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QUESTION 1 Which report could show all audit data in the vault? A. Privileged Account Compliance Status Report B. Activity Log C. Privileged Account Inventory Report D. Application Inventory Report Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 DRAG DROP In version 10.7 the correct order of installation for components changed. Make the necessary corrections to the list below to show the new installation order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3 A SIEM integration allows you to forward audit records to a monitoring solution. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which user(s) can access all passwords in the vault A. Administrator B. Any member of Vault Admins C. Any member of Auditors D. Master Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 The vault does not support Subnet Based Access Control. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 What conditions must be met in order to log into the vault as the Master user? Select all that apply. A. Logon must be originated from the console of the Vault server or an EmergencyStation defined in DBParm.ini B. User must provide the correct master password. C. Logon requires the Recovery Private Key to be accessible to the vault. D. Logon must satisfy a challenge-response request. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7 Auto-Detection can be configured to leverage LDAP/S. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Which of the following statements are NOT true when enabling PSM recording for a target Windows server? A. The PSM software must be installed on the target server. B. PSM must be enabled in the Master Policy (either directly, or through an exception). C. PSMConnect must be added as a local user on the target server. D. RDP must be enabled on the target server. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Vault admins must manually add the auditor’s group to newly created safes so auditors will have sufficient access to run reports. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 The Vault needs to send SNMP traps to an SNMP solution. In which configuration file do you set the IP address of the SNMP solution? A. PARAgent.ini B. dbparm.ini C. ENEConf.ini D. my.ini Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 The Application Inventory report is related to AIM. A. TRUE B. FALSE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 What is the purpose of the Interval setting in a CPM policy? A. To control how often the CPM looks for System Initiated CPM work B. To control how often the CPM looks for User Initiated CPM work. C. To control how long the CPM rests between password changes D. To control the maximum amount of time the CPM will wait for a password change to complete Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP Match the log file name with the CyberArk Component that generates the log. Select and Place:
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QUESTION 1 Which two statements about application layer test commands are true? (Choose two.) A. They are used to filter real-time debugs. B. They display real-time application debugs. C. Some of them can be used to restart an application. D. Some of them display statistics and configuration information about a feature or process. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit, which contains the output of a web filtering diagnose command.
Which statement explains why the cache statistics are all zeros? A. The FortiGate web filter cache is disabled in the FortiGate configuration. B. FortiGate is using flow-based inspection which does not use the cache. C. The administrator has reallocated the cache memory to a separate process. D. There are no users making web requests. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit, which contains the partial output of an IKE real-time debug.
Why did the tunnel not come up? A. The pre-shared keys do not match B. The remote gateway phase 1 configuration does not match the local gateway phase 1 configuration. C. The remote gateway phase 2 configuration does not match the local gateway phase 2 configuration. D. The remote gateway is using aggressive mode and the local gateway is configured to use main mode. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 What is the diagnose test application ipsmonitor 99 command used for? A. To enable IPS bypass mode B. To provide information regarding IPS sessions C. To disable the IPS engine D. To restart all IPS engines and monitors Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 When using the SSL certificate inspection method to inspect HTTPS traffic, how does FortiGate filter web requests when the client browser does not provide the server name indication (SNI) extension? A. FortiGate uses the requested URL from the user\\’s web browser. B. FortiGate uses the CN information from the Subject field in the server certificate. C. FortiGate blocks the request without any further inspection. D. FortiGate switches to the full SSL inspection method to decrypt the data. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit, which contains a partial output of an IKE real-time debug.
Based on the debug output, which phase-1 setting is enabled in the configuration of this VPN? A. auto-discovery-receiver B. auto-discovery-forwarder C. auto-discovery-sender D. auto-discovery-shortcut Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit, which contains a TCL script configuration on FortiManager.
An administrator has configured the TCL script on FortiManager but failed to apply any changes to the managed device after being executed. Why did the TCL script fail to make any changes to the managed device? A. Changes in an interface configuration can only be done by CLI script. B. The TCL script must start with #include. C. Incomplete commands are ignored in TCL scripts. D. The TCL command run_cmd has not been created. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which three conditions are required for two FortiGate devices to form an OSP adjacency? (Choose three.) A. OSPF costs match B. OSPF peer IDs match C. Hello and dead intervals match D. OSPF IP MTUs match E. IP addresses are in the same subnet Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit, which contains a CLI script configuration on FortiManager. An administrator has configured the CLI script on FortiManager, which failed to apply any changes to the managed device after being executed. Why did the script not make any changes to the managed device? A. There is an existing route with a lower priority value. B. CLI scripts will add objects only if they are referenced by policies. C. Commands that start with the #sign are not executed. D. Static routes can only be added using TCL scripts. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which configuration can be used to reduce the number of BGP sessions in an IBGP network? A. Next-hop-self B. Route reflector C. Neighbor group D. Neighbor range Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit, which contains the output of a BGP debug command. Which statement explains why the state of the 10.200.3.1 peer is Connect? A. The local router has received the BGP prefixes from the remote peer. B. The local router is receiving the BGP keepalives from the peer, but it has not received a BGP prefix yet. C. The TCP session to 10.200.3.1 has not completed the 3-way handshake. D. The local router is receiving BGP keepalives from the remote peer, but the local peer has not received the OpenConfirm yet. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which two statements about FortiManager are true when it is deployed as a local FDS? (Choose two.) A. It caches available firmware updates for unmanaged devices. B. It provides VM license validation services. C. It can be configured as an update server, or a rating server, but not both. D. It supports rating requests from both managed and unmanaged devices. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 13 Which two statements about bulk configuration changes using FortiManager CLI scripts are correct? (Choose two.) A. When executed on the Device Database, you must use the installation wizard to apply the changes to the managed FortiGate. B. When executed on the Policy Package, ADOM database, changes are applied directly to the managed FortiGate. C. When executed on the All FortiGate in ADOM, changes are automatically installed without creating a new revision history. D. When executed on the Remote FortiGate directly, administrators do not have the option to review the changes prior to installation. Correct Answer: AD
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QUESTION 1 display startup MainBoard: Startup system software: sd1:/ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc Next startup system software: sd1:/ar2220- v200r003c00spc200.cc Backup system software for next startup: null Startup saved-configuration file: null Next startup saved-configuration file: null Startup license file: null Next startup license file: null Startup patch package: null Next startup patch package: null Startup voice-files: null Next startup voice-files: null Refer to the display output. Which statement is false? A. The current configuration file has not been saved. B. The current startup system software is ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc C. The next startup system software cannot be changed. D. The next startup system software can be changed by using the “startup system software .cc” command. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 system – view [Huawei]command – privilege level 3 view user save The correct statement about the above configuration command is () A. Modify the user\\’s permission level to 3, and save the configuration. B. Modify the user view command to a permission level of 3, and save the configuration. C. Modify the permission level of the save command used by a user to 3 D. Modify the permission level of the save command in the user view to 3 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 The network structure and OSPF partition are shown in the figure. In addition to R1, routers R2, R3 and R4 are OSPF ABR routers.
A. Correct B. Error Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Two routers are connected via serial interfaces, for which the link-protocol is PPP. The network administrator wishes to configure PPP authentication to improve security on this link. Which PPP authentication method provides a more secure solution? A. CHAP B. PAP C. MD5 D. SSH Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 The network administrator wants to improve the performance of network transmission, what steps can the administrator take? (Choose two) A. Change the work mode to full duplex of each end station. B. Link the end stations together using a switch. C. Change the work mode to half duplex of each end station. D. Link the end stations together using a hub. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6 When two switches use link aggregation technology for interconnection, which of the following conditions do each member port need to meet? (multiple choice) A. The number of physical ports connected to the two ends is the same. B. The physical ports connected to the two ends have the same rate. C. The physical port duplex mode connected to the two ends is the same. D. The physical numbers of the physical interfaces connected to the two ends are the same. E. The optical modules used by the physical ports connected to the two ends are of the same type. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 7 In the OSI reference model, the ability to perform end-to-end error detection and flow control is (). A. Physical layer B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Source Destination Protocol Info 10.0.12.1 10.0.12.2 TCP 50190 > telnet [SYN] Seq=0 Win=8192 Len=0 MSS=1460 10.0.12.2 10.0.12.1 TCP telnet> 50190 [SYN, ACK] Seq=0 Ack=1 Win=8192 Len=0 MSS=1460 10.0.12.1 10.0.12.2 TCP 50190 > telnet [ACK] Seq=1 Ack=1 Win=8192 Len=0 Refer to the capture output.The administrator has captured three packets in the network. Which statement regarding the capured packets is incorrect? A. This packets represent a TCP three-way handshake process. B. 10.0.12.1 is the telnet server, while 10.0.12.2 is the telnet client. C. The three packets contain no application data. D. 10.0.12.1 uses port 50190 to buid the telnet connection. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 217.# Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 Port link type trunk Port trunk allow pass vlan 2 to 4094 # According to the command output shown above, the correct one in the following description is () (multiple choice) A. GigabitEthernet0/0/1 does not allow VLAN1 to pass. B. GigabitEthernet0/0/1 allows VLAN1 to pass C. If you want to change the GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port to an Access port, you must first use the command “undo port trunk allow pass vlan All clear the default configuration D. If you want to change the GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port to an Access port, you must first use the command “undo port trunk allow pass vlan 2 to 4094″ clear default configuration Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 10 As shown in the figure, both ports GE0/0/1 and GE0/0/2 are configured with different Hybrid configurations. The correct statement is (). (many selected)
A. The administrative department and the finance department cannot exchange visits because the VLANs belonging to the two departments are different. B. The data frame sent by the administrative department carries the tag in the switch as VLAN20. C. The data frame sent by the finance department carries the tag in the switch as VLAN20. D. The switch here can be a Layer 2 switch or a Layer 3 switch because communication does not need to go through a Layer 3 gateway. E. If both ports GE0/0/1 and GE0/0/2 of the switch are modified to be trunk ports, the two departments can communicate normally. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11 Refer to the following topology and router configuration. The NAT configuration does not specify a NAT global address pool, so address translation cannot be performed correctly.
A. Yes B. Wrong Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following statements regarding link-state database and routing table of a “single” OSPF area are correct? (Choose two) A. The link-state databases that all routers build are identical. B. The link-state databases that all routers build are different. C. The routing-tables that all routers calculate are different. D. The routing-tables that all routers calculate are identical. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13 It is known that the routing table of a router has the following two entries. If the router wants to forward packets with the destination address of 9.1.4.5, the following is said. The correct thing in the law is ().
A. Select the first item as the best match because the OSPF protocol has a higher priority. B. Select the second item as the best match because the RIP protocol has a lower value. C. Select the second item as the best match because the exit is Ethternet0, which is faster than Serial 0. D. Select the second term as the best match because the route entry is a more accurate match for the destination address 9.1.4.5 Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 You have a centralized data center running NetApp ONTAP. Your business is deploying a new IoT solution directly managed by the Azure IoT hub. You want to store data in the cloud for use with data analytics. Whish NetApp solution would accomplish this task? A. Cloud Secure B. Cloud Volumes ONTAP C. Cloud Backup Service D. Cloud Insights Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Your business has access to on-premises applications and decides to distribute some of the workloads onto a public cloud provider. In this scenario, what is this architecture called? A. hybrid cloud B. public cloud C. community cloud D. private cloud Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which two StorageGRID features provide data durability for large unstructured datasets? (Choose two.) A. erasure coding B. storage tiering C. object replication D. S3 API compatibility Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4 Your users require both NFS and SMB file services. You do not want to manage the storage using OnCommand System Manager or the command-line interface. In this scenario, which three products would satisfy these requirements? (Choose three.) A. Azure NetApp Files B. NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP C. NetApp Cloud Volumes Service for AWS D. NetApp Cloud Volumes Service for GCP E. Amazon S3 Glacier Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5 What are the two functions of FlexGroup volumes? (Choose two.) A. massive capacity B. ability to hold LUNs C. nondisruptive scale out D. ideal for small workloads Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 What is an elastic IP? A. an Internet routable address B. a nonroutable address C. a peering route D. a load-balanced IP address Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 What are two node types within a Kubernetes cluster? (Choose two.) A. storage node B. gateway node C. worker node D. master node Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 Which two statements describe the benefits of using public clouds? (Choose two.) A. Applications are always less expensive to run in the public cloud. B. Public clouds are always used for hosting tier 1 and financial applications. C. Public clouds provide an environment for development, testing, and disaster-recovery applications. D. Public clouds support multi-regional applications without the expense of collocating data centers. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9 What is the primary interface to manage a NetApp HCI cluster? A. VMware vCenter B. OnCommand System Manager C. OnCommand Unfired Manager D. VMware Horizon Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 What are two reasons to enable high availability? (Choose two.) A. performance management B. fault tolerance C. nondisruptive operation D. load balancing Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11 What is a group of one or more containers in a Kubernetes cluster? A. helm B. pilot C. node D. pod Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 What are two methods to subscribe to Cloud Insights? (Choose two.) A. NetApp Cloud Central B. NetApp Sales C. NetApp Support Site D. AWS Marketplace Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13 You are currently performing all the important administrator and maintenance tasks for your system, and need to delegate work to the staff so that you can attend to other issues. Which approach will you take to ensure that your systems are safe? A. Provide all users with power user access. B. Employ mandatory integrity control. C. Provide all users with administrator access. D. Employ the principle of least privilege. Correct Answer: C
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