Q6:
What is the benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?
A. to enable secure connectivity over the Internet
B. to shield internal network devices from external access
C. to provide reliable connectivity between like devices
D. to be routable over an external network
Correct Answer: B
Q7:
When the active router in a VRRP group fails, which router assumes the role and forwards packets?
A. forwarding
B. standby
C. backup
D. listening
Correct Answer: C
Q8:
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?
A. The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing
B. The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol
C. The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance
D. The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.
Correct Answer: B
Q9:
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
Refer to the exhibit. Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
A. heavy traffic congestion
B. a duplex incompatibility
C. a speed conflict
D. queuing drops
Correct Answer: C
Q11:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q12:
A network architect is considering whether to implement Cisco DNA Center to deploy devices on a new network. The organization is focused on reducing the time it currently takes to deploy devices in a traditional campus design. For which reason would Cisco DNA Center be more appropriate than traditional management options?
A. Cisco DNA Center supports deployment with a single pane of glass.
B. Cisco DNA Center provides zero-touch provisioning to third-party devices.
C. Cisco DNA Center reduces the need for analytics on third-party access points and devices.
D. Cisco DNA Center minimizes the level of syslog output when reporting on Cisco devices.
Correct Answer: A
Q13:
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
A. IP SLA
B. Syslog
C. NetFlow
D. SNMPv3
Correct Answer: D
Q14:
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
A. SYIM flood
B. reflection
C. teardrop
D. amplification
Correct Answer: A
Q15:
Refer to the exhibit.
After the election process, what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
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Q1:
DRAG DROP
During the risk assessment phase of the project, the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is
fully aware of the regulations of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant. What is the best approach for the CISO?
Below are the common phases to creating a Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery (BC/DR) plan. Drag the remaining BC\DR phases to the appropriate corresponding location.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q2:
HOTSPOT
In the network design below, where is the MOST secure Local Area Network (LAN) segment to deploy a Wireless Access Point (WAP) that provides contractors access to the Internet and authorized enterprise services?
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Q3:
DRAG DROP
A software security engineer is developing a black box-based test plan that will measure the system\’s reaction to incorrect or illegal inputs or unexpected operational errors and situations. Match the functional testing techniques on the left with the correct input parameters on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q4:
DRAG DROP
In which order, from MOST to LEAST impacted, does user awareness training reduce the occurrence of the events below?
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q5:
DRAG DROP
What is the correct order of steps in an information security assessment?
Place the information security assessment steps on the left next to the numbered boxes on the right in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q6:
DRAG DROP
Match the types of e-authentication tokens to their description.
Drag each e-authentication token on the left to its corresponding description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q7:
DRAG DROP
Match the functional roles in an external audit to their responsibilities. Drag each role on the left to its corresponding responsibility on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q8:
DRAG DROP Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q9:
DRAG DROP
Match the access control type to the example of the control type. Drag each access control type net to its corresponding example.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q10:
HOTSPOT
Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification maintains a single authenticated identity across multiple dissimilar environments? Click on the correct specification in the image below.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Q11:
Given a file containing an ordered number, i.e. “123456789,” match each of the following redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) levels to the corresponding visual representation. Note: P() = parity.
Drag each level to the appropriate place on the diagram.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q12:
DRAG DROP
Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q13:
DRAG DROP
Match the objectives to the assessment questions in the governance domain of the Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM).
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q14:
DRAG DROP
Order the below steps to create an effective vulnerability management process.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q15:
HOTSPOT
Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification handles the management of security tokens and the underlying policies for granting access? Click on the correct specification in the image below.
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Certification
Exam Code
Exam Name
Version
Exam Duration
Qualified Score/Total
Exam Cost
HCIE-Datacom V1.0
H12-891
HCIE-Datacom V1.0
V1.0
90min
600/1000
300 USD
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Share the latest updated HCIE-Datacom V1.0 exam questions:
latest questions 1
IPv6 introduces the Solicited-Node address, which is described correctly below (multiple choice)
A. This is a specific address that is used for resolution in ARPv6 The MAC address. B. The Solicited-Node address on the router interface is automatically generated and can have multiple. C. If the Solicited-Node address is not configured, the router automatically generates one on each interface. D. IPv6 introduced the Solicited-Node address to support IPv6 multicast.
Correct Answer: B
latest questions 2
Regarding the description of the permanent multicast address, the error is?
A. All routers running the PIM protocol listen on 22400100 B. All routers listen on 224002 C. All hosts and routers in the network segment listen on 224001 D. All routers running the OSPF protocol listen to 224005
Correct Answer: A
latest questions 3
Regarding the description of the BGP neighbor, the error is:
A. BGP routers that support autodiscovery neighbors B. BGP establishing neighbors must be configured with MD5 authentication C. BGP needs to establish a UDP connection before establishing a neighbor D. BGP to establish a neighbor relationship needs to first interact with the link state information
Correct Answer: ABCD
latest questions 4
The following about BGP routing, describing the error, is?
A. Non-aggregate routes take precedence over aggregate routes B. In PrefVal, Local_ Preference is equal to the case if the route is generated locally, IBGP Routing, the BGP preference for EBGP routing, is generated effectively referring to route priority. C. See the following entry in the BGP routing table:* 172161.11/32 000010 0? Indicates that the route is available nonoptimal D. For next_hop unreachable routes when invalid routes, do not participate in the preferred.
Correct Answer: A
latest questions 5
The correct description of the BGP reflector is? ( Multiple choice questions).
A. IBGP neighbor relationships need to be fully interconnected without a route reflector. The introduction of route reflectors can reduce the need for full interconnection B. The route reflector can advertise routes learned from non-clients to all clients C. The route reflector can advertise routes learned from one client to other clients and non-clients D. The route reflector can advertise routes learned from IBGP neighbors to all clients and non-client
Correct Answer: ABC
latest questions 6
If a Huawei switch runs the RSTP protocol, when will the BPDUs on a port on the switch be aged?
A. On the interface, RSTP does not age BPDU B. After more than 6 seconds C. After Ma ge times out D. After Hello time times out E. after the Forward Delay timeout
Correct Answer: C
latest questions 7
In the evolution from IPv4 networks to IPv6, some transition technologies have emerged, which of the following are common types of transition technologies?
A. Dual-stack technology B. Tunneling Technology C. Compatible with Technology D. Conversion Technology
Correct Answer: ABCD
latest questions 8
In the city, that is, Mpls BGP VPN network, when the packet enters the public network forwarding, it will be encapsulated with two layers of MPLS tags, the following description of the two layers of tags, the error is?
A. Private network tags are carried out and distributed by MP-BGP when routing, and public network tags are distributed by the LDP protocol. B. MPLS BGP VPN uses two layers of tags: public labels (also known as outer labels) and private network labels (also known as inner labels). C. By default, the router assigns the same tag value to all VPNv4 routes destined for the peer D. The egress PE uses the inner tag when determining which egress CE the message should be sent to.
Correct Answer: C
latest questions 9
The following description of LDP reliability is incorrect. ( Radio).
A. LGP GR takes advantage of the high difference between the LS forwarding plane and the control plane to realize that the device forwards without interruption when the protocol is restarted or the master standby is reversed B. Manually configured LDP FRR policies default to 32-bit backup routes that trigger LDP to establish backup LSPs C. LLDPFRR also allows LSPs to be generated for tag mappings from non-optimal next hops, and as a live LSP backup, supervising forwarding table entries D. LDP and IGP linkage, the need for IGP has been routed to release, to ensure that LDP and LGP paths consistent
Correct Answer: B
latest questions 10
Regarding route introduction, what is the following description of the error?
A. BGP supports both import and network when generating routes, and the network mode is more precise. B. By default, OSPF introduces an external route with a default metric of 1, and the level-2 network of the ingested external route type, Type2 C. ISIS, routes to Level After the 1 makes a route ingestion, if you do not manually configure the ingestion policy, a bad route will be formed. D. Introducing IBGP routing in OSPF may cause routing loops
Correct Answer: C
latest questions 11
The CPU was attacked by malicious traffic. Here are some of the following ways to prevent an attack: Multi-select
A. USE CPCAR to rate limit messages sent up to the CPU according to the protocol type B. Speed limiting of messages sent to the CPU on the soil. C. Filter packets with ACL on the compromised router port D. Turn off the remote login function of the router. E. Analyze and count the packets sent to the CPU to find out the user of the attack source or the interface of the attack source.
Correct Answer: CD
latest questions 12
As shown in the figure,
in the context of IPv4 and IPv6, the SEL field in the NET address of ISIS is always valued as 00.
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: A
latest questions 13
The rules for RR to publish routes break the rules for horizontal segmentation of IBGP, so it is possible to cause loops within the AS. What routing attributes does RR use to prevent loops?
A. Nexthop B. Originator ID C. AS-PATH D. Cluster List
Correct Answer: BD
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Are you clear about the HCIA-Datacom V1.0 exam details?
HCIA-Datacom v1. The H12-811 exam is designed to develop and certify network engineers with data communication knowledge and skills. Via HCIA-Datacom v1. 0 certification indicates that it has the planning, design, deployment, O&M, and optimization capabilities of small and medium-sized campus networks.
Exam Name – HCIA-Datacom V1.0
Exam Code – H12-811
Version- V1.0
Exam Language – ENU/CHS
Exam Fees – 200 USD
Exam Duration – 90 mins
Passing Score – 600/1000
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Question 1 of 13
Which of the following statements about the various versions of the SNMP protocol are correct?
A. The SNMPv2 message has the functions of identity verification and encryption processing. B. SNMPv.3 messages have the functions of identity verification and encryption processing. C. SNMPv1 uses UDP as the transport layer protocol, while SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 use TCP as the transport layer protocol, so the reliability is higher. D. SNMPv2 follows the 5 protocol operations defined in the v1 version and adds two additional operations.
Correct Answer: BD
Question 2 of 13
Which of the following advantages does the single-arm routing method achieve in routing intercommunication between Vlan? ()
A. Reduce the number of equipment B. Reduce routing table entries C. Reduce the use of IP addresses D. Reduce the number of chain connections
Correct Answer: D
Question 3 of 13
If a windows host is started for the first time if it uses DHCP to obtain an IP address, what is the source IP address of the first packet sent by this host? ()
A. 127.0.0.1 B. 169.254.2.33 C. 0.0.0.0 D. 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: C
Question 4 of 13
Network equipment running the SNMP protocol can take the initiative to report alarm information so that network administrators can find faults in time. ()
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: A
Question 5 of 13
The network is shown in the figure below. Two switches are connected by four links. COPPER refers to the electrical interface and FIBER refers to the optical interface. Then which two interfaces can realize link aggregation? () (Single-choice question)
A. G0/0/2 and FE0/0/3 B. G0/0/3 and FE0/0/3 C. G0/0/2 and G0/0/1 D. G0/0/3 and G0/0/2
Correct Answer: D
Question 6 of 13
The two ends of the PPP link are not in the same network segment and cannot communicate
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: B
Question 7 of 13
On the switch, which VLANs can be deleted by using the undo command? ()
A. VLAN 4094 B. VLAN 2 C. VLAN 1 D. VLAN 1024
Correct Answer: ABD
Question 8 of 13
FIT AP can work independently without relying on AC. ()
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: B
Question 9 of 13
An existing switch is connected to a designated port through a port, but the port does not forward any packets but can monitor network changes by receiving BPDUs, then the role of the port should be ().
A. Alternate port B. Disable port C. Root port
Correct Answer: B
Question 10 of 13
Which of the following elements are included in the routing table? ()
A. Interface B. Destination/Mask C. Protocol D. NextHop
Correct Answer: ABCD
Question 11 of 13
The IEEE802.11astandard only supports the 5GHz frequency band ()
A. True B. False
Correct Answer: B
Question 12 of 13
When using the ping command on the VRp platform, if you need to specify an IP address as the source address of the echo request message, which of the following parameters should be used? ()
A. =-a B. =-S C. =-d D. =-1n
Correct Answer: A
Question 13 of 13
Which of the following statements about the default route are correct? ()
A. If the destination address of the message cannot match any other routing entries in the routing table, the router will forward the message according to the default route B. There must be a default route in the routing table of any router C. The default route can only be manually configured by the administrator D. In the routing table, the default route appears in the form of a route to the network 0.0.0.0 (the mask is also 0.0.0.0)
Correct Answer: AD
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