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QUESTION 1 You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. You need to create a resource record in DNS to support Autodiscover from the Internet. What type of resource record should you create? A. Host (A) B. Text (TXT) C. Pointer (PTR) D. Mail exchange (MX) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You have a server named EX01 that runs Exchange Server 2016. The disks on EX01 are configured as shown in the following table.
All users access their email by using Microsoft Outlook 2013. From Performance Monitor, you discover that the MSExchange Database\I/O Database Reads Average Latency counter displays values that are higher than normal. You need to identify the impact of the high counter values on user connections in the Exchange Server organization. What are two client connections that will report slower performance when opening email messages? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Outlook in Online Mode B. Outlook in Cached Exchange Mode C. Outlook on the web D. IMAP4 clients E. mobile devices using Exchange Active Sync Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3 Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains domain controllers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest contains an Exchange Server 2016 organization. You need to create a database availability group (DAG). Which two actions should you perform before you create the DAG? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. From Failover Cluster Manager, create a failover cluster. B. From the DNS zone, create an alias (CNAME) record for the name of the DAG. C. Install at least one domain controller that runs Windows Server 2016. D. From Active Directory, create a clustered name object (CNO). E. On the witness server, add the Exchange Trusted Subsystem group to the local administrators group. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization contains 5,000 mailboxes. All of the users in the organization share their Calendar with the users in two domains named contoso.com andfabrikam.com. You need to prevent the organization users from sharing their Calendar with the users in the contoso.com domain. What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 5 You are planning an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization will contain a Mailbox server named EX01. Users will have primary SMTP email addresses in the following domains: Contoso.com Fabrikam.com Cohowinery.com Wingtiptoys.com You need to add a DNS record to provide Autodiscover for each domain. Which type of record should you create in each zone? A. SRV B. CERT C. PTR D. MINFO E. LOC F. TXT Correct Answer: A To configure Autodiscover DNS records, you use either an A record, a CNAME record or an SRV record. Preference being A as its most commonly used, if that\\’s not there choose SRV as this works where A is not possible(certificate only has 1 SAN) and if that\\’s not there choose CNAME (can be used but can cause compatibility issues and cert issues).
QUESTION 6 Your company has an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization has a four-node database availability group (DAG) that spans two data centers. Each data center is configured as a separate Active Directory site. The data centers connect to each other by using a high-speed WAN link. Each data center connects directly to the Internet and has a scoped Send connector configured. The company\\’s public DNS zone contains one MX record. You need to ensure that if an Internet link becomes unavailable in one data center, email messages destined to external recipients can be routed through the other data center. What should you do? A. Create a Receive connector in each data center. B. Clear the Proxy through Client Access server check box. C. Clear the Scoped Send Connector check box. D. Create an MX record in the internal DNS zone. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You need to recommend a load balancing solution that meets the availability requirements. Which load balancing solution should you recommend? A. a Layer-7 load balancer with a single namespace and without session affinity B. a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster C. DNS round robin D. a Layer-4 load balancer with multiple namespaces and without session affinity Correct Answer: A From Scenario: Contoso identifies the following high-availability requirements for the planned deployment: The network load balancer must be able to probe the health of each workload.Load balancers that work on the Layer 7 of OSI model are intelligent. Layer 7 load balancer is aware of the type of traffic passing through it. This type of load balancer can inspect the content of the traffic between the clients and the Exchange server. From this inspection, it gets that results and uses this information to make its forwarding decisions. For example, it can route traffic based on the virtual directory to which a client is trying to connect, such as /owa, /ecp or /mapi and it can use a different routing logic, depending on the URL the client is connecting to. When using a Layer 7 load balancer, you can also leverage the capabilities of Exchange Server 2016 Managed Availability feature. This built-in feature of Exchange monitors the critical components and services of Exchange server and based on results it can take actions. Note: Layer 7 load balancer can use this to detect functionality of critical services, and based on that information decide if it will forward client connections to that node. If the load balancer health check receives a 200 status response from health check web page, then the service or protocol is up and running. If the load balancer receives a 403 status code, then it means that Managed Availability has marked that protocol instance down on the Mailbox server. Although it might look that load balancer actually performs a simple health check against the server nodes in the pool, health check web page provides an information about workload’s health by taking into account multiple internal health check probes performed by Managed Availability. Incorrect Answers: D: Load balancers that work on Layer 4 are not aware of the actual traffic content being load balanced. References: http://dizdarevic.ba/ddamirblog/?p=187
QUESTION 8 You need to recommend a solution that meets the security requirements for mobile devices. Which two objects should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. a device access rule B. a mobile device mailbox policy C. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy D. an Outlook Web App policy Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 Your network contains a single domain named contoso.local. You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization that uses a single external SMTP namespace of contoso.com. You establish mail flow to and from the Internet. You plan to deploy a customer relationship management (CRM) solution. The CRM solution will have its own SMTP server and must be able to receive email sent by using various addresses in contoso.com. The addresses will not be managed by the Exchange Server organization. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the CRM solution can receive email from the Internet. The solution must ensure that internal users can all receive email. Which two action should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create a Send connector that has a namespace of * and uses the CRM server as a smart host. B. Create a Send connector that has a namespace of contoso.com and uses the CRM server as a smart host. C. Change the domain type of the contoso.com accepted domain to External Relay Domain. D. Create a Send connector that has a namespace of contoso.local and uses the CRM server as a smart host. E. Change the domain type of the contoso.com accepted domain to Internal Relay Domain. F. Change the domain type of the contoso.local accepted domain to Internal Relay Domain. G. Change the domain type of the contoso.local accepted domain to External Relay Domain. Correct Answer: BE External relay domain: No recipients in the authoritative domain exist in the Exchange organization, so you shouldn\\’t enable Recipient Lookup for the domain. The Send connector that you configure for non-existent recipients in the external relay domain is sourced on an Edge Transport server or Internet-facing Mailbox server. Incorrect Answers: Internal relay domain: If all recipients in the internal relay domain exist in the Exchange organization (including mail contacts and mail users), you can enable Recipient Lookup for the domain. If some or none of the recipients in the internal relay domain exist in the Exchange organization, you shouldn\\’t enable Recipient Lookup for the domain. References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb124423(v=exchg.160).aspx
QUESTION 10 Your company has a data center in Miami and a data center in Orlando. Each data center is configured as an Active Directory site. The network contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. The company plans to deploy an Exchange Server 2016 organization that will contain the servers configured as shown in the following table.
The servers will be configured in a single database availability group (DAG). Datacenter Activation Coordination (DAC) mode will be enabled for the DAG. All inbound email from the Internet will be routed through EX5. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users will continue to receive email messages if the Miami data center fails. Which two actions should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Create one mail exchanger (MX) record that has a priority of 10 and configure the record to point to mx.fabricam.com. Create a second MX record that has a priority of 100 and configure the record to point to mxbackup.fabrikam.com. B. Create one mail exchanger (MX) record that has a priority of 10 and a second MX record that has a priority of 100. Configure both MX records to point to mx.fabrikam.com. C. Configure a host (A) record named mx.fabrikam.com and point mx.fabrikam.com to the IP address of EX5. Configure a host (A) record named mx-backup.fabrikam.com and point mx-backup.fabrikam.com to the IP address of EX6. D. Configure a host (A) record named mx.fabrikam.com. Add the IP addresses of EX5 and EX6 to the record. E. Modify the weight of the mx.fabrikam.com mail exchanger (MX) record. Correct Answer: AC Mail is delivered to the mail exchange server with the lowest preference number (highest priority), so the MX record you use for mail routing should have the lowest preference number, typically 0 or High priority. You can have multiple MX records each pointing to a different SMTP host. References: https://www.microsoftpressstore.com/articles/article.aspx?p=2302522andseqNum=3
QUESTION 11 You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization contains three Mailbox servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You discover that when User1 sends email messages to Group1, all of the messages are delivered to EX02 first. You need to identify why the email messages sent to Group1 are sent to EX02 instead. What should you identify? A. EX02 is configured as an expansion server. B. The arbitration mailbox is hosted on EX02. C. Site2 has universal group membership caching enabled. D. Site2 is configured as a hub site. Correct Answer: A References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa998825(v=exchg.150).aspx
QUESTION 12 You have an Active Directory forest named contoso.com that contains an Exchange Server 2016 organization named Contoso. Contoso.com has a two-way forest trust with an Active Directory forest named fabrika.com. The fabriakm.com forest contains an Exchange Server 2016 organization named Fabrikam. You need to ensure that the users in Contoso can access the free/busy information of all the users in Fabrikam. An administrator from Fabrikam runs the following command in the organization. Get-MailboxServer | Add-ADPermission -Accessrights Extendedright -Extendedrights “ms- ExchEPI-TokenSerialization” -User “CONTOSO\Exchange Servers” What command should you run in Contoso? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization. The organization has 500 mailboxes and three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
EX10EDGE is located in the perimeter network. EX10CH has an Edge Subscription. All Internet mail flows through EX10EDGE. You deploy an Exchange Server 2016 Mailbox server named EX16MBX to the organization. You deploy an Exchange Server 2016 Edge Transport server named EX16EDGEtothe perimeter network. You need to transition all Internet mail to flow through EX16EDGE. The solution must minimize disruptions to the mail flow. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT To meet the authentication requirements of Fabrikam, what should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: 2 The network contains two Active Directory forests named corp.fabrikam.com and rd.fabrikam.com. There are no trust relationships between the forests. Box 2: 1 Box 3: 1 Scenario: Users on the on-premises network must be able to authenticate to corp.fabrikam.com if an Internet link fails. Administrators must be able authenticate to the Azure portal by using their corp.fabrikam.com credentials. All administrative access to the Azure portal must be secured by using multi-factor authentication. Note: Users must always authenticate by using their corp.fabrikam.com UPN identity. The network contains two Active Directory forests named corp.fabrikam.com and rd.fabrikam.com. There are no trust relationships between the forests. Corp.fabrikam.com is a production forest that contains identities used for internal user and computer authentication. Rd.fabrikam.com is used by the research and development (RandD) department only.
QUESTION 2 You need to design a solution that will execute custom C# code in response to an event routed to Azure Event Grid. The solution must meet the following requirements: The executed code must be able to access the private IP address of a Microsoft SQL Server instance that runs on an Azure virtual machine. Costs must be minimized. What should you include in the solution? A. Azure Logic Apps in the integrated service environment B. Azure Functions in the Dedicated plan and the Basic Azure App Service plan C. Azure Logic Apps in the Consumption plan D. Azure Functions in the Consumption plan Correct Answer: D When you create a function app in Azure, you must choose a hosting plan for your app. There are three basic hosting plans available for Azure Functions: Consumption plan, Premium plan, and Dedicated (App Service) plan. For the Consumption plan, you don\\’t have to pay for idle VMs or reserve capacity in advance. Connect to private endpoints with Azure Functions As enterprises continue to adopt serverless (and Platform-as-a-service, or PaaS) solutions, they often need a way to integrate with existing resources on a virtual network. These existing resources could be databases, file storage, message queues or event streams, or REST APIs. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-scale https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/azure-functions/connect-to-private-endpoints-with-azure-functions/bap/1426615
QUESTION 3 You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption B. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption C. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) D. Azure Storage Service Encryption Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Your company purchases an app named App1. You plan to run App1 on seven Azure virtual machines in an Availability Set. The number of fault domains is set to 3. The number of update domains is set to 20. You need to identify how many App1 instances will remain available during a period of planned maintenance. How many App1 instances should you identify? A. 1 B. 2 C. 6 D. 7 Correct Answer: C Only one update domain is rebooted at a time. Here there are 7 update domain with one VM each (and 13 update domain with no VM). Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/manage-availability
QUESTION 5 You have an Azure subscription that is linked to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The subscription contains 10 resource groups, one for each department at your company. Each department has a specific spending limit for its Azure resources. You need to ensure that when a department reaches its spending limit, the compute resources of the department shut down automatically. Which two features should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Azure Logic Apps B. Azure Monitor alerts C. the spending limit of an Azure account D. Cost Management budgets E. Azure Log Analytics alerts Correct Answer: CD C: The spending limit in Azure prevents spending over your credit amount. All new customers who sign up for an Azure free account or subscription types that include credits over multiple months have the spending limit turned on by default. The spending limit is equal to the amount of credit and it can\\’t be changed. D: Turn on the spending limit after removing This feature is available only when the spending limit has been removed indefinitely for subscription types that include credits over multiple months. You can use this feature to turn on your spending limit automatically at the start of the next billing period. 1. Sign in to the Azure portal as the Account Administrator. 2. Search for Cost Management + Billing. 3. Etc. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management-billing/manage/spending-limit
QUESTION 6 HOTSPOT You are evaluating the components of the migration to Azure that require you to provision an Azure Storage account. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the following requirements: Provide access to the full .NET framework. Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails. Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies. Solution: You deploy two Azure virtual machines to two Azure regions, and create a Traffic Manager profile. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 You have 70 TB of files on your on-premises file server. You need to recommend a solution for importing data to Azure. The solution must minimize costs. What Azure service should you recommend? A. Azure StorSimple B. Azure Batch C. Azure Data Box D. Azure Stack Correct Answer: C Microsoft has engineered an extremely powerful solution that helps customers get their data to the Azure public cloud in a cost-effective, secure, and efficient manner with powerful Azure and machine learning at play. The solution is called Data Box. Data Box and is in general availability status. It is a rugged device that allows organizations to have 100 TB of capacity on which to copy their data and then send it to be transferred to Azure. Incorrect Answers: A: StorSimple would not be able to handle 70 TB of data. Reference: https://www.vembu.com/blog/what-is-microsoftazure-data-box-disk-edge-heavy-gateway-overview/
QUESTION 9 You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1. You plan to archive data to storage1. You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators from deleting the data. Solution: You create an Azure Blob storage container, and you configure a legal hold access policy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Use an Azure Blob storage container, but use a time-based retention policy instead of a legal hold. Note: Immutable storage for Azure Blob storage enables users to store business-critical data objects in a WORM (Write Once, Read Many) state. This state makes the data non-erasable and non-modifiable for a user-specified interval. For the duration of the retention interval, blobs can be created and read, but cannot be modified or deleted. Immutable storage is available for general-purpose v2 and Blob storage accounts in all Azure regions. Note: Set retention policies and legal holds 1. Create a new container or select an existing container to store the blobs that need to be kept in the immutable state. The container must be in a general-purpose v2 or Blob storage account. 2. Select Access policy in the container settings. Then select Add policy under Immutable blob storage. Either 3a. To enable legal holds, select Add Policy. Select Legal hold from the drop-down menu. Or 3b. To enable time-based retention, select Time-based retention from the drop-down menu. 4. Enter the retention interval in days (acceptable values are 1 to 146000 days). Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutability-policies-manage
QUESTION 10 You are designing an order processing system in Azure that will contain the Azure resources shown in the following table.
The order processing system will have the following transaction flow: A customer will place an order by using App1. When the order is received, App1 will generate a message to check for product availability at vendor 1 and vendor 2. An integration component will process the message, and then trigger either Function1 or Function2 depending on the type of order. Once a vendor confirms the product availability, a status message for App1 will be generated by Function1 or Function2. All the steps of the transaction will be logged to storage1. Which type of resource should you recommend for the integration component? A. an Azure Data Factory pipeline B. an Azure Service Bus queue C. an Azure Event Grid domain D. an Azure Event Hubs capture Correct Answer: A A data factory can have one or more pipelines. A pipeline is a logical grouping of activities that together perform a task. The activities in a pipeline define actions to perform on your data. Data Factory has three groupings of activities: data movement activities, data transformation activities, and control activities. Azure Functions is now integrated with Azure Data Factory, allowing you to run an Azure Function as a step in your data factory pipelines. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/concepts-pipelines-activities
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP You have an on-premises network that uses an IP address space of 172.16.0.0/16. You plan to deploy 25 virtual machines to a new Azure subscription. You identify the following technical requirements: All Azure virtual machines must be placed on the same subnet named Subnet1. All the Azure virtual machines must be able to communicate with all on-premises servers. The servers must be able to communicate between the on-premises network and Azure by using a site-to-site VPN. You need to recommend a subnet design that meets the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, drag the appropriate network addresses to the correct subnets. Each network address may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 12 HOTSPOT You configure the Diagnostics settings for an Azure SQL database as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2019 and contains 500 GB of data files. You are designing a solution that will use Azure Data Factory to transform the data files, and then load the files to Azure Data Lake Storage. What should you deploy on VM1 to support the design? A. the Azure Pipelines agent B. the Azure File Sync agent C. the On-premises data gateway D. the self-hosted integration runtime in Azure Correct Answer: D The integration runtime (IR) is the compute infrastructure that Azure Data Factory uses to provide data-integration capabilities across different network environments. For details about IR, see the Integration runtime overview. A self-hosted integration runtime can run copy activities between a cloud data store and a data store in a private network. It also can dispatch transform activities against compute resources in an on-premises network or an Azure virtual network. The installation of a self-hosted integration runtime needs an on-premises machine or a virtual machine inside a private network. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/create-self-hosted-integration-runtime
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QUESTION 1 A compliance officer of a large organization has reviewed the firm\\’s vendor management program but has discovered there are no controls defined to evaluate third-party risk or hardware source authenticity. The compliance officer wants to gain some level of assurance on a recurring basis regarding the implementation of controls by third parties. Which of the following would BEST satisfy the objectives defined by the compliance officer? (Choose two.) A. Executing vendor compliance assessments against the organization\\’s security controls B. Executing NDAs prior to sharing critical data with third parties C. Soliciting third-party audit reports on an annual basis D. Maintaining and reviewing the organizational risk assessment on a quarterly basis E. Completing a business impact assessment for all critical service providers F. Utilizing DLP capabilities at both the endpoint and perimeter levels Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 2 An information security analyst observes anomalous behavior on the SCADA devices in a power plant. This behavior results in the industrial generators overheating and destabilizing the power supply. Which of the following would BEST identify potential indicators of compromise? A. Use Burp Suite to capture packets to the SCADA device\\’s IP. B. Use tcpdump to capture packets from the SCADA device IP. C. Use Wireshark to capture packets between SCADA devices and the management system. D. Use Nmap to capture packets from the management system to the SCADA devices. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A development team uses open-source software and follows an Agile methodology with two-week sprints. Last month, the security team filed a bug for an insecure version of a common library. The DevOps team updated the library on the server, and then the security team rescanned the server to verify it was no longer vulnerable. This month, the security team found the same vulnerability on the server. Which of the following should be done to correct the cause of the vulnerability? A. Deploy a WAF in front of the application. B. Implement a software repository management tool. C. Install a HIPS on the server. D. Instruct the developers to use input validation in the code. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 An audit has revealed an organization is utilizing a large number of servers that are running unsupported operating systems. As part of the management response phase of the audit, which of the following would BEST demonstrate senior management is appropriately aware of and addressing the issue? A. Copies of prior audits that did not identify the servers as an issue B. Project plans relating to the replacement of the servers that were approved by management C. Minutes from meetings in which risk assessment activities addressing the servers were discussed D. ACLs from perimeter firewalls showing blocked access to the servers E. Copies of change orders relating to the vulnerable servers Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A product manager is working with an analyst to design a new application that will perform as a data analytics platform and will be accessible via a web browser. The product manager suggests using a PaaS provider to host the application. Which of the following is a security concern when using a PaaS solution? A. The use of infrastructure-as-code capabilities leads to an increased attack surface. B. Patching the underlying application server becomes the responsibility of the client. C. The application is unable to use encryption at the database level. D. Insecure application programming interfaces can lead to data compromise. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 A small electronics company decides to use a contractor to assist with the development of a new FPGA-based device. Several of the development phases will occur off-site at the contractor\\’s labs. Which of the following is the main concern a security analyst should have with this arrangement? A. Making multiple trips between development sites increases the chance of physical damage to the FPGAs. B. Moving the FPGAs between development sites will lessen the time that is available for security testing. C. Development phases occurring at multiple sites may produce change management issues. D. FPGA applications are easily cloned, increasing the possibility of intellectual property theft. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.eetimes.com/how-to-protect-intellectual-property-in-fpgas-devices-part-1/#
QUESTION 7 A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned the development team, which consists of contractors, has too much access to customer data. Developers use personal workstations, giving the company little to no visibility into the development activities. Which of the following would be BEST to implement to alleviate the CISO\\’s concern? A. DLP B. Encryption C. Test data D. NDA Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Bootloader malware was recently discovered on several company workstations. All the workstations run Windows and are current models with UEFI capability. Which of the following UEFI settings is the MOST likely cause of the infections? A. Compatibility mode B. Secure boot mode C. Native mode D. Fast boot mode Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A security analyst is reviewing packet captures from a system that was compromised. The system was already isolated from the network, but it did have network access for a few hours after being compromised. When viewing the capture in a packet analyzer, the analyst sees the following:
Which of the following can the analyst conclude? A. Malware is attempting to beacon to 128.50.100.3. B. The system is running a DoS attack against ajgidwle.com. C. The system is scanning ajgidwle.com for PII. D. Data is being exfiltrated over DNS. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 A security analyst is reviewing vulnerability scan results and notices new workstations are being flagged as having outdated antivirus signatures. The analyst observes the following plugin output: Antivirus is installed on the remote host: Installation path: C:\Program Files\AVProduct\Win32\ Product Engine: 14.12.101 Engine Version: 3.5.71 Scanner does not currently have information about AVProduct version 3.5.71. It may no longer be supported. The engine version is out of date. The oldest supported version from the vendor is 4.2.11. The analyst uses the vendor\\’s website to confirm the oldest supported version is correct. Which of the following BEST describes the situation? A. This is a false positive, and the scanning plugin needs to be updated by the vendor. B. This is a true negative, and the new computers have the correct version of the software. C. This is a true positive, and the new computers were imaged with an old version of the software. D. This is a false negative, and the new computers need to be updated by the desktop team. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 A security analyst is evaluating two vulnerability management tools for possible use in an organization. The analyst set up each of the tools according to the respective vendor\\’s instructions and generated a report of vulnerabilities that ran against the same target server. Tool A reported the following:
Which of the following BEST describes the method used by each tool? (Choose two.) A. Tool A is agent based. B. Tool A used fuzzing logic to test vulnerabilities. C. Tool A is unauthenticated. D. Tool B utilized machine learning technology. E. Tool B is agent based. F. Tool B is unauthenticated. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 A security technician is testing a solution that will prevent outside entities from spoofing the company\\’s email domain, which is comptia.org. The testing is successful, and the security technician is prepared to fully implement the solution. Which of the following actions should the technician take to accomplish this task? A. Add TXT @ “v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptia.org -all” to the DNS record. B. Add TXT @ “v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptia.org -all” to the email server. C. Add TXT @ “v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptia.org +all” to the domain controller. D. Add TXT @ “v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptia.org +all” to the web server. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://blog.finjan.com/email-spoofing
QUESTION 13 A security analyst reviews the following aggregated output from an Nmap scan and the border firewall ACL:
Which of the following should the analyst reconfigure to BEST reduce organizational risk while maintaining current functionality? A. PC1 B. PC2 C. Server1 D. Server2 E. Firewall Correct Answer: E
The new CompTIA CYSA+ (CS0-002) certification exam will take effect on April 21, 2020. This study guide shares the learning materials for the new exam CS0-002. Recommended websites https://www.pass4itsure.com/cs0-002.html CS0-002 dumps Q&As.
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Summary
The following are the details of your Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification. Prepare for maximum learning in the shortest time.
Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate
Exams covered by certification
Certification resources, recommend Pass4itsure
Certification costs
Why get a Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification?
New! Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultants implement solutions that anticipate and plan customer connections, manage deals through processing and closing, and accelerate sales team performance using data analytics.(From the most accurate official answer)
Key point: MB-200 will be replaced by a new exam, or PL-200, plus MB-210, until MB-200 retires on December 31, 2020. But before that, you still have to pass MB-200, plus MB-210 to get this certificate
Maybe you will be interested in other Microsoft certification exams!
Exams covered by certification
You will prepare and test for the following exams, which are covered by your certification guarantee: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales (MB-210) exam + core exam MB-200 will win you Microsoft certification: Dynamic 365 Sales Function Consultant Assistant Certification.
The MB-210 exam tests you on the following skills and knowledge areas:
Perform configuration (40-45%)
Manage core sales entities (20-25%)
Manage sales entities (35-40%)
The MB-200 exam tests you on the following skills and knowledge areas:
Perform discovery, planning, and analysis (5-10%)
Manage user experience design (20-25%)
Manage entities and data (15-20%)
Implement security (5-10%)
Implement integration (15-20%)
Perform solutions deployment and testing (25-30%)
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If you want to take these two exams, you can see all the information about the exam dumps.
MB-200: Microsoft Power Platform + Dynamics 365 Core （164 Q&As Updated: Sep 04, 2020）
MB-210: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales （70 Q&As Updated: Aug 31, 2020）
What’s Included:
Microsoft MB-200 Practice Exam
Microsoft MB-210 Practice Exam
Microsoft MB-200 PDF Dumps Download
Microsoft MB-210 PDF Dumps Download
From Pass4itsure Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate!
Recommended training resources to help you prepare for required exams and earn your certification.
Certification costs
Officialcost:
Exam MB-200 $165 USD*
Exam MB-210 $165 USD*
If you pass it once, you need to spend $330 to get your Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate.
Originally it would cost US$91.98 to pass Pass4itsure resources, but now Pass4itsure offers a 12% discount, so you only need to spend US$80.94, (note that you need to use the discount code “2020PASS“), which reduces your financial burden.
Why get a Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification?
When you have Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification, you are five times more likely to be hired. Once you find this good job, you are more likely to get a better salary. This is not only good for you, but also good for the company you work for, making you an asset they cannot afford to lose.
P.S.
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This exam tests a candidate’s ability to develop a design given a set of customer requirements to determine the functional requirements needed to create a logical design and architect a physical design using these elements.
VMware VCAP6.5-DCV Design 3V0-624 Practice Question
QUESTION 1 Customer Requirements: You have been tasked with creating a vSphere 6.5 data center design for an organization. The organization is looking to virtualize their physical email application. The company has provided a list of requirements that must be included in the design: – E-mail database is replicated between two servers at a logical level, with no shared disk configurations. – E-mail databases meet corporate criteria for LUN provisioning, and must reside directly on storage array. – Operating system disks do not meet corporate requirements for LUN provisioning, and per policy should not share the same VMFS storage location for redundancy reasons. -Internal users currently point to three Client Access Servers for load balancing. -External users currently point to three Web Client Access Servers for load balancing. – Customer requires discrete hardware to provide security between internal servers and externally available servers, as well as between externally available servers, and client connections from offsite. Design Requirements: Create a solution that shows the service dependencies required for virtualizing the email application, including: – All required storage for Mail DB VM(s) only – All required network and security connection(s) – All required virtual machine(s) – All required user(s) A. Check below for answer solution Correct Answer: A Place all items in required container(s). Connect VMFS datastore(s) to required virtual machine(s). Place disk(s) over the required storage type(s). Connect firewall(s) to container(s).
See the solution below
QUESTION 2 A customer has requested that a new vSphere 6.5 environment be designed with its upcoming data center consolidation effort in mind. 1. The existing environment is a mix of physical and virtual servers 2. Fibre Channel storage is used for 100 vSphere ESXi hosts and 600 physical servers across three data centers, some of which contain latency sensitive applications critical to ongoing business 3. The customer expects to increase its virtualization ratio from 50% today to 90% at the conclusion of this effort, and wants the new design to feature a software-defined storage solution that will decrease their TCO. Which two statements are the business requirements in this scenario? (Choose two.) A. The design must include VMware vSAN as the primary storage solution B. The design must account for business-critical applications C. The design must increase virtualization adoption D. The design must reuse wherever possible to reduce cost Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3 A leading steel manufacturer relies on SAP for purchase, sales, add invoice processing. 1. It is planning to virtualize its severs to reduce CAPEX and OPEX. 2. However, its CIO is concerned about the availability, performance, manageability, recoverability, and security for the SAP database and ERP instance. Match the business requirement with the appropriate design concept. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 A customer wants to improve the performance of its vMotion migrations. The current configuration has only one VMkernel port group for vMotion using vmnic3. The customer has vmnicS available for use. What change can be made to increase vMotion performance? A. * Add vmnic5 to the vMotion Port Group as an active uplink. * Create a second vMotion Port Group with vmnic5 as an active uplink and vmnic3 as an active uplink. B. * Add vmnic5 to the vMotion Port Group as a standby uplink. * Do not create a second vMotion Port Group. C. * Add vmnicS to the vMotion Port Group as a standby uplink. * Create a second vMotion Port Group with vmnicS as an active uplink and vmnic3 as a standby uplink. D. * Add vmnic5 to the vMotion Port Group as an active uplink. * Do not create a second vMotion Port Group. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 A customer has these requirements for storage: 1. Protocol used must have a file based access. 2. Protocol used must have built in native multipathing. 3. protocol used must support authentication. To meet these requirements, which protocol should be used for storage? A. NFS v3 B. NFS v4.1 C. FCoE D. iSCSI Correct Answer: B Because NFS 4.1 are support authentication and is a file-based storage
VMware Other Certification 5V0-32.19 Practice Question
QUESTION 1 What is the VMware recommended best practice to scale vCloud Director cells? A. Deploy N+1 cells where N is number of resource groups or n/3000 + 1 powered on virtual machines. B. Deploy one vCloud Director Cell per 3000 simultaneous client connections. C. Deploy one additional vCloud Director Cell per N where N = Virtual Machines / Resource Pools * Number of vCenters. D. Deploy a one to one ratio of vCloud Director Cells per vCenter cluster. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/vcat/vmware-architecting-a-vclouddirector-solution.pdf (19)
QUESTION 2 What is the benefit of a Data Center Extension inside of VMware vCloud Director Extender? A. register an existing IPsec VPN tunnel to access the VMware vCloud Director environment B. create trunk ports inside of a VMware virtual Distributed Switch for vCloud Director Extender usage C. create an NSX L2 VPN connection to stretch on-premises networks to a VMware vCloud Director environment D. use automation to create VMware vCloud Director Extender appliances Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 How does a VMware NSX distributed firewall function within a VMware vCloud Director environment? A. controls configuration of dynamic NAT rules B. displays concurrent connections coming into VMware vCloud Director C. secures application in the organization virtual data center from inside and outside threats D. manages the BGP and OSPF protocols Correct Answer: C Reference: https://fojta.wordpress.com/2017/03/01/vcloud-director-8-20-distributed-firewall/
QUESTION 2 Which Native AWS construct are third-party ISV partners able to leverage for data archiving within the data-protection service? A. Athena B. Glacier C. Kinesis D. Cognito Correct Answer: B data-processing application on Amazon EC2 and uses Amazon S3 and Amazon S3 Glacier Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/solutions/case-studies/all/
QUESTION 3 What are two requirements for using the bulk migration feature of HCX for virtual machines migrating into VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose two.) A. No mounted CD Drives B. Virtual RDMs C. NSX for vSphere D. Virtual Hardware 7 and above 5V0-33.19 VCE Dumps | 5V0-33.19 Practice Test | 5V0-33.19 Study Guide 2 / 7 https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-33-19.html 2020 Latest pass4itsure 5V0-33.19 PDF and VCE dumps Download E. Physical RDMs Correct Answer: AD Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-HCX/services/hcx-user-guide.pdf
QUESTION 4 During which two points in a customer engagement is a Hybrid Cloud Readiness Assessment appropriate? (Choose two.) A. During SDDC deployment B. After SDDC deployment C. Before SDDC deployment D. During the validation phase of the SDDC deployment E. Scoping Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 Which three levels of access could a managed services provider (MSP) partner provide to users of a managed organization? (Choose three.) A. Tenant Management Access B. No Access C. Partially Managed Access D. Full Access E. User Access F. Root Access Correct Answer: ACF
VMware vRealize Operations 2020 5V0-34.19 Practice Question
QUESTION 1 When starting a dashboard from the Manage Dashboards page, to what can a dashboard be directly assigned? A. Groups B. Embed C. URL D. Email Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is the minimum assigned role needed to perform user management and cluster management? A. ContentAdmin B. Administrator C. AgentManager D. PowerUser Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A user finds a cluster is not visible when attempting to navigate to it in the Environment navigation panel. Global settings within vRealize Operations has disabled all vCenter the account authentication. Which two items should be administratively checked within vRealize Operations to ensure that desired object is visible? (Choose two.) A. vCenter user privileges B. User role C. Outbound settings D. Policy assignment E. User object access assignment Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4 How can vRealize Operations tags be used? A. be dynamically assigned to objects B. to group virtual machines in vCenter C. to set object access controls D. to filter objects within dashboard widgets Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Where in vRealize Operations is the number of additional VMs that can fit into a data center displayed? A. datacenter Capacity Allocation Overview dashboard B. datacenter object Environment tab C. datacenter object Capacity tab D. Cluster Utilization dashboard Correct Answer: C
VMware 5V0-34.19 Exam Video
https://youtu.be/GclaVQ_JZvQ
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