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QUESTION 1
The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority applications
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface
Module? (Choose three)
A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 7
Which two are functions of Switch 40×0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
What is the benefit of using the Switch 40×0 Family’s Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable feature?
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) manages Layer 2 switched links
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of network attacks
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 10
Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network? (Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 11
Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP wiring
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12
Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three)
A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or Switch 40×0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40×0 family that provides additional levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 13
Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)
A. Ensure continuous network availability
B. Supports enhanced network performance
C. Can be created using any IP-based switch
D. Create a path for future-proofing the network
E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 14
Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 15
Which three are advantages of using 3Com’s XRN Distribution Resilient Routing (DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast routing C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60 seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 16
Which component of XRN technology is defined as “A set of interconnected switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the “LA Master Port”?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which two should you verify on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 if the network is experiencing an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) problem? (Choose two)
A. OSPF is enabled on all switch ports
B. VRRP is properly configured on the switch ports supporting OSPF
C. The Link State Database is the same for all routers in an OSPF area
D. The switch is sending/receiving OSPF Hello packets and Link State updates
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
Which command shows the Quality of Service (QoS) settings for interface Modules #2 Ethernet port #6 on the Switch 7700?
A. display qos Ethernet 6/2 all
B. display qos Ethernet 2/0/6 all
C. display qos-interface Ethernet 2/0/6 all
D. display qos-interface Ethernet 6/0/2 all
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which two should be verified on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 when the network is experiences a RIP problem? (Choose two)
A. Check if BP is enabled on the switches using RIP
B. Check if the RIP versions are the same on the router interfaces
C. Use the “display RIP-statistics” command to check all RIP routes on the switch
D. Use the “display RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates
E. Use the “debugging RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates
Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 21
The Switch 7700 automatically saves the system configuration to its flash memory.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Which Access Control list modes are supported on both the Switch 7700 and the Switch 8800?
A. IP and Link based
B. IP and Port based
C. MAC and Link based
D. Link and Port based
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
The 3Com NBX IP Telephony Systems use multicast routing for operations such as conference calls, Music-on-Hold and paging.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
Which command displays the system configuration stored in the Switch 7700 flash memory?
A. display flash
B. display configuration
C. display saved-configuration
D. display current-configuration
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Which two procedures should a network administrator implement to assist in identifying the cause of a network incident or problem?(Choose two)
A. Document the existing network configuration
B. Install network sniffer throughout the network
C. Download all router and Layer 3 switch tables
D. Gather appropriate sniffer traces for the problem
E. Dump the pertinent statistics from all affected network devices Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 26
Which two are Access Control List match order parameters for both the Switch 7700 and the Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Null-no match
B. Config – first match
C. All – longest match
D. Exact – identical match
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 27
Which two are useful in determining the source of a network broadcast storm? (Choose two)
A. Check all the router tables on the network
B. Check RX broadcast count in port statistics
C. Check TX broadcast count on port statistics
D. Place a network sniffer anywhere on the network
E. Use the “display igmp” command to check VLAN assignment
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 28
Which two are traffic prioritization features of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose two)
A. Queues can be manipulated
B. By default, there is a single queue per port
C. Logical queues are classified based on latency
D. Traffic prioritization is based on IEEE 802.1 Q tag information
E. All models support four queues per port, two physical and two loical
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 29
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions of the SuperStak 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Aggregated Links can be of different speeds
C. Aggregated Links participate in Resilient Link pairs
D. Configuration rules are 15 groups of up to four ports each
E. With mixed-speed Aggregated Links, traffic is sent via the hiher-speed links only
F. Resilient Aggregated Links are implemented using Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
G. Trunk Control Message Protocol (TCMP) must be enabled when connecting to the SuperStak 3 Switch 9300 or Switch 3900
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 30
Which SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 model can concurrently support Gigabit Ethernet over UTP wiring, multimode fiber, single-mode fiber and long haul cabling without the addition of an expansion module?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 SX
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4924
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4950
Correct Answer: D
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