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QUESTION 1
Your customer, Alpha Corp, wants to collect data from their global brand website (alpha-corp.com, m.alpha-corp.com),
their marketing subdomains (go.alpha-corp.com, products.alpha-corp.com), and their mobile app (available on Android
and iOS).
How many domains do they have?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two are attributes of third-party data? (Choose two.)
A. Can be confirmed from multiple outside sources
B. Often billed directly by the media partner
C. Offered on a private marketplace, via direct sales to marketers
D. Free to use for activation, targeting, and analytics
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
You are working with a client to help guide their seat governance structure. After discussing their company policies and
procedures, you discover that each region follows its own protocols, operations are for the most part independent and
they might benefit from discretionary data-sharing between regions.
Based on what you have learned, which seat governance option should you recommend?
A. Horizontal regional empowerment
B. Global DMP nerve center
C. Global template with local nuances
D. Full agency control
E. A single seat shared by all regions
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Identify the dependencies and data sources for a local campaign.
A. Dependency: Custom audiences pixel, Data Sources: 1st party offline data
B. Dependency: Execution partner must accept mobile and IDs, Data Sources: 2nd party data
C. Dependency: Ensure the Blue Kai tag is on the site, Data Sources: 1st and 3rd party unbranded data
D. Dependency: Signed Data Usage Agreement for 3rd party data, Data Sources: 1st and 3rd party data
E. Dependency: Submit reporting for use of 3rd party data, Data Sources: 2nd and 3rd party data
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
What is the CPS pricing model?
A. This model allows clients to purchase data each time the campaign wins a unique customer attribute.
B. This model allows clients to purchase data based on the overall win rate of the campaign.
C. This model allows clients to purchase data on a cost per category agreement.
D. This model allows clients to purchase data on a cost per 1,000 impressions basis.
E. This model allows clients to purchase data according to the specific terms in their contract for acquiring third-party
data from a particular App Partner.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Encumbrance accounting is enabled for your ledger. An encumbrance journal dated 3/15/16 was recorded for a
purchase order. The invoice was entered on 5/5/16, but the invoice accounting date was 4/20/16. The encumbrance
journal for
liquidating the purchase order encumbrance is dated 5/5/16.
What is causing this?
A. The actual accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
B. The current transaction accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
C. The subledger accounting option is set to system date
D. The system date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
E. The prior related transaction accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You want to automatically post journal batches imported form subledger sources to prevent accidental edits or deletions
of the subledger sources journals, which could cause an out-of-balance situation between your subledgers and general
ledger. Which two aspects should you consider when defining your AutoPost Criteria? (Choose two.)
A. Use the All option for category and accounting period to reduce maintenance and ensure that all imported journals
are included in the posting process
B. Create your AutoPost criteria using minimal sources and categories
C. Include all of your subledger sources in the AutoPost Criteria. Divide up criteria sets by subledger source only if you
need to schedule different posting times
D. Schedule your AutoPost Criteria set to run during off-peak hours only
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
When working with Essbase, versions of the tree hierarchy as defined in the General Ledger Cloud are not available in
the Essbase balances cube. What should you do to correct this situation?
A. Make sure to flatten the rows of the tree version
B. Make sure the tree is active
C. Make sure the tree version was published successfully
D. Redeploy the chart of accounts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Before implementing Financials Cloud, your customer used to manually reconcile their intercompany payables and
receivables accounts. What is a more automated approach to do this?
A. Use Oracle Hyperion Close Manager to automatically reconcile intercompany account balances
B. In Financials Cloud, you must manually reconcile your intercompany account balances
C. Run the BI Publisher reports called Intercompany Transaction Summary and Account Details to automatically
reconcile intercompany balances
D. Run the Intercompany Reconciliation report, which shows pairs of intercompany receivables and payables accounts
that are out of balance
E. Create a query using Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) that will match the intercompany payables
and receivables balances
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your customer is implementing budgetary control with encumbrance accounting. Your customer has businesses in
Australia, New Zealand, and Singapore with a ledger in each country with a Corporate chart of account instance that
has four segments. Which three statements are true regarding the creation of a control budget? (Choose three.)
A. The control budget structure has all the chart of account segments as budget segments
B. Control budgets are always absolute to generate encumbrance accounting
C. A control budget is associated with a ledger and creates three control budgets for Australia, New Zealand, and
Singapore
D. A control budget can allow override rules only if the control level is absolute
E. A control budget can be associated with a different calendar than the accounting calendar
Correct Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 1
As an implementation consultant, you are required to define a legal entity. Which three options are correct about a legal
entity? (Choose three.)
A. A legal entity must comply with regulations and local jurisdictions.
B. A legal entity can be identified as a legal employer in Human Capital Management.
C. Legal entities are not responsible for payment of social insurance.
D. A legal entity may act as a virtual organization.
E. A legal entity can own assets, record sales, pay taxes, and perform transactions.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 2
A client requires that promotion approvals should go to a static set of three users in a sequential manner, with the
approval process continuing to the next user if the prior approver is not available. What setup is required to meet this
requirement?
A. While configuring Approval Group List Builder, select “Allow empty groups” as True.
B. While configuring Approval Group List Builder, select “Allow empty groups” as False.
C. All approves must be present in the system; else, the promotion transaction fails.
D. The default functionality is that if any approver is not present, then the transaction gets auto-approved.
E. Enable a descriptive flex field to capture the approvers in the required sequence and create Approval Group List
Builder.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An HR representative enters employee details in the application as part of the hiring process. On the Review page, the
HR representative notices that Person Number does not show any number, but indicates “Generated Automatically”
Identify the option that relates to this intended behavior.
A. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
B. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic after final save.
C. Worker Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
D. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic before submission.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are an HR specialist and want to add new values to a lookup. You have access to the specific work area, but are
unable to perform the activity.
Identify the correct statement about this.
A. You cannot add new lookup codes and meanings to the existing lookup types.
B. You can access the task for profile options from the Setup and Maintenance menu.
C. The system administrator must enable the lookup before it is modified in the work area.
D. Oracle applications contain certain predefined system lookups that are locked for editing.
E. You can create new lookup types but cannot modify the existing ones.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Approval Types are supported while configuring the Managing Approval Rules: Promote transaction?
A. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Representative, Self Auto Approve,
User
B. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto
Approve
C. Enterprise Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto Approve
D. Data Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Self Auto Approve, User
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A customer set up the certification requirement for art absence. After scheduling the absence for a subordinate, the line
manager wants to add a certification requirement as an action item, but is unable to do it.
What is the reason for this?
A. You can add the certification requirement to appear as an action item only during the manual absence enrollment
process.
B. Line managers can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they approve the absence;
C. Only HR Specialists can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they schedule an
absence.
D. Only workers can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they schedule an absence.
E. Line managers can configure the certification requirement to appear as an action item after completion of the
absence.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
When setting the expiration details for a Compensatory Plan, which of the following is a valid option?
A. Employee Termination
B. Worked Period
C. Ongoing
D. End of Acquisition Week
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which three are true statements about Absence and Payroll integration? (Choose three.)
A. The options available for configuration vary depending on the legislation chosen when creating absence plans.
B. The setup required in payroll may vary depending on payroll localization.
C. The Absence Element Template creates all of the attributes required to process absences through payroll.
D. The options available for configuration are the same for all the legislations when creating absence plans.
Correct Answer: ABC 

QUESTION 4
Your client has a requirement that the employee will not get enrolled into the plan for first six months of hire. Enrollment
and accruals will start after the completion of six months. The plan needs to be Front-Loaded.
How will you configure this in the system?
A. Create a plan having Vesting Period with UOM as Months and duration as 6.
B. Create a rule in Accrual Matrix where you will check the length of service of an employee and if the Length of Service
is less than six months then accrual value should be 0.
C. Write partial period fast formula that enrolls the employee only after six months from hire date.
D. Create a plan having a Waiting Period with UOM as Months and duration as 6.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
After running the calculate accrual process, you notice that 100 employees\\’ balances have not been updated despite
the process running to a successful status. Your customer has requested that the process should fail if any employees
are in error.
What absence batch parameter should you decrease to achieve this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Thread Count
B. Errors
C. Chunk Size
D. Maximum Errors
E. Minimum Errors
F. Thread Size
G. Total Threads
Correct Answer: ACF

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300-625 DCSAN
Certifications: CCNP Data Center, Cisco Certified Specialist – Data Center SAN Implementation
Duration: 90 minutes

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the mechanisms of Cisco Secure Boot from the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
A storage network engineer must install and configure a new MDS switch in a data center network. Which two
statements about available choices during the MDS switch initial setup are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The engineer can choose what will be the administrator account.
B. A secure password standard is required.
C. The engineer can configure the default zone policy.
D. The engineer can configure the default switch port trunk mode.
E. The engineer does not have the choice to enable or disable full zone set distribution.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
What is the function of the 0xFFFFFC address in a Fibre Channel fabric?
A. management server
B. fabric controller
C. name server
D. time server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

A port-channel has been configured between a Cisco MDS and a Cisco Fabric Interconnect switch. Which interface(s) in
Does the port-channel carry the control plane traffic?
A. per-packet, balanced between interfaces fc1/9 and fc1/10
B. from interface fc1/9
C. from interface fc1/10
D. per flow, balanced between interfaces fc1/9 and fc1/10
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which feature on MDS platforms ensures that the code that is running on the hardware platform is authentic and
unmodified, while also validating the BIOS to eliminate any rootkits.
A. Cisco Secure Boot
B. UEFI Secure Boot
C. Secure Unique Device Identifier
D. BIOS Secure Boot
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A Cisco MDS Series Switch with the POAP feature boots and does not find the startup configuration. Which location is
checked first when the switch enters POAP mode?
A. A USB device that contains the software image files and the switch configuration file
B. DHCP server to bootstrap the interface IP address, gateway, DNS server, and TFTP IP addresses
C. TFTP server where the necessary configuration files are downloaded
D. HTTP server where the URL is used to download the software image
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which configuration is always required when running the setup utility on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?
A. administrator password
B. management IP address
C. active NTP server
D. active default gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
After user account attributes are modified in Cisco NX-OS, when do changes to the user\\’s session attributes take
effect?
A. immediately
B. at the scheduled time
C. when the user logs out of a session
D. when the user creates a new session
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What is the effect of a non-graceful virtual machine shutdown on a virtualized server that is connected to a SAN with
Fibre Channel interfaces?
A. NP Port reload connected to the upstream SAN switch
B. out-of-service Fibre Channel interfaces on the SAN switch
C. frames stuck in the storage system
D. frames stuck in the HBA buffer of the server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer created a new user that uses the VSAN-Admin role on a Cisco MDS switch so a new colleague can
manage the VSANs configured on the switch. Which action is required for the configuration to give permission to the
new colleague?
A. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured as rule 5.
B. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured as rule 1.
C. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured under the VSAN policy deny.
D. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured under the VSAN policy allow.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A storage network engineer is implementing disk-array data replication between two SAN environments in two different
data centers not connected via Fibre Channel. Which SAN switch feature must be implemented?
A. FCIP
B. zoning merge over LAN
C. VSAN scoping
D. IVR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which benefit of upgrading to the Cisco DCNM server-based advanced feature license for a Cisco MDS switch is
correct?
A. The license can be reassigned when a switch is replaced with a newer version within the same product family.
B. The license can be assigned to either server MAC address or switch serial number.
C. An unlimited number of devices can be added to the list of licensed devices.
D. The license can be reassigned when the switch is replaced with a Cisco Nexus switch.
Correct Answer: A

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Cisco 300-620 DCACI Exam Overview

300-620 DCACI
Certifications: CCNP Data Center, Cisco Certified Specialist – Data Center ACI Implementation
Duration: 90 minutes

Free Cisco 300-620 DCACI Exam Questions

QUESTION 1
An engineer is implementing a connection that represents an external bridged network. Which two configurations are
used? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 remote fabric
B. Layer 2 outside
C. Layers 2 internal
D. Static path binding
E. VXLAN outside
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
A data center administrator is upgrading an ACI fabric. There are 3 APIC controllers in the fabric and all the servers are
dual-homed to pairs of leaf switches configured in VPC mode. How should the fabric be upgraded to minimize possible
traffic impact during the upgrade?
A. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the APIC controllers: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the first group of controllers.
3.
Upgrade the second group of controllers.
4.
Upgrade the leaf switches.
B. 1. Create two maintenance groups for APIC controllers: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the leaf switches.
3.
Upgrade the first group of controllers.
4.
Upgrade the second group of controllers.
C. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the leaf switches: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the APIC controllers.
3.
Upgrade the first group of leaf switches.
4.
Upgrade the second group of leaf switches.
D. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the leaf switches: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the first group of switches.
3.
Upgrade the second group of switches.
4.
Upgrade the APIC controllers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. Which two objects are created as a result of the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. application profile
B. attachable AEP
C. bridge domain
D. endpoint group
E. VRF
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01110.html

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit. Which Adjacency Type value should be set when the client endpoint and the service node interface
are in a different subnet?
A. Routed
B. Unicast
C. L3Out
D. L3
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An engineer has set the VMM resolution immediacy to pre-provision in a Cisco ACI environment. No Cisco Discovery
Protocol neighborship has been formed between the hypervisors and the ACI fabric leaf nodes. How does this affect the
download policies to the leaf switches?
A. No policies are downloaded because LLDP is the only supported discovery protocol.
B. Policies are downloaded when the hypervisor host is connected to the VMM VDS.
C. Policies are downloaded to the ACI leaf switch regardless of the Cisco Discovery Protocol neighborship.
D. No policies are downloaded because there is no discovery protocol neighborship.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer is extending an EPG out of the ACI fabric using static path binding. Which statement about the endpoints is
true?
A. Endpoints must connect directly to the ACI leaf port.
B. External endpoints are in a different bridge domain than the endpoints in the fabric.
C. Endpoint learning encompasses the MAC address only.
D. External endpoints are in the same EPG as the directly attached endpoints.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. A client reports that the ACI domain connectivity to the fiber channel storage is experiencing a B2B
credit oversubscription. The environment has an SYSLOG server for state collection messages. Which value should be
chosen to clear the critical fault?
A. 300
B. 410
C. 350
D. 510
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
In the context of VMM, which protocol between ACI leaf and compute hosts ensures that the policies are pushed to the
leaf switches for immediate and on-demand resolution immediacy?
A. VXLAN
B. LLDP
C. ISIS
D. STP
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_0101.html

QUESTION 9
Which action sets Layer 2 loop migration in an ACI Fabric with a Layer 2 Out configured?
A. Enable MCP on the ACI fabric.
B. Disable STP in the external network.
C. Disable STP on the ACI fabric.
D. Enable STP on the ACI fabric.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
On which two interface types should a user configure storm control to protect against broadcast traffic? (Choose two.)
A. APIC facing interfaces
B. port-channel on a single leaf switch
C. all interfaces on the leaf switches in the fabric
D. endpoint-facing trunk interface
E. fabric uplink interfaces on the leaf switches
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/L2_config/b_Cisco_APIC_Layer_2_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_Layer_2_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01010.html

QUESTION 11
In the context of ACI Multi-Site, when is the information of an endpoint (MAC/IP) that belongs to site 1 advertised to the site
2 using the EVPN control plane?
A. Endpoint information is not exchanged across sites unless the COOP protocol is used.
B. Endpoint information is not exchanged across sites unless a policy is configured to allow communication across
sites.
C. Endpoint information is exchanged across sites as soon as the endpoint is discovered in one site.
D. Endpoint information is exchanged across sites when the endpoints are discovered in both sites.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centricinfrastructure/white-paper-c11-739609.html#CiscoACIMultiSiteoverlaydataplane

QUESTION 12
An ACI administrator notices a change in the behavior of the fabric. Which action must be taken to determine if a human
did intervention introduce the change?
A. Inspect event records in the APIC UI to see all actions performed by users.
B. Inspect /var/log/audit_messages on the APIC to see a record of all user actions.
C. Inspect audit logs in the APIC UI to see all user events.
D. Inspect the output of show command history in the APIC CLI.
Correct Answer: A

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