Get the newest free complete Fortinet NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam dumps! Go https://www.pass4itsure.com/nse7_efw-6-2.html (Q&As: 102 ). Best 100% valid up-to-date actual Fortinet NSE7_EFW-6.2 dumps that bring you the best results. You can get 100% free updates on Fortinet NSE7_EFW-6.2 practice test questions, Fortinet NSE7_EFW-6.2 pdf here.
Latest Fortinet NSE7_EFW-6.2 Exam Questions From Youtube
https://youtu.be/culjlbELPLI
New Fortinet NSE7_EFW-6.2 Practice Test Q1-Q13 Free
QUESTION 1 Which two statements about application layer test commands are true? (Choose two.) A. They are used to filter real-time debugs. B. They display real-time application debugs. C. Some of them can be used to restart an application. D. Some of them display statistics and configuration information about a feature or process. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit, which contains the output of a web filtering diagnose command.
Which statement explains why the cache statistics are all zeros? A. The FortiGate web filter cache is disabled in the FortiGate configuration. B. FortiGate is using flow-based inspection which does not use the cache. C. The administrator has reallocated the cache memory to a separate process. D. There are no users making web requests. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit, which contains the partial output of an IKE real-time debug.
Why did the tunnel not come up? A. The pre-shared keys do not match B. The remote gateway phase 1 configuration does not match the local gateway phase 1 configuration. C. The remote gateway phase 2 configuration does not match the local gateway phase 2 configuration. D. The remote gateway is using aggressive mode and the local gateway is configured to use main mode. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 What is the diagnose test application ipsmonitor 99 command used for? A. To enable IPS bypass mode B. To provide information regarding IPS sessions C. To disable the IPS engine D. To restart all IPS engines and monitors Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 When using the SSL certificate inspection method to inspect HTTPS traffic, how does FortiGate filter web requests when the client browser does not provide the server name indication (SNI) extension? A. FortiGate uses the requested URL from the user\\’s web browser. B. FortiGate uses the CN information from the Subject field in the server certificate. C. FortiGate blocks the request without any further inspection. D. FortiGate switches to the full SSL inspection method to decrypt the data. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit, which contains a partial output of an IKE real-time debug.
Based on the debug output, which phase-1 setting is enabled in the configuration of this VPN? A. auto-discovery-receiver B. auto-discovery-forwarder C. auto-discovery-sender D. auto-discovery-shortcut Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit, which contains a TCL script configuration on FortiManager.
An administrator has configured the TCL script on FortiManager but failed to apply any changes to the managed device after being executed. Why did the TCL script fail to make any changes to the managed device? A. Changes in an interface configuration can only be done by CLI script. B. The TCL script must start with #include. C. Incomplete commands are ignored in TCL scripts. D. The TCL command run_cmd has not been created. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which three conditions are required for two FortiGate devices to form an OSP adjacency? (Choose three.) A. OSPF costs match B. OSPF peer IDs match C. Hello and dead intervals match D. OSPF IP MTUs match E. IP addresses are in the same subnet Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit, which contains a CLI script configuration on FortiManager. An administrator has configured the CLI script on FortiManager, which failed to apply any changes to the managed device after being executed. Why did the script not make any changes to the managed device? A. There is an existing route with a lower priority value. B. CLI scripts will add objects only if they are referenced by policies. C. Commands that start with the #sign are not executed. D. Static routes can only be added using TCL scripts. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which configuration can be used to reduce the number of BGP sessions in an IBGP network? A. Next-hop-self B. Route reflector C. Neighbor group D. Neighbor range Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit, which contains the output of a BGP debug command. Which statement explains why the state of the 10.200.3.1 peer is Connect? A. The local router has received the BGP prefixes from the remote peer. B. The local router is receiving the BGP keepalives from the peer, but it has not received a BGP prefix yet. C. The TCP session to 10.200.3.1 has not completed the 3-way handshake. D. The local router is receiving BGP keepalives from the remote peer, but the local peer has not received the OpenConfirm yet. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which two statements about FortiManager are true when it is deployed as a local FDS? (Choose two.) A. It caches available firmware updates for unmanaged devices. B. It provides VM license validation services. C. It can be configured as an update server, or a rating server, but not both. D. It supports rating requests from both managed and unmanaged devices. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 13 Which two statements about bulk configuration changes using FortiManager CLI scripts are correct? (Choose two.) A. When executed on the Device Database, you must use the installation wizard to apply the changes to the managed FortiGate. B. When executed on the Policy Package, ADOM database, changes are applied directly to the managed FortiGate. C. When executed on the All FortiGate in ADOM, changes are automatically installed without creating a new revision history. D. When executed on the Remote FortiGate directly, administrators do not have the option to review the changes prior to installation. Correct Answer: AD
Latest Fortinet NSE7_EFW-6.2 questions answers in order to lead every candidate towards a brighter and better future. Select https://www.pass4itsure.com/nse7_efw-6-2.html to get complete Fortinet NSE7_EFW-6.2 dumps practice exam questions and answers. Wish you success!
Get the newest free complete Huawei H12-211 exam dumps! Go https://www.pass4itsure.com/h12-211.html (Q&As: 571 ). Best 100% valid up-to-date actual Huawei H12-211 dumps that bring you the best results. You can get 100% free updates on Huawei H12-211 practice test questions, Huawei H12-211 pdf here.
QUESTION 1 display startup MainBoard: Startup system software: sd1:/ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc Next startup system software: sd1:/ar2220- v200r003c00spc200.cc Backup system software for next startup: null Startup saved-configuration file: null Next startup saved-configuration file: null Startup license file: null Next startup license file: null Startup patch package: null Next startup patch package: null Startup voice-files: null Next startup voice-files: null Refer to the display output. Which statement is false? A. The current configuration file has not been saved. B. The current startup system software is ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc C. The next startup system software cannot be changed. D. The next startup system software can be changed by using the “startup system software .cc” command. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 system – view [Huawei]command – privilege level 3 view user save The correct statement about the above configuration command is () A. Modify the user\\’s permission level to 3, and save the configuration. B. Modify the user view command to a permission level of 3, and save the configuration. C. Modify the permission level of the save command used by a user to 3 D. Modify the permission level of the save command in the user view to 3 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 The network structure and OSPF partition are shown in the figure. In addition to R1, routers R2, R3 and R4 are OSPF ABR routers.
A. Correct B. Error Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Two routers are connected via serial interfaces, for which the link-protocol is PPP. The network administrator wishes to configure PPP authentication to improve security on this link. Which PPP authentication method provides a more secure solution? A. CHAP B. PAP C. MD5 D. SSH Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 The network administrator wants to improve the performance of network transmission, what steps can the administrator take? (Choose two) A. Change the work mode to full duplex of each end station. B. Link the end stations together using a switch. C. Change the work mode to half duplex of each end station. D. Link the end stations together using a hub. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6 When two switches use link aggregation technology for interconnection, which of the following conditions do each member port need to meet? (multiple choice) A. The number of physical ports connected to the two ends is the same. B. The physical ports connected to the two ends have the same rate. C. The physical port duplex mode connected to the two ends is the same. D. The physical numbers of the physical interfaces connected to the two ends are the same. E. The optical modules used by the physical ports connected to the two ends are of the same type. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 7 In the OSI reference model, the ability to perform end-to-end error detection and flow control is (). A. Physical layer B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Source Destination Protocol Info 10.0.12.1 10.0.12.2 TCP 50190 > telnet [SYN] Seq=0 Win=8192 Len=0 MSS=1460 10.0.12.2 10.0.12.1 TCP telnet> 50190 [SYN, ACK] Seq=0 Ack=1 Win=8192 Len=0 MSS=1460 10.0.12.1 10.0.12.2 TCP 50190 > telnet [ACK] Seq=1 Ack=1 Win=8192 Len=0 Refer to the capture output.The administrator has captured three packets in the network. Which statement regarding the capured packets is incorrect? A. This packets represent a TCP three-way handshake process. B. 10.0.12.1 is the telnet server, while 10.0.12.2 is the telnet client. C. The three packets contain no application data. D. 10.0.12.1 uses port 50190 to buid the telnet connection. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 217.# Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 Port link type trunk Port trunk allow pass vlan 2 to 4094 # According to the command output shown above, the correct one in the following description is () (multiple choice) A. GigabitEthernet0/0/1 does not allow VLAN1 to pass. B. GigabitEthernet0/0/1 allows VLAN1 to pass C. If you want to change the GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port to an Access port, you must first use the command “undo port trunk allow pass vlan All clear the default configuration D. If you want to change the GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port to an Access port, you must first use the command “undo port trunk allow pass vlan 2 to 4094″ clear default configuration Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 10 As shown in the figure, both ports GE0/0/1 and GE0/0/2 are configured with different Hybrid configurations. The correct statement is (). (many selected)
A. The administrative department and the finance department cannot exchange visits because the VLANs belonging to the two departments are different. B. The data frame sent by the administrative department carries the tag in the switch as VLAN20. C. The data frame sent by the finance department carries the tag in the switch as VLAN20. D. The switch here can be a Layer 2 switch or a Layer 3 switch because communication does not need to go through a Layer 3 gateway. E. If both ports GE0/0/1 and GE0/0/2 of the switch are modified to be trunk ports, the two departments can communicate normally. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11 Refer to the following topology and router configuration. The NAT configuration does not specify a NAT global address pool, so address translation cannot be performed correctly.
A. Yes B. Wrong Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following statements regarding link-state database and routing table of a “single” OSPF area are correct? (Choose two) A. The link-state databases that all routers build are identical. B. The link-state databases that all routers build are different. C. The routing-tables that all routers calculate are different. D. The routing-tables that all routers calculate are identical. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13 It is known that the routing table of a router has the following two entries. If the router wants to forward packets with the destination address of 9.1.4.5, the following is said. The correct thing in the law is ().
A. Select the first item as the best match because the OSPF protocol has a higher priority. B. Select the second item as the best match because the RIP protocol has a lower value. C. Select the second item as the best match because the exit is Ethternet0, which is faster than Serial 0. D. Select the second term as the best match because the route entry is a more accurate match for the destination address 9.1.4.5 Correct Answer: D
Latest Huawei H12-211 questions answers in order to lead every candidate towards a brighter and better future. Select https://www.pass4itsure.com/h12-211.html to get complete Huawei H12-211 dumps practice exam questions and answers. Wish you success!
Get the newest free complete NetApp NS0-002 exam dumps! Go https://www.pass4itsure.com/ns0-002.html (Q&As: 60 ). Best 100% valid up-to-date actual NetApp NS0-002 dumps that bring you the best results. You can get 100% free updates on NetApp NS0-002 practice test questions, NS0-002 pdf here.
QUESTION 1 You have a centralized data center running NetApp ONTAP. Your business is deploying a new IoT solution directly managed by the Azure IoT hub. You want to store data in the cloud for use with data analytics. Whish NetApp solution would accomplish this task? A. Cloud Secure B. Cloud Volumes ONTAP C. Cloud Backup Service D. Cloud Insights Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Your business has access to on-premises applications and decides to distribute some of the workloads onto a public cloud provider. In this scenario, what is this architecture called? A. hybrid cloud B. public cloud C. community cloud D. private cloud Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which two StorageGRID features provide data durability for large unstructured datasets? (Choose two.) A. erasure coding B. storage tiering C. object replication D. S3 API compatibility Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4 Your users require both NFS and SMB file services. You do not want to manage the storage using OnCommand System Manager or the command-line interface. In this scenario, which three products would satisfy these requirements? (Choose three.) A. Azure NetApp Files B. NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP C. NetApp Cloud Volumes Service for AWS D. NetApp Cloud Volumes Service for GCP E. Amazon S3 Glacier Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5 What are the two functions of FlexGroup volumes? (Choose two.) A. massive capacity B. ability to hold LUNs C. nondisruptive scale out D. ideal for small workloads Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 What is an elastic IP? A. an Internet routable address B. a nonroutable address C. a peering route D. a load-balanced IP address Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 What are two node types within a Kubernetes cluster? (Choose two.) A. storage node B. gateway node C. worker node D. master node Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 Which two statements describe the benefits of using public clouds? (Choose two.) A. Applications are always less expensive to run in the public cloud. B. Public clouds are always used for hosting tier 1 and financial applications. C. Public clouds provide an environment for development, testing, and disaster-recovery applications. D. Public clouds support multi-regional applications without the expense of collocating data centers. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9 What is the primary interface to manage a NetApp HCI cluster? A. VMware vCenter B. OnCommand System Manager C. OnCommand Unfired Manager D. VMware Horizon Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 What are two reasons to enable high availability? (Choose two.) A. performance management B. fault tolerance C. nondisruptive operation D. load balancing Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11 What is a group of one or more containers in a Kubernetes cluster? A. helm B. pilot C. node D. pod Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 What are two methods to subscribe to Cloud Insights? (Choose two.) A. NetApp Cloud Central B. NetApp Sales C. NetApp Support Site D. AWS Marketplace Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13 You are currently performing all the important administrator and maintenance tasks for your system, and need to delegate work to the staff so that you can attend to other issues. Which approach will you take to ensure that your systems are safe? A. Provide all users with power user access. B. Employ mandatory integrity control. C. Provide all users with administrator access. D. Employ the principle of least privilege. Correct Answer: C
Latest NetApp NS0-002 questions answers in order to lead every candidate towards a brighter and better future. Select https://www.pass4itsure.com/ns0-002.html to get complete NetApp NS0-002 dumps practice exam questions and answers. Wish you success!
Get the newest free complete Cisco exam dumps! Best 100% valid up-to-date actual Cisco 700-751 dumps that bring you the best results. Go https://www.pass4itsure.com/700-751.html You can get 100% free updates Cisco 700-751 questions pdf here.
Cisco Proctored Exams 700-751 Practice Test Q1-Q13 Free
QUESTION 1 Which statement describe how Cisco Meraki devices behave should they be unable to contact the Meraki Cloud server? A. The devices may be re-initiated into a backup mode if an administrator manually intervenes using a direct, local connection. B. The network devices continue to function normally (traffic flows at full line rate) but management and configuration functions are interrupted. C. The network stops passing traffic across devices and their interfaces including any connected non-Cisco Meraki devices. D. The network devices will attempt to establish a connection to a locally hosted database server that has been configured for high availability. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which three products are in the Cisco Calling portfolio? (Choose three.) A. Unified Communications Manager B. Webex Calling C. Business Edition D. Skype for Business E. Mobility Express F. IP Office Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3 Which are two advantages of Umbrella branch package? (Choose two.) A. No client side configuration required B. Umbrella connector easy to install in Cisco ISR 4K routers C. All policy management and reporting at ISR D. Prevent already-infected devices from connecting to command and control E. Prevent guest or corporate users from connecting to malicious domains and IP addresses Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4 How does Catalyst Access Switching provide two improved workforce experiences? (Choose two.) A. Flexible workspace B. Manual configuration of end devices C. Core data center deployments D. Internet of things, such as flexible workspace (open office, branch office, conference and classrooms) E. Controller-based management Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 5 Which is a key solution for a Cisco small to medium-sized business router to enable the transport industry? A. Network based backup solution for mission critical application B. Integrated secure Wi-Fi to support guest devices C. Small form factor makes it easy to install and service D. Provide first line of defense against threats Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Which two statements regarding Wi-Fi simplicity of Mobility Express are true? (Choose two.) A. Additional dedicated controller appliance required to manage up to 25 access points B. Provides enterprise features for larger deployments C. Tunnels Guest traffic to a central site D. Activities enterprise best practice settings by default E. Can deploy a “set and forget” Wi-Fi network for SMB in minutes Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7 Which is the range of users is supported by the Business Edition 4000 (BE4000)? A. 100-120 B. 10-120 C. 1000-1200 D. 10-200 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which two characteristics differentiate the Meraki Dashboard from competing network management interfaces? (Choose two.) A. Centralized single pane of glass for access and management B. Instantaneous access to virtualized applications C. Built-in live chat for on-demand troubleshooting support D. Intuitive cloud-based user interface E. Comprehensive aggregator of multi-vendor networks Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 Which two features of the Cisco catalyst 1100 ISR router deliver a high performance and high-quality experience? (Choose two.) A. Mobility express to simplify wireless deployment and operation B. Application hosting C. 802.11ac Wi-Fi support D. WAN and application optimization with WAAS E. Unified communications with series build apps for Cisco TDM Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10 Which statement is true regarding Next Generation Firewall? A. Providing the fastest threat detection in the industry B. Blocking malicious destinations before a connection is ever established C. Facilitating critical protection from constant, dynamic, and rapidly evolving web threats D. Integrating deep visibility, preeminent intelligence and superior protection Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which two Cisco security solutions provide customers with reliable visibility and control to facility management of their entire environment? (Choose two.) A. Cisco offers controls for Data Loss Prevention (DLP) with more than 100 predefined policies covering government, private sector regulations, and custom specific regulations B. Cisco allows customers to pick the solutions that are right for their business to address threats specific to their environment C. Cisco provides enhanced threat awareness by compiling billions of worldwide daily transactions through cloud-based threat intelligence D. Cisco Talos is the industry leading threat intelligence organization E. Cisco security Manager and Firepower Management Center provide centralized management options for NGFW, NGIPS and VPN Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 Which two statements describe how Cisco can achieve Threat Centric Defense? (Choose two.) A. Cisco applications constantly scan the environment and analyze outputs to gain a more comprehensive view of potential threats B. Limit secure access to growing set of Cloud applications C. Cisco delivers a common platform across network, infrastructure, appliances and the cloud D. Cisco network analytics provides visibility and real-time awareness across the entire network by leveraging anomaly detection and network telemetry E. Cisco offers the industry\\’s broadest set of enforcement and remediation options for usage control to accelerate deployment and unify management Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13 Which two are Cisco recommended controller options for deployment of up to 150 AP\\’s? (Choose two.) A. Cisco 8540 WLC B. Cisco 3504 WLC C. Cisco 5508 WLC D. Cisco 5520 WLC E. Cisco mobility Express Correct Answer: BE
Pass4itsure Cisco 700-751 Exam Study Materials Features
Latest Cisco 700-751 dumps questions answers pdf in order to lead every candidate towards a brighter and better future. Select https://www.pass4itsure.com/700-751.html to get complete Cisco 700-751 practice exam dumps questions and answers. Wish you success!
There is no better way to prepare for your DP-201 exam than using real Microsoft DP-201 questions. Recommend latest and authentic exam questions for Microsoft DP-201 exam https://www.pass4itsure.com/dp-201.html (DP-201 Exam Dumps PDF Q&As). Mock test questions and answers will improve your knowledge
Microsoft DP-201 pdf questions free share
Share the free Microsoft DP-201 practice question video here:
https://youtu.be/N3m7LmGfZnA
Real Microsoft Role-based DP-201 practice test online
Timed practice exams will enable you to gauge your progress.
QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP You need to design a data architecture to bring together all your data at any scale and provide insights into all your users through the use of analytical dashboards, operational reports, and advanced analytics. How should you complete the architecture? To answer, drag the appropriate Azure services to the correct locations in the architecture. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
QUESTION 2 HOTSPOT You are designing a data processing solution that will run as a Spark job on an HDInsight cluster. The solution will be used to provide near real-time information about online ordering for a retailer. The solution must include a page on the company intranet that displays summary information. The summary information page must meet the following requirements: 1. Display a summary of sales to date grouped by product categories, price range, and review scope. 2. Display sales summary information including total sales, sales as compared to one day ago and sales as compared to one year ago. 3. Reflect information for new orders as quickly as possible. You need to recommend a design for the solution. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area. Hot Area:
Explanation: Box 1: DataFrame DataFrames Best choice in most situations. Provides query optimization through Catalyst. Whole-stage code generation. Direct memory access. Low garbage collection (GC) overhead. Not as developer-friendly as DataSets, as there are no compile-time checks or domain object programming. Box 2: parquet The best format for performance is parquet with snappy compression, which is the default in Spark 2.x. Parquet stores data in columnar format, and is highly optimized in Spark. Incorrect Answers: DataSets Good in complex ETL pipelines where the performance impact is acceptable. Not good in aggregations where the performance impact can be considerable. RDDs You do not need to use RDDs, unless you need to build a new custom RDD. No query optimization through Catalyst. No whole-stage code generation. High GC overhead. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-perf
QUESTION 3 You need to design the encryption strategy for the tagging data and customer data. What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct drop targets. Each source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT Which Azure service and feature should you recommend using to manage the transient data for Data Lake Storage? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Scenario: Stage inventory data in Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 before loading the data into the analytical data store. Litware wants to remove transient data from Data Lake Storage once the data is no longer in use. Files that have a modified date that is older than 14 days must be removed. Service: Azure Data Factory Clean up files by built-in delete activity in Azure Data Factory (ADF). ADF built-in delete activity, which can be part of your ETL workflow to deletes undesired files without writing code. You can use ADF to delete folder or files from Azure Blob Storage, Azure Data Lake Storage Gen1, Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2, File System, FTP Server, sFTP Server, and Amazon S3. You can delete expired files only rather than deleting all the files in one folder. For example, you may want to only delete the files which were last modified more than 13 days ago. Feature: Delete Activity Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/clean-up-files-by-built-in-delete-activity-in-azure-data-factory/
QUESTION 5 You plan to deploy an Azure SQL Database instance to support an application. You plan to use the DTU-based purchasing model. Backups of the database must be available for 30 days and point-in-time restoration must be possible. You need to recommend a backup and recovery policy. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Use the Premium tier and the default backup retention policy. B. Use the Basic tier and the default backup retention policy. C. Use the Standard tier and the default backup retention policy. D. Use the Standard tier and configure a long-term backup retention policy. E. Use the Premium tier and configure a long-term backup retention policy. Correct Answer: DE The default retention period for a database created using the DTU-based purchasing model depends on the service tier: 1. Basic service tier is 1 week. 2. Standard service tier is 5 weeks. 3. Premium service tier is 5 weeks. Incorrect Answers: B: Basic tier only allows restore points within 7 days. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-long-term-retention
QUESTION 6 You are designing an Azure SQL Data Warehouse. You plan to load millions of rows of data into the data warehouse each day. You must ensure that staging tables are optimized for data loading. You need to design the staging tables. What type of tables should you recommend? A. Round-robin distributed table B. Hash-distributed table C. Replicated table D. External table Correct Answer: A To achieve the fastest loading speed for moving data into a data warehouse table, load data into a staging table. Define the staging table as a heap and use round-robin for the distribution option. Incorrect: Not B: Consider that loading is usually a two-step process in which you first load to a staging table and then insert the data into a production data warehouse table. If the production table uses a hash distribution, the total time to load and insert might be faster if you define the staging table with the hash distribution. Loading to the staging table takes longer, but the second step of inserting the rows to the production table does not incur data movement across the distributions. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/guidance-for-loading-data
QUESTION 7 You need to optimize storage for CONT_SQL3. What should you recommend? A. AlwaysOn B. Transactional processing C. General D. Data warehousing Correct Answer: B CONT_SQL3 with the SQL Server role, 100 GB database size, Hyper-VM to be migrated to Azure VM. The storage should be configured to optimized storage for database OLTP workloads. Azure SQL Database provides three basic in-memory based capabilities (built into the underlying database engine) that can contribute in a meaningful way to performance improvements: In-Memory Online Transactional Processing (OLTP) Clustered columnstore indexes intended primarily for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) workloads Nonclustered columnstore indexes geared towards Hybrid Transactional/Analytical Processing (HTAP) workloads References: https://www.databasejournal.com/features/mssql/overview-of-in-memory-technologies-of-azure-sqldatabase.html
QUESTION 8 You need to ensure that emergency road response vehicles are dispatched automatically. How should you design the processing system? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area
Correct Answer:
Events generated from the IoT data sources are sent to the stream ingestion layer through Azure HDInsight Kafka as a stream of messages. HDInsight Kafka stores streams of data in topics for a configurable of time. Kafka consumer, Azure Databricks, picks up the message in real time from the Kafka topic, to process the data based on the business logic and can then send to Serving layer for storage. Downstream storage services, like Azure Cosmos DB, Azure SQL Data warehouse, or Azure SQL DB, will then be a data source for presentation and action layer. Business analysts can use Microsoft Power BI to analyze warehoused data. Other applications can be built upon the serving layer as well. For example, we can expose APIs based on the service layer data for third party uses. Box 2: Cosmos DB Change Feed Change feed support in Azure Cosmos DB works by listening to an Azure Cosmos DB container for any changes. It then outputs the sorted list of documents that were changed in the order in which they were modified. The change feed in Azure Cosmos DB enables you to build efficient and scalable solutions for each of these patterns, as shown in the following image:
QUESTION 9 You need to design network access to the SQL Server data. What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Box 1: 8080 1433 is the default port, but we must change it as CONT_SQL3 must not communicate over the default ports. Because port 1433 is the known standard for SQL Server, some organizations specify that the SQL Server port number should be changed to enhance security. Box 2: SQL Server Configuration Manager You can configure an instance of the SQL Server Database Engine to listen on a specific fixed port by using the SQL Server Configuration Manager. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/configure-windows/configure-a-server-to-listen-on-a-specific-tcpport?view=sql-server-2017
QUESTION 10 You need to optimize storage for CONT_SQL3. What should you recommend? A. AlwaysOn B. Transactional processing C. General D. Data warehousing Correct Answer: B CONT_SQL3 with the SQL Server role, 100 GB database size, Hyper-VM to be migrated to Azure VM. The storage should be configured to optimized storage for database OLTP workloads. Azure SQL Database provides three basic in-memory based capabilities (built into the underlying database engine) that can contribute in a meaningful way to performance improvements: In-Memory Online Transactional Processing (OLTP) Clustered columnstore indexes intended primarily for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) workloads Nonclustered columnstore indexes geared towards Hybrid Transactional/Analytical Processing (HTAP) workloads References: https://www.databasejournal.com/features/mssql/overview-of-in-memory-technologies-of-azure-sqldatabase.html
QUESTION 11 You store data in an Azure SQL data warehouse. You need to design a solution to ensure that the data warehouse and the most current data is available within one hour of a datacenter failure. Which three actions should you include in the design? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Each day, restore the data warehouse from a geo-redundant backup to an available Azure region. B. If a failure occurs, update the connection strings to point to the recovered data warehouse. C. If a failure occurs, modify the Azure Firewall rules of the data warehouse. D. Each day, create Azure Firewall rules that allow access to the restored data warehouse. E. Each day, restore the data warehouse from a user-defined restore point to an available Azure region. Correct Answer: BDE E: You can create a user-defined restore point and restore from the newly created restore point to a new data warehouse in a different region. Note: A data warehouse snapshot creates a restore point you can leverage to recover or copy your data warehouse to a previous state. A data warehouse restore is a new data warehouse that is created from a restore point of an existing or deleted data warehouse. On average within the same region, restore rates typically take around 20 minutes. Incorrect Answers: A: SQL Data Warehouse performs a geo-backup once per day to a paired data center. The RPO for a geo-restore is 24 hours. You can restore the geo-backup to a server in any other region where SQL Data Warehouse is supported. A geobackup ensures you can restore data warehouse in case you cannot access the restore points in your primary region. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/backup-and-restore
QUESTION 12 HOTSPOT You are designing a new application that uses Azure Cosmos DB. The application will support a variety of data patterns including log records and social media mentions. You need to recommend which Cosmos DB API to use for each data pattern. The solution must minimize resource utilization. Which API should you recommend for each data pattern? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Log records: SQL Social media mentions: Gremlin You can store the actual graph of followers using Azure Cosmos DB Gremlin API to create vertexes for each user and edges that maintain the “A-follows-B” relationships. With the Gremlin API, you can get the followers of a certain user and create more complex queries to suggest people in common. If you add to the graph the Content Categories that people like or enjoy, you can start weaving experiences that include smart content discovery, suggesting content that those people you follow like, or finding people that you might have much in common with. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/social-media-apps
QUESTION 13 You need to recommend a storage solution for a sales system that will receive thousands of small files per minute. The files will be in JSON, text, and CSV formats. The files will be processed and transformed before they are loaded into an Azure data warehouse. The files must be stored and secured in folders. Which storage solution should you recommend? A. Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 B. Azure Cosmos DB C. Azure SQL Database D. Azure Blob storage Correct Answer: A Azure provides several solutions for working with CSV and JSON files, depending on your needs. The primary landing place for these files is either Azure Storage or Azure Data Lake Store.1 Azure Data Lake Storage is an optimized storage for big data analytics workloads. Incorrect Answers: D: Azure Blob Storage containers is a general purpose object store for a wide variety of storage scenarios. Blobs are stored in containers, which are similar to folders. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/scenarios/csv-and-json
Pass4itsure is renowned for its high quality preparation material for the Microsoft DP-201 qualification. Pass4itsure is committed to your success.
Features of pass4itsure.com
Pass4itsure Microsoft exam discount code 2021
Pass4itsure share the latest Microsoft exam discount code “Microsoft“
Conclusion:
Here is free to share the latest Microsoft DP-201 exam video, Microsoft DP-201 dumps PDF, Microsoft DP-201 practice test, for your study reference, if you need to get the complete Microsoft DP-201 dumps, please visit https://www.pass4itsure.com/dp-201.html (Microsoft DP-201 PDF And VCE).
