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Exam Code: 70-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 164
Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-461 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
Question No: 5 CORRECT TEXTYou have a view that was created by using the following code:
✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ You need to create an inline table-valued function named Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory,
which must meet the following 70-461 exam requirements:
Accept the @T integer parameter.
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Filter the query results by SalesTerritoryID.
Return the columns in the same order as the order used in OrdersByTerritoryView.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area. Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer Answer:
Question No: 6 CORRECT TEXTYou have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You deploy a new server that has SQL Server 2012 installed. You need to create a table
named Sales.OrderDetails on the new server. Sales.OrderDetails must meet the following
requirements: Write the results to a disk. Contain a new column named LineItemTotal that stores the product of ListPrice and Quantity for each row. The code must NOT use any object delimiters.
The solution must ensure that LineItemTotal is stored as the last column in the table. Which
code segment should you use? To answer, type the correct 070-461 dumps code in the answer area. Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer Answer:
Question No: 7 CORRECT TEXTYou have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ You need to create a view named uv_CustomerFullName to meet the following
requirements:
The code must NOT include object delimiters.
The view must be created in the Sales schema.
Columns must only be referenced by using one-part names.
The view must return the first name and the last name of all customers.
The view must prevent the underlying structure of the customer table from being changed.
The view must be able to resolve all referenced objects, regardless of the user’s
default schema.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area. Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer Answer:
Question No: 8 CORRECT TEXTYou have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ You need to create a query that calculates the total sales of each OrderId from the
Sales.Details table. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Sort the order of the results from OrderId.
NOT depend on the default schema of a user.
Use an alias of TotalSales for the calculated ExtendedAmount.
Display only the OrderId column and the calculated TotalSales column.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area. Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
070-461 pdf Answer:
Question No: 9. A Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) the user is also a supervisor. You want to ensure that the supervisor automatically sees only his/her agents in the following: Historical reports
Real-time displays
Contact Center Manager Server
How can this be done most effectively?
A. Configure a standard partition.
B. Configure a user-defined partition.
C. The supervisor will automatically see all of the agents.
D. Link the CCMA user to the supervisor in the reporting agents partition. Answer: D Question No: 10. In a deployed Contact Center Rls. 7.0 network with several sites, which condition will occur if the Network Control Center (NCC) server experiences a hardware failure that drops the server from the network?
A. all call routing and call processing in the network will stop
B. calls are routed between sites but no network call-by-call data will be transferred to the NCC
C. calls will not be routed between sites in the network
D. the Contact Center Manager Servers at each site in the network will also fail
70-461 vce Answer: B Question No: 11. In Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) Rls. 7.0, which element can be configured on the Configuration component?
A. Global Settings
B. Users
C. Agents
D. Partitions Answer: A Question No: 12. In Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) Rls. 7.0, which set of options specifies how statistics are treated in reports and real-time displays?
A. Activity codes
B. Call Presentation Class
C. Skillset Assignment
D. Threshold Class
070-461 exam Answer: D Question No: 13. While the Call Presentation option “After Call Break for N seconds” (break time) is in effect, which event
can cancel the break time?
A. An agent is reserved for an NACD call by the switch.
B. An agent can put directory number calls on hold for incoming ACD calls.
C. Break time between calls has been allowed and the agent returns from walk away.
D. Break time between calls has been allowed and the agent releases an individual DN call.
E. Break time between calls has been allowed and the caller abandons the call when on an agent set. Answer: A Question No: 14. CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
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functionality of any major product release. You acknowledge and agree that RSA may, in its sole
discretion, change the certification requirements (both initial and continuing), RSA Certified Security
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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 503
The following list includes the topic areas covered on this exam.
• Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
• Introduction to Active Directory Domain Services
• Managing Active Directory Domain Services Objects
• Automating Active Directory Domain Services Administration
• Implementing Networking Services
• Implementing Local Storage
• Implementing File and Print Services
• Implementing Group Policy
• Implementing Server Virtualization with Hyper-V
Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION 1. In Report Studio, an author merges Query1 and Query2 into one result set (Query3) using a union set operator, Query1 contains two data items: Order method and Revenue, Query2 also contains two data items: Product line and Quantity sold. The author wants to display the data from Query3 in a list report, how can the author ensure that all the order method results appear together line results appear together in the report?
A. The author must add a sort key data item directly to Query3.
B. The author must sort the Order method data item in Query1 and the Product line data item in Query2.
C. The author must sort the data item in Query3 that retrieves both the Order method and Product line data. D.
The author must add a sort key data item to Query1 and Query2, and then add this sort key data item to
Query3.
070-410 exam Answer: C QUESTION 2. Which member is used for dimensions in a package that are not referenced in the expression?
A. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query, No grouping is applied to the tabular
data.
B. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query. Grouping applied in the report layout is
also applied to the tabular data.
C. Tabular data can only include columns for data items that appear in the layout. No grouping is applied
to the tabular data.
D. Tabular data includes a column for a data item that appears in both the query and the layout. Grouping
applied in the report layout is also applied to tabular data.
Answer: A QUESTION 3. In Report Studio, an author uses the tuple function to retrieve the intersection of members from two dimensions. Which member is used for dimensions in the package that are not referenced in the
expression?
A. No member is used.
B. The root member is always used.
C. The last sibling of the lowest member is always used.
D. The default member for that Dimension is always used. 70-410 dumpsAnswer: B QUESTION 4. In Report Studio, an author wants to use a join object to create a relationship between two queries. Which of the following is true?
A. The author can use a join object to create either an inner or outer join between the queries.
B. The author can use a join object only if both queries contain data from OLAP data sources.
C. The author can use a join object only if both queries contain data from relational sources that have not
been modeled dimensionally.
D. Both queries must contain the same number of the data item, the data items must be compatible and must
appear in the same order.
Answer: D QUESTION 5. In Event Studio, which of the following tasks are available to a report author?
A. Run an agent
B. Run an export
C. Run an import
D. Run an index update
070-410 pdf Answer: B QUESTION 6. In Report Studio, an author wants to conditionally format a list report according to the revenue generated by each product line. The Revenue data item does not appear in the list report but is contained in Quety1. Which of the following must the author do in order to apply this conditional formatting?
A. Make the Revenue data item property of Queery1.
B. Make the Revenue data item property of the list object.
C. Make the Revenue data item property of the Page object.
D. Make the Revenue data item property of the Variable object.
Answer: B QUESTION 7. In an OLAP package, the Years dimension appears as shown below:
If the expression for Year level in this dimension is [great_outdoors_company].[Years]. [Year].which member will be retrieved by the following expression?
descendants(closing period([great_outdoors_company].[Years],2)
A. Each Month member for the latest year in the Year level.
B. The latest Month member for each year in the Year level.
C. Each Quarter member for the latest year in the Year level.
D. Each Month member from the latest quarter at the Quarter level.
070-410 exam questions Answer: A QUESTION 8. In Report Studio, an author edits the SQL statement that a query uses to retrieve data for a crosstab. After editing the SQL, the author wants to add a new data item to the query. How can the author add the data item?
A. The author must convert the edited SQL back to a query object and then add the data item.
B. The author must edit the SQL statements so that the query retrieves an additional data item.
C. The author must add the data item to the query from the package displayed on the Source tab.
D. The author must add a query refers to the existing query and then add the data item to the
referenced query.
Answer: B QUESTION 9. In Report Studio, an author creates a list report containing columns for Staff Name, Order Number, and Revenue. The author wants to burst this report to various sales staff members. Each member should see only data relating to the sales they have made. What must the author do to specify that the burst report output will contain only data for the appropriate sales staff member?
A. In the report layout, create a master-detail relationship on the Staff Name data item.
B. In the report layout, add the Staff Name data item as a property of the list object.
C. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Recipients.
D. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Groups. 70-410 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 10 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11 You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements: Preserve the server roles and their configurations. Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature 070-410 Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12 Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13 You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience. 070-410 exam questions Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14 Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 15. In Report Studio, why would an author use a filter 70-410 dumps function when querying dimensional data?
A. To retrieve a set of members that meet a String condition. B. To suppress a set of members that meet a String condition. C.
To retrieve a set of members that meet a Boolean condition. D.
To suppress a set of members that meet a Boolean condition.
Answer: D
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Exam Code: 70-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 97
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Question: 1 Which of the following is an example of a taxable gift for federal gift tax purposes?
A – A father gives his 19-year-old daughter a note promising to give her his Rolls Royce when she
reaches the age of 21.
B – Instead of parents paying an outside executive $60,000, a son runs their business for 8
months without charging a fee.
C – The parents of a married son permit their son and his family to use a summer cottage that
rents for $3,000 per month on a rent-free basis.
D – A father cancels a $50,000 note his daughter gave him when he made a loan to her 2 years
ago.
070-489 exam Answer: D Question: 2 The following are facts concerning a decedent’s estate:
Taxable estate $1.700, 000
Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200, 000
Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50, 000
Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified charity 100, 000
The tentative tax base of this estate is
A – $1,700,000
B – $1,750,000
C – $1,850,000
D – $1,900,000 Answer: B Question: 3 An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months
after death. Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included
in this estate is correct?
A – An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is
includible at the date of death value.
B – Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date.
C – Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of
death if the executor so elects.
D – Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of
death. 70-489 dumpsAnswer: A Question: 4 A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to
his death, the father was offered $1200, 000 for his farm because of its possible use as a
shopping center. The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his
father’s estate at its current use value. Additional facts are:
1. Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000.
2. The average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $6,000.
3. The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Sank is 8 percent. For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use
value for the farm of
A – $500,000
B – $600,000
C – $700,000
D – $820,000 Answer: B Question: 5 Which of the following types of real property ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in
common?
A – Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of
which is real property.
B – Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real property, with each brother
being able to divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will.
C – Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property
used in the partnership business.
D – Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one
of the brothers, the survivor will own the entire piece of property.
070-489 pdf Answer: B Question: 6 Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in
a community-property state is correct?
A – All property owned by the couple is community property.
B – Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community property state
to a common-law state.
C – Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property
D – Income earned by one spouse becomes community property. Answer: D Question: 7 Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct?
A – Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charity.
B – It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries.
C – Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee.
D – It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries.
70-489 vce Answer: B Question: 8 On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial
transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which
of the following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct?
A – The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during
lifetime and at death. B – The value of Betsy and John’s GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at
death rather than during lifetime.
C – The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition
gifts for the grandchildren.
D – Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren. Answer: D Question: 9 The decedent, D, died this year. The facts concerning D estate are:
Gross estate $3,400,000
Marital deduction 0
Charitable deduction 600,000
Funeral & administration expenses 00,000
Gifts made after 1976 170,000
State death taxes payable 192,000
What is D taxable estate?
A – $2,138,000
B – $2,358,000
C – $2,528,000
D – $2,720,000
070-489 exam Answer: C Question: 10 On January 1, 2004, a father gave his daughter a $200,000 straight (ordinary) life insurance policy
on his life. Premiums are paid annually. The pertinent facts about the policy are:
Date of issue: July 1, 1992
Premium paid on July 1, 2003, $3200
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2003, 20,000
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2004, 24,000
What is the value of the policy for federal gift tax purposes?
A – $ 21,600
B – $23,200
C – $23,600
D – $200,000 Answer: C Question: 11 A married man has two adult sons. His entire estate is in excess of $1,500,000 and consists
entirely of probate assets. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife she will
receive all estate income as long as she lives, and the assets remaining at her death will pass
equally to their two sons. He wants to pass all assets to this wife and sons as free of federal
estate taxes as possible. To best accomplish these objectives, the man should include which of
the following estate plans in his will?
A – Establish a QTIP trust for half his estate and bequeath the remainder to his wife
B – Establish a marital deduction trust with a general power of appointment for half his estate and place the remainder in a QTIP trust
C – Establish a bypass trust equal to the applicable exclusion amount and place the remainder of
his estate in a QTIP trust
D – Establish a QTIP trust for his entire estate 70-489 dumpsAnswer: C Question: 12 Among the assets in a decedent’s gross estate is stock in a closely held corporation that was left
to a nephew. The interest passing to the nephew is required to bear the burden of all estate taxes
and expenses. The relevant facts about this estate are:
Adjusted gross estate $1,200,000
The fair market value of stock in the
closely held corporation 500,000
Administration and funeral expenses 25,000
State inheritance taxes 40,000
Federal estate taxes 160,000
What amount of closely held corporate stock may be redeemed under IRC Section 303 so that
the redemption will be treated as a sale or exchange rather than a dividend distribution?
A – 0
B – $ 65,000
C – $225,000
D – $500,000 Answer: C Question: 13 A married man died this year leaving a gross estate of $3,200,000. Additional facts concerning
his estate is:
Administration expenses and debts $ 250,000
Marital deduction 1,200,000
Applicable credit amount (2005) 555,800
Applicable exclusion amount (2005) 1,500,000
State death taxes payable 20,400
Under the Unified Rate Schedule for computing estate taxes if the amount with respect to which
the tentative tax to be computed is over$1,000,000 but not over $1,250,000, the tentative tax is
$345,800, plus 41 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,000,000. If the amount is over
$1,250,000 but not over $1,500,000, the tentative tax is then $448,300, plus 43 percent of the
excess of such amount over $1,250,000. If the amount is over $1,500,000 but not over
$2,000,000, the tentative tax is then $555,800 plus 45% of the excess of such amount over
$1,500,000. Based on these facts, the net federal estate tax payable is
A – 0
B – $103,320
C – $123,720
D – $128,280
070-489 pdf Answer: B
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Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
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NO.1 You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to implement an
incremental data load strategy.
The package reads data from a source system that uses the SQL Server change data capture (CDC)
feature.
You have added a CDC Source component to the data flow to read changed data from the source
system.
You need to add a data flow transformation to redirect rows for separate processing of insert,
update, and delete
operations.
Which data flow transformation should you use?
A. CDC Splitter
B. Audit
C. Merge Join
D. Merge
Answer: A
Explanation: The CDC splitter splits a single flow of change rows from a CDC source data flow into
different data flows
for Insert, Update and Delete operations
NO.2 You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent
data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is
slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring
that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Implement change tracking.
B. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
C. Create a degenerate dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create a Type 2 slowly changing dimension for the geography dimension.
Answer: B
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C. Failover Clustering
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a single virtual cluster, NLB provides reliability and performance for web servers and other mission-
critical servers.
Reference: Network Load Balancing Overview
NO.4 A company has 200-125 pdf offices in multiple geographic locations. The sites have high-latency, low-
bandwidth connections. You need to implement a multisite Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
topology for deploying standard client device images to all sites.
Solution: At each site, you install a WDS Server. You apply the same configuration settings to each
WDS Server. You configure Distributed File Server Replication (DFSR) to synchronize install images.
Does this meet the goal?
A. No
B. Yes
Answer: B
Explanation:
DFS Replication is compatible with Remote Installation Services (RIS) and WDS.
QUESTION 5
The System Image Utility ________.
A. creates and scans an ASR-ready disk image
B. prepares a disk image for NetBoot or Network Install
C. configures an image to act as the default boot volume
D. configures a computer to startup from a network image
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
You are using ASR multicast to restore multiple computers with the same copy of an ASR-ready disk image. What will the result be?
A. The restorations will be performed simultaneously.
B. The restorations will be queued in the order requested.
C. Users will be prompted to specify a data rate to use for their computer.
D. The computers will start up from a network image and run asr automatically.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Apple Remote Desktop is ________.
A. an update service provided by Mac OS X Server
B. a management tool used to control computers remotely
C. an administrative tool used to install Mac OS X on remote systems
D. the system preference for allowing remote Apple events in Mac OS X
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
In a multiple-user environment, what action must you take to assure that a user’s Classic preferences will be stored separately?
A. No action is necessary. Classic automatically stores preferences in each user’s home folder.
B. Create an alias to the Classic Preferences folder in the Library folder in each user’s home folder.
C. Under the advanced tab in the Classic System Preferences pane, check to use Mac OS 9 preferences from your home folder.
D. In the Classic System Folder, create an alias to the Library/Preferences folder of each user’s home folder and name the alias Preferences. name, where name is the username of that user.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 09
You have added packages to a custom Network Install image. To ensure that the packages are delivered to clients that startup from the image, you must ________.
A. rename the primary package or meta-package on the install image to OSInstall.pkg
B. create a meta-package named primary.pkg that includes all of the added packages
C. edit the file /private/etc/rc.cdrom.packagePath to contain the path to the main package or metapackage
D. modify /private/etc/installconfig.xml on the disk image to point to the main install package or meta-package
Correct Answer: C
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Your company has a main office that contains several servers and several users. The main office contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. The users access a large report file that is created on Server1 each day. The company plans to open a new branch office. The branch office will contain only client computers. You need to implement a solution to reduce the amount of bandwidth used by the client computers in the branch office to download the report each day. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Install the BranchCache for network files role service on Server1. Configure the client computers to use BranchCache in hosted cache mode.
B. Configure the offline settings of the shared folder that contains the report.
C. Install the BranchCache for network files role service on Server1. Configure the client computers to use Branchcache in distributed mode.
D. Enable the Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) feature on Server1 and on each client computer in the branch office. Move the report to a web folder.
Answer: C
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