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QUESTION 1 What role does FortiWeb play in ensuring PCI DSS compliance? A. PCI specifically requires a WAF B. Provides credit card processing capabilities C. Provide ability to securely process cash transactions D. Provides load balancing between multiple web servers Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 When generating a protection configuration from an auto learning report what critical step must you do before generating the final protection configuration? A. Restart the FortiWeb to clear the caches B. Drill down in the report to correct any false positives. C. Activate the report to create t profile D. Take the FortiWeb offline to apply the profile Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 You\\’ve configured an authentication rule with delegation enabled on FortiWeb. What happens when a user tries to access the web application? A. FrotiWeb redirects users to a FortiAuthenticator page, then if the user authenticates successfully, FortiGate signals to FortiWeb to allow access to the web app B. ForitWeb redirects the user to the web app\\’s authentication page C. FortiWeb forwards the HTTP challenge from the server to the client, then monitors the reply, allowing access if the user authenticates successfully D. FortiWeb replies with a HTTP challenge of behalf of the server, the if the user authenticates successfully, FortiWeb allows the request and also includes credentials in the request that it forwards to the web app Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 What capability can FortiWeb add to your Web App that your Web App may or may not already have? A. Automatic backup and recovery B. High Availability C. HTTP/HTML Form Authentication D. SSL Inspection Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is true about Local User Accounts? A. Must be assigned regardless of any other authentication B. Can be used for Single Sign On C. Can be used for site publishing D. Best suited for large environments with many users Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 When integrating FortiWeb and FortiAnalyzer, why is the selection for FortiWeb Version critical? (Choose two) A. Defines Log file format B. Defines communication protocol C. Defines Database Schema D. Defines Log storage location Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7 How does an ADOM differ from a VDOM? A. ADOMs do not have virtual networking B. ADOMs improve performance by offloading some functions. C. ADOMs only affect specific functions, and do not provide full separation like VDOMs do. D. Allows you to have 1 administrator for multiple tenants Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 How does offloading compression to FortiWeb benefit your network? A. free up resources on the database server B. Free up resources on the web server C. reduces file size on the client\\’s storage D. free up resources on the FortiGate Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Reverse-proxy mode is best suited for use in which type of environment? A. New networks where infrastructure is not yet defined B. Environments where you cannot change your IP addressing scheme C. Flexible environments where you can easily change the IP addressing scheme D. Small Office/Home Office environments Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which of the following would be a reason for implementing rewrites? A. Page has been moved to a new URL B. Page has been moved to a new IP address C. Replace vulnerable functions. D. Send connection to secure channel Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 An e-commerce web app is used by small businesses. Clients often access it from offices behind a router, where clients are on an IPv4 private network LAN. You need to protect the web application from denial of service attacks that use request floods. What FortiWeb feature should you configure? A. Enable “Shared IP” and configure the separate rate limits for requests from NATted source IPs. B. Configure FortiWeb to use “X-Forwarded-For:” headers to find each client\\’s private network IP, and to block attacks using that. C. Enable SYN cookies. D. Configure a server policy that matches requests from shared Internet connections. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 In which operation mode(s) can FortiWeb modify HTTP packets? (Choose two.) A. Transparent Inspection B. Offline protection C. True transparent proxy D. Reverse proxy Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 What other consideration must you take into account when configuring Defacement protection A. Use FortiWeb to block SQL Injections and keep regular backups of the Database B. Also incorporate a FortiADC into your network C. None. FortiWeb completely secures the site against defacement attacks D. Configure the FortiGate to perform Anti-Defacement as well Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 If Internet Service is already selected as Source in a firewall policy, which other configuration objects can be added to the Source filed of a firewall policy? A. IP address B. Once Internet Service is selected, no other object can be added C. User or User Group D. FQDN address Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.5/cookbook/179236/using-internet-service-inpolicy
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.
Which contains a session list output. Based on the information shown in the exhibit, which statement is true? A. Destination NAT is disabled in the firewall policy. B. One-to-one NAT IP pool is used in the firewall policy. C. Overload NAT IP pool is used in the firewall policy. D. Port block allocation IP pool is used in the firewall policy. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 An administrator has configured outgoing Interface any in a firewall policy. Which statement is true about the policy list view? A. Policy lookup will be disabled. B. By Sequence view will be disabled. C. Search option will be disabled D. Interface Pair view will be disabled. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which two statements about IPsec authentication on FortiGate are correct? (Choose two.) A. For a stronger authentication, you can also enable extended authentication (XAuth) to request the remote peer to provide a username and password B. FortiGate supports pre-shared key and signature as authentication methods. C. Enabling XAuth results in a faster authentication because fewer packets are exchanged. D. A certificate is not required on the remote peer when you set the signature as the authentication method. Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/913287/ipsec-vpn-authenticatingaremotefortigate-peer-with-a-pre-shared-key
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibits to view the firewall policy (Exhibit A) and the antivirus profile (Exhibit B).
Which statement is correct if a user is unable to receive a block replacement message when downloading an infected file for the first time? A. The firewall policy performs the full content inspection on the file. B. The flow-based inspection is used, which resets the last packet to the user. C. The volume of traffic being inspected is too high for this model of FortiGate. D. The intrusion prevention security profile needs to be enabled when using flow-based inspection mode. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit.
Which contains a network diagram and routing table output. The Student is unable to access Webserver. What is the cause of the problem and what is the solution for the problem? A. The first packet sent from Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to 10.0.4.0/24 through wan1. B. The first reply packet for Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to 10.0.4.0/24 through wan1. C. The first reply packet for Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to 203.0.114.24/32 through port3. D. The first packet sent from Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to 203.0.114.24/32 through port3. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which two statements are correct regarding FortiGate FSSO agentless polling mode? (Choose two.) A. FortiGate points the collector agent to use a remote LDAP server. B. FortiGate uses the AD server as the collector agent. C. FortiGate uses the SMB protocol to read the event viewer logs from the DCs. D. FortiGate queries AD by using the LDAP to retrieve user group information. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 Which three authentication timeout types are availability for selection on FortiGate? (Choose three.) A. hard-timeout B. auth-on-demand C. soft-timeout D. new-session E. Idle-timeout Correct Answer: ADE https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD37221
QUESTION 9 When browsing to an internal web server using a web-mode SSL VPN bookmark, which IP address is used as the source of the HTTP request? A. remote user\\’s public IP address B. The public IP address of the FortiGate device. C. The remote user\\’s virtual IP address. D. The internal IP address of the FortiGate device. Correct Answer: D Source IP seen by the remote resources is FortiGate\\’s internal IP address and not the user\\’s IP address
QUESTION 10 Which engine handles application control traffic on the next-generation firewall (NGFW) FortiGate? A. Antivirus engine B. Intrusion prevention system engine C. Flow engine D. Detection engine Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 View the exhibit.
Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two.) A. This setup requires at least two firewall policies with the action set to IPsec. B. Dead peer detection must be disabled to support this type of IPsec setup. C. The TunnelB route is the primary route for reaching the remote site. The TunnelA route is used only if the TunnelB VPN is down. D. This is a redundant IPsec setup. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 12 FortiGuard categories can be overridden and defined in different categories. To create a web rating override for example.com home page, the override must be configured using a specific syntax. Which two syntaxes are correct to configure web rating for the home page? (Choose two.) A. www.example.com:443 B. www.example.com C. example.com D. www.example.com/index.html Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13 Which two statements are true about the RPF check? (Choose two.) A. The RPF check is run on the first sent packet of any new session. B. The RPF check is run on the first reply packet of any new session. C. The RPF check is run on the first sent and reply packet of any new session. D. RPF is a mechanism that protects FortiGuard and your network from IP spoofing attacks. Correct Answer: AD Reference: https://www.programmersought.com/article/16383871634/
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QUESTION 1 What is the maximum number of disks supported by 2200 V3? A. 204 B. 276 C. 300 D. 500 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which is not a front-end port of Dorado V3? A. 8 Gbit/s and 16 Gbit/s FC B. 40 Gbit/s InfiniBand C. 56 Gbit/s InfiniBand D. 10 Gbit/s iSCSI and FCOE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 2200 V3/2600 V3 supports 2 U 2, 5-inch disk enclosure, 4 U 3.5-inch disk enclosure, and 4 U high- density disk enclosure. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which of the following SSD capacities does OceanStor V5 support? (Multiple Choice) A. 600 GB B. 960 GB C. 1.92 TB D. 3.84 TB E. 7.68 TB Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 5 What is the major difference between OceanStor 6800 V5 and OceanStor 6800 V3? A. Number of supported disks B. Number of scalable controllers C. Back-end full interconnection Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 2200 V3 supports HyperCopy and HyperSnap, which are both included in the basic software suite. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Dorado V3 supports adjusting the LUN granularity based on applications. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which is the customer benefit of SmartVirtualization? A. Storage resources in “pay-as-you-use” mode, reducing the upfront investment B. Heterogeneous virtualization, consolidating mainstream vendors\\’ storage into resource pools C. Unified management of high-end, mid-range, and entry-level storage, improving management efficiency Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which of the following models are included in the OceanStor F V5 series? (Multiple Choice) A. 5300F V5 B. 5500FV5 C. 5600FV5 D. 5800FV5 E. 6800FV5 F. 18500F V5/18800F V5 Correct Answer: ABCDEF
QUESTION 10 Which are the customer benefits of SmartThin (Thin Provisioning)? (Multiple Choice) A. Expand capacity on demand B. Reduce initial purchase cost C. Improve storage capacity utilization D. Reduce total cost of ownership E. Reduce the amount of data Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 11 Which are the customer benefits of Huawei storage RAID 2.0+? (Multiple Choice) A. Substantial performance improvement B. Fast data reconstruction C. Automatic global load balancing Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12 OceanStor 9000 supports high density nodes. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 In SmartMulti-Tenant, a vStore is managed by only one tenant administrator, and vStores are isolated from each other. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Which switch is the industry\\’s first agile box switch? A. S5720EI B. S5720HI C. S5700HI D. S5710EI Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which of the following highlights does not apply to the NE08E-S6/S6E? A. Large capacity B. Highest density in the industry C. High reliability D. Dual-CXP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 How many spatial streams do AP8050DN and AP8150DN have at 5Ghz? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 which model supports LET feature? A. AR161FW B. AR169FVW C. AR169BF D. AR161G-L Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Different SFU types can be used in CE1Z800 chassis A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 The benefit of CSS+iStack/SVF is () (Multiple Choice) A. simplified management B. loop free L2 network C. no STP depolyment D. 100% link usage Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 7 IDC need what kind of features to meet the requirement of service (Multiple Choice) A. High density 100G/40G/10G port B. Easy management solution NQA/Netstream C. VxLAN for SDN-based overlay solution for multi-tenant scenario D. multi-DC interconnection Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 8 Which of the following AntiDDoS series is newly launched in 2019? A. AntiDDoS1600 series B. AntiDDoS1800 series C. AntiDDoS8000 series D. AntiDDoS Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 There are many firewall performance indicators. Which of the following is the most valuable throughput indicator in addition to interface type and quantity? A. IPv4/v6 Throughput B. FW+SA+IPS Throughput C. Full Protection Throughput (Real World) D. FW+SA+IPS+AV Throughput Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 S7700 compete against CISCO 4500/4500E. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 AR503EQGW-L can support GPS A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which scenarios can AR G3 series apply? (Multiple Choice) A. LAN Egress Gateway B. WAN Access and Edge Aggregation C. 3G/LTE Backup D. VPN Security Gateway Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 13 You should check and confirm the quantity of APs when taking an onsite survey, but no need to pay attention to the location where the APs are suitable to be installed. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 2 Which onboarding method would you use to integrate CyberArk with your accounts provisioning process? A. Accounts Discovery B. Auto Detection C. Onboarding RestAPI functions D. PTA Rules Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 All of your Unix root passwords are stored in the safe UnixRoot. Dual control is enabled for some of the accounts in that safe. The members of the AD group UnixAdmins need to be able to use the show, copy, and connect buttons on those passwords at any time without confirmation. The members of the AD group OperationsStaff need to be able to use the show, copy and connect buttons on those passwords on an emergency basis, but only with the approval of a member of OperationsManagers. The members of OperationsManagers never need to be able to use the show, copy or connect buttons themselves. Which safe permissions do you need to grant to OperationsStaff? Check all that apply. A. Use Accounts B. Retrieve Accounts C. List Accounts D. Authorize Password Requests E. Access Safe without Authorization Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What is the primary purpose of Dual Control?
A. Reduced risk of credential theft
B. More frequent password changes
C. Non-repudiation (individual accountability)
D. To force a \\’collusion to commit\\’ fraud ensuring no single actor may use a password without authorization.
Select the best practice for storing the Master CD.
A. Copy the files to the Vault server and discard the CD
B. Copy the contents of the CD to a Hardware Security Module (HSM) and discard the CD
C. Store the CD in a secure location, such as a physical safe
D. Store the CD in a secure location, such as a physical safe, and copy the contents of the CD to a folder secured with
NTFS permissions on the Vault
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 The Vault administrator can change the Vault license by uploading the new license to the system Safe. A. True B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11 A Logon Account can be specified in the Master Policy. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 The primary purpose of exclusive accounts is to ensure non-repudiation (individual accountability). A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 You have associated a logon account to one of your UNIX root accounts in the vault. When attempting to change the root account\\’s password the CPM will… A. Log in to the system as root, then change root\\’s password. B. Log in to the system as the logon account, then change root\\’s password C. Log in to the system as the logon account, run the su command to log in as root, and then change root\\’s password. D. None of these. Correct Answer: A
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