Day: August 16, 2016
Question: 31
Which of the following statements concerning revocable trusts is correct?
A – The transfer of properly to a revocable trust is typically motivated by non tax reasons.
B – A transfer of property to a revocable trust is treated as a completed gift.
C – A transfer of income-producing properly to a revocable trust will result in favorable income tax
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
treatment for the grantor. D – Property of a revocable trust will be included in the grantor’s probate property.
Answer: A
Question: 32
A man recently died with only probate assets. Under the terms of his will, he left his entire probate estate out right to his wife. The following are relevant facts concerning the estate:
Gross estate $2,400,000 Estate administration expenses 85,000 Debts of decedent 100,000 Allowable funeral expenses 10,000
The amount of the allowable marital deduction is
A – $2,205,000 B – $2,215,000 C – $2,305,000 D – $2,315,000
Answer: A
Question: 33
A wife makes outright gifts of $40,000 to her son this year, and her husband agrees to split the gifts with her. Which of the following correctly states the amount of the taxable gifts?
A – Wife 0, husband $18,000 B – Wife $9,000, husband $9,000 C – Wife$19,000, husband$19,000 D – Wife $18,000, husband 0
Answer: B
Question: 34
A woman is the income beneficiary of an irrevocable trust. Which of the following powers given to her will cause all the assets in the trust to be includible in her gross estate for federal estate tax purposes?
A – The testamentary power to direct the trustee to use trust assets to pay her estate taxes B – The power to direct the trustee to pay trust assets to her limited in amount to an ascertainable standard relating to her health and education C – The power each year to direct the trustee to pay her an amount of trust assets not exceeding the greater of $5,000 or 5 percent of the assets held by the trust D – The testamentary special or limited power to direct the trustee to distribute trust assets to her children
Answer: A
Question: 35
A single man with substantial assets and income is supporting his 80-year-old partially senile mother with monthly cash gifts. He is trying to find a practical way to support his mother while at the same time saving federal gift and income taxes without giving up ultimate control of any assets. Which of the following courses of action will best accomplish these objectives?
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
A – Make her an interest free loan with a principal amount large enough to produce sufficient income for her support when invested in corporate bonds B – Make her annual gifts of enough interest income from the tax free municipal bonds in his portfolio so that she will be able to support herself C – Make her a gift of enough corporate bonds from his port folio so that she will be able to support herself from the interest payments D – Purchase corporate bonds that pay interest in an amount sufficient for her to support herself and assign the interest payments to her
Answer: B
Question: 36
An individual who is a resident of State W is also the sole proprietor of a business located in State
W. He owns real property located in State X that is used by the proprietorship. While on vacation in State Y, the individual meets an untimely death. Under the terms of his will, his entire estate is bequeathed to a resident of State Z. Which state will tax the real property used by the proprietorship?
A – State W B – State X C – State Y D – State Z
Answer: B
Question: 37
Which of the following life insurance settlement options will qualify for the federal estate tax marital deduction?
l. Proceeds left to the surviving spouse under the interest option, with interest payable to the surviving spouse who has the unrestricted right to withdraw proceeds and with any proceeds not withdrawn payable equally to her children per stripes
ll. Proceeds left to the surviving spouse under an installment option, with any installments remaining at her death to be commuted and paid to her estate
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: C
Question: 38
Which of the following statements concerning a power of appointment is (are) correct?
l. A power of appointment can be designed to restrict the donee’s right to appoint the property in favor of a specific class of recipients.
ll. A power of appointment can be designed to restrict the time period during which the donee may exercise the power.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither I nor II
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
Answer: C
Question: 39
Which of the following statements concerning ante nuptial agreements is (are) correct?
l. They are frequently used to protect the interests of children of former marriages.
II. They can legally deprive a surviving spouse of his or her elective share of a deceased spouse’s estate.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 40
Which of the following statements concerning the joint tenancy with right of survivorship form of real property ownership is (are) correct?
l. The property is part of the probate estate of the first tenant to die.
ll. An owner can sell his interest in the property at any time without destroying the form of ownership.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Question: 41
A number of states have passed statutes governing “living wills.” Which of the following statements concerning a living will is (are) correct?
l. A living will is an alternative to an inter vivos trust under certain circumstances.
ll. A living will is an oral will made by the testator during a final illness when it is impossible to write one.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor Il
Answer: D
Question: 42
Which of the following actions on the part of a trustee is (are) a breach of his duties?
I. Placing substantial amounts of cash from the sale of securities in a no interest bearing checking account for a period of years
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
II. Investing all trust assets in securities that favor income beneficiaries to the detriment of remainder persons
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 43
Which of the following are ways of passing property from a deceased spouse to a surviving spouse so that the properly will qualify for the federal estate tax marital deduction?
I. When the surviving spouse receives the property by electing to take against the deceased spouse’s will
ll. When the surviving spouse receives the property as a consequence of the qualified disclaimer of another beneficiary
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 44
Which of the following statements concerning wills is (are) correct?
l. A will should be reviewed periodically to assure that the property owner’s most recent intentions are honored at death.
ll. Once signed, a will’s provisions may not be changed without the consent of all the beneficiaries under the will.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Question: 45
Which of the following statements concerning the generation-skipping transfer tax (GSTT) is (are) correct?
I. An annual exclusion against GSTT will shelter gifts by a grandparent to a trust benefiting multiple grandchildren.
II. Tuition payments made directly by a grandparent to a university for a grandchild’s education
are exempt from GSTT.
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
A – l only B – II only C – Both land ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 46
In which of the following situations will the grantor be taxed on income from trust property.
l. The grantor of a trust gives one of the trust beneficiaries the right to add or delete beneficiaries.
ll. An adverse party to the grantor holds the power to determine the timing to trust distributions to the beneficiaries.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Question: 47
Which of the following statements concerning a grantor-retained annuity trust (GRAT) is (are) correct?
l. The grantor is taxed on trust income during the retained term.
II. The grantor makes an irrevocable transfer to the remainder person(s) when the trust is created.
A – I only B – II only C – Both I and lI D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 48
Alan, a widower, is a retired executive with substantial assets. He wishes to provide for the financial security of his two grandchildren since their father, Alan’s son, has always managed money poorly. This year Alan would like each grandchild to receive a substantial gift. Which of the following statements concerning the generation-skipping transfer tax (GSTT) on these gifts is (are) correct?
I. Federal estate or gift tax will not be imposed if the gift is otherwise subject to the GSTT.
II. Assuming no prior gifts, Alan can gift a cumulative total of (not including the annual exclusion) $1.5 million to his grandchildren without the imposition of the GSTT.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
Answer: B
Question: 49
Which of the following statements concerning filing the federal estate tax return is (are) correct?
l. The estate tax return must be filed within 9 months of death unless an extension is granted by the IRS.
ll. For persons dying this year. an estate tax return must be filed for gross estates plus adjusted taxable gifts that exceed $1.5 million.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: C
Question: 50
Which of the following statements concerning the gift or estate tax charitable deduction is (are) correct?
l. A donor is denied a charitable deduction for property that passes to a qualified charity as the result of a qualified disclaimer if the donor original transfer was to a no charitable donee.
ll. A decedent-spouse estate may obtain both marital and charitable deductions for interests contributed to a charitable remainder trust when the surviving spouse is the only no charitable income beneficiary for life.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 51
Which of the following statements concerning pooled-income funds are correct?
l. The fund contains commingled donations from many sources.
ll. A decedent donation purchases units in the fund which generate income that is paid at least annually to a charity.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Question: 52
Which of the following factors is (are) used to make a choice between having an entity-purchase or cross-purchase partnership buy-sell agreement?
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
I. The cost basis of the partner’s business interests.
ll. The amount of the partner’s individual personal net worth’s
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither l nor lI
Answer: A
Question: 53
Which of the following transfers will be successful in removing property from a grantor’s gross estate?
l. A grantor’s transfer of property to a revocable trust if the grantor lives three years after the transfer.
ll. A grantor’s transfer of a personal residence to a qualified personal residence trust if the grantor survives the retained interest term.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 54
Which of the following statements concerning marital transfers to a non-U.S. citizen spouse is (are) correct?
l. A marital deduction is automatically available as long as property is transferred outright to the non-citizen spouse.
Il .A marital deduction is automatically available if the transferor-decedent spouse is a U. S. citizen.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: D
Question: 55
Which of the following statements concerning the inclusion in a decedent-employee’s gross estate of a lump-sum distribution from a qualified retirement plan to a beneficiary other than the employee’s estate is (are) correct?
l. Lump-sum distributions of payments attributable to the employer’s contributions are excluded from the gross estate.
ll. Lump-sum distributions of payments attributable to the decedent-employee’s contributions are excluded from the gross estate.
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Question: 56
John plans to transfer his life insurance policy to an irrevocable trust for the benefit of his 19-year-old daughter, Jane. Which of the following conditions will enable the gift to qualify for the annual exclusion?
l. Jane is the irrevocable beneficiary of the life insurance trust but cannot withdraw from the trust until the death benefits are paid.
ll. Jane is given “Crummey” demand powers permitting the withdrawal at her discretion of the annual additions to the trust.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 57
Which of the following statements concerning the taxation of estates and trusts is (are) correct?
l. They are taxed similarly to partnership entities.
II. They are taxed on distributable net income (DNI) that is retained.
A – only B – II only C – Both l and lI D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 58
Which of the following statements concerning pooled-income funds is (are) correct?
l. A pooled income fund is similar to a mutual fund maintained by a qualified charity.
ll. lt is an irrevocable arrangement in which the remainder interest passes to charity.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: C Question: 59
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
Which of the following statements concerning ownership of property in the form of a joint tenancy with right of survivorship is (are) correct?
I. Either real or personal property may be owned as a joint tenancy with right of survivorship.
Il. Nonqualified joint tenants with right of survivorship may have unequal separate shares of the property.
A – l only B – II only C – Both I and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Question: 60
Which of the following statements concerning the methods of valuing a closely held business for federal estate tax purposes is (are) correct?
l. The capitalization-of-adjusted-earnings method uses a capitalization rate that varies inversely with the degree of risk and rate of return.
II. The adjusted-book value method involves adjusting the asset components of a business to an approximate fair market value for each component.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 61
Which of the following statements concerning guardians is (are) correct?
l. A guardian is appointed by a court.
Il. A guardian holds equitable title to the property he administers for his or her ward.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Question: 62
Which of the following types of partial interests in property may be allowed a charitable deduction for estate tax purposes?
l. A remainder interest in the donor vacation home
ll. A testamentary gift of a percentage of a decedent entire interest in property held in trust
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QUESTION 131
When QoS levels in the Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) are entered, which profile names are used to identify the access categories?
A. platinum, gold, silver, and bronze
B. voice, gold, silver, and bronze
C. low delay, network critical, business, best effort
D. voice, video, background gold, background silver, and best effort
E. voice, video, best effort, and background F. voice, video, best effort, background, and scavenger
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct about the implementation of QoS across the WANs that are shown? (Choose two.)
A. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN A.
B. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN A.
C. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN A.
D. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN B
E. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN B.
F. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN B.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the diagram has contracted with a service provider for the QoS levels that are shown. Which statement is correct about the QoS requirements for the campus and remote branch?
A. Because adequate levels of service are provided across the WAN, campus and remote branch QoS will not be required.
B. The enterprise campus can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
C. The enterprise remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
D. The enterprise campus plus the remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which of the items stated is typically the most expensive method of improving QoS across WAN links?
A. advanced queuing
B. data compression
C. header compression
D. increasing link capacity
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which three functions can an Integrated Services Router perform in a VoIP network? (Choose three.)
A. voice stream mixing for conference calling
B. voice gateway
C. call admission control
D. analog or digital phone interfaces
E. XML application services
F. large scale dial plan application
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Using the fewest commands possible, drag the commands on the left to the blanks on the right to configure and apply a QoS policy that guarantees that voice packets receive 20 percent of the bandwidth on the S0/1/0 interface.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
To configure Control Plan Policing(CoPP) to deny Telnet access only from 10.1.1.1, drag the commands on the left to the boxes on the right and place the commands in the proper order.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Drag each descriptor on the left to the QoS model on the right to which the descriptor applies. Not all descriptors apply.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
Drag the wireless 802.1e priority level groupings on the left to the appropriate Wi-Fi Multimedia(WMM) access categories on the right.(Not all groupings will be used) Answer
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Drag each term on the left to its time definition on the right. There will be one term unused.
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Add a new wireless LAN controller (WLC) to the WCS wireless management server. From the left, drag each procedure to its step sequence on the right.
Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Drag each wireless EAP authentication protocol above to its definition below.
Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Drag each WLSE feature above to its benefit below.
Answer: A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Drag Drop Drag the steps required to convert compressed digital signals to analog signals to their correct order on the right.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 145
Exhibit:
Answer:
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Hotspot Answer:
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Questions:162 Topology
QUESTION 147
Which three characteristics of the traffic flow are taken into consideration when the QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS pre-classify) provides packet classification and applies appropriate QoS service on tunnel interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. IP precedence bits
B. DSCP bits
C. Original port numbers
D. DE bits
E. Source IP address
F. Destination IP address
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which two statements about Cisco AutoQoS are true? (Choose two.)
A. A QoS service policy must already be enabled on the interface before Cisco AutoQoS can be enabled.
B. Any interface at or below 1.54 Mbps is classified as a low-speed interface.
C. AutoQoS uses Cisco network-based application recognition (NBAR) to identify various applications and traffic types
D. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC.
E. Cisco NBAR is a prerequisite for CEF.
F. On a serial interface, before AutoQoS is enabled, the clock rate command must be used to specify a bandwidth other than the default 1.54Mbps.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 149
When a router converts analog signals to digital signals as part of the VoIP process, it performs
four steps.
Which set of steps contains the steps in their correct sequence?
A. encoding optional compression quantization sampling
B. encoding quantization optional compression sampling
C. optional compression encoding sampling quantization
D. optional compression sampling encoding quantization
E. sampling quantization encoding optional compression
F. sampling quantization optional compression encoding
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Question: 150
What are three staid Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) types? (Choose three.)
A. LEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-AES
E. WEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
What are three benefits of the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)? (Choose three.)
A. The decentralized nature of WLSE helps reduce the time and resources that are required to manage a large number of WLAN devices.
B. WLSE helps simplify large-scale deployments by providing automatic configuration of new APs.
C. WLSE minimizes security vulnerabilities by providing security policy misconfiguration alerts and rogue AP detection.
D. WLSE provides AP utilization and client association reports, features which help with capacity planning.
E. WLSE can respond to required changes that are requested by APs.
F. WLSE increases productivity through customization with three possible levels of managemen lightweight, extended, and advanced.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
What is link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI)?
A. LFI is a QoS mechanism that allots bandwidth and enables the differentiation of traffic according to a policy.
B. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
C. LFI is a Layer 3 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
D. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which large frames are broken into small, equal-sized fragments and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
E. LEI is a Layer 2 technique in which smaller fragments are combined into large, equal-sized frames, and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Which two statements about packet marking at the data link layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. Through the use of DE markings, Frame Relay QoS supports up to 10 classes of service.
B. Frames maintain their class of service (CoS) markings when transiting a non-802.1p link.
C. IEEE 802.1p supports up to 10 class of service (CoS) markings.
D. In an 802.1q frame, the 3-bit 802.1p priority field is used to identify the class of service (CoS) priority.
E. The 802.1p CoS markings are preserved through the LAN, but are not maintained end to end.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which two statements are true about traffic shaping and traffic policing? (Choose two.)
A. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing cause retransmissions of connection-oriented protocols such as TCP.
B. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing support the marking and re-marking of traffic.
C. The effects of traffic shaping and traffic policing when configured on a router are applied to outgoing traffic.
D. Traffic shaping queues excess traffic whereas traffic policing discards excess traffic.
E. Traffic shaping allows the traffic to exceed the bit rate whereas traffic policing prevents the traffic from exceeding the bit rate.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which two queuing methods will allow a percentage of the available bandwidth to be allocated to each queue? (Choose two.)
A. First-in, first-out queuing (FIFO)
B. Priority queuing (PQ)
C. Custom queuing (CQ)
D. Weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
E. Class-based WFQ (CBWFQ)
F. Low latency queuing (LLQ)
Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Which classification tool can be used to classify traffic based on the HTTP URL?
A. Class-based policing
B. Policy-based routing (PBR)
C. Committed access rate (CAR)
D. Network-based application recognition (NBAR)
E. Dial peers
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
What three types of interfaces do voice gateways use to connect to analog interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. E and M
B. E1 CCS
C. FXS
D. FXO
E. serial
F. T1 CAS
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 141
When a PPP connection is being established, which three configuration features are negotiated through the LCP? (Choose three.)
A. callback
B. multilink
C. encryption
D. compression
E. protocol multiplexing
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
A corporation is currently running a Frame Relay network in a hub and spoke topology. To ease the WAN bandwidth bottleneck, the company would like to configure compression in an effort to optimize WAN links. The corporation does use multiple protocols and other applications that require that the IP header remains intact. Which type of compression should this corporation use?
A. link compression
B. payload compression
C. TCP/IP header compression
D. MPPC
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Instead of purchasing dedicated router ports, a company wants to reduce costs by allowing any one of the available physical BRI interfaces on a central site router to dial out to remote branch offices.
Which two commands provide this capability? (Choose two.)
A. dialer-group
B. multilink ppp
C. interface dialer
D. dialer hunt-group
E. dialer rotary-group
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which command displays the remote network addresses associated with each PVC?
A. show ip route
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame-relay pvc
E. show frame-relay status
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Refer to exhibit. Notice the partial show running-config output on R1. R1 is connected with a multipoint subinterface over the Frame Relay to the spoke routers R2 and R3. The ISDN interface is configured to provide a back-up link should the primary connection to R2 fail.
However, when the PVC to R2 drops, the BRI interface remains in “standby” mode and does not bring up the back-up link. What could the problem be?
A. The EIGRP updates are configured as noninteresting traffic
B. The backup command is configured under the S0.1 multipoint interface of R1
C. The R1 S0 interface remains up because of the active PVC between R1 and R3.
D. The R1 S0.1 interface remains up because of the active PVC between R1 and R3.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Which set of commands will accomplish the tasks below?
-Make bri0/0 a backup interface to serial0/0.
–
Activate the backup interface 5 seconds after the primary link fails and deactivate the backup interface 10 seconds after the primary link is re-established.
A.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10
B.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10
C.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5
D.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which field is defined in the PPP format that allows PPP to dynamically negotiate link options?
A. address
B. control
C. protocol
D. flag
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
An administrator is attempting to configure TACACS+ AAA authentication for privileged EXEC mode access. The current configuration is as follows:
RTB(config)# tacacs-server host 192.168.1.23 RTB(config)# tacacs-server key CISCO RTB(config)# aaa new-model RTB(config)# aaa authentication enable AAA group tacacs+ enable none
With the above configuration, what will be the result?
A. Authentication will be successful from the TACACS+ server.
B. Authentication will be successful from the local enable password.
C. Because the authentication list is not applied to any lines, authentication will not be successful.
D. Because the authentication enable command cannot used with a named list, authentication will not be successful
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 150
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
lab question Please refer to Question 45, but take notice you wil use the same command in this questions, but some paramters like IP address will be different.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which two debugs should you use to find the cause of an unsuccessful PAP negotiation? (Choose two.)
A. debug ppp pap
B. debug ppp negotiation
C. debug authentication pap
D. debug ppp authentication
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
When the ISAKMP negotiation begins in IKE Phase 1 main mode, ISAKMP looks for an ISAKMP policy that is the same on both peers. Which peer is responsible for matching policies?
A. The peer that initiates the negotiation sends all its policies to the remote peer, and the remote peer tries to find a match with its policies.
B. The remote peer sends all its policies to the initiating peer, and the initiating peer tries to find a match with its policies.
C. Both peers send all their policies to the other peer, and each peer tries to find a match with its policies.
D. Both peers send all their policies to the other peer, but just the initiating peer tries to find a match with its policies.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which statement is true about payload compression?
A. Payload compression can be used in conjunction with link compression.
B. The payload compression algorithm uses Predictor or STAC to compress traffic into another data link layer such as PPP.
C. Payload compression is appropriate for virtual network services such as Frame Relay and ATM.
D. With payload compression the complete packet is compressed and the switching information in the header is not available.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Given the above output, which statement is true?
A. An LMI is not being received from the Frame Relay switch.
B. The DLCI has been removed from the Frame Relay switch.
C. The remote router connection to the Frame Relay switch is not functioning
D. The router is configured to be a Frame Relay switch.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
What are three drawbacks to using RFC 1483/2684 bridging with ADSL? (Choose three.)
A. Bridging is inherently insecure and requires a trusted environment.
B. Bridging depends heavily on broadcasts in order to establish connectivity
C. Bridging requires expensive routing equipment because of the extensive Layer 3 overhead.
D. Bridging architecture may allow IP address hijacking.
E. Bridging, because of its ATM WAN configuration, can require considerable effort during initial troubleshooting.
F. Bridging architecture can be complex to install and maintain.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Based on the above output, how many IKE policies were administratively defined?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
What two things will occur when r1 initiates a call to r2 and attempts to make a connection? (Choose two.)
A. Both routers will send a challenge.
B. Only r2 will send a challenge.
C. The r2 router will generate a hash value and send it to r1.
D. The PPP connection establishment will succeed.
E. The PPP connection establishment will fail.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Observe the exhibited output from a show isdn status command. Which statement is true?
A. There were five attempts to make calls.
B. Layer 1 is not operational
C. Layer 2 is operational.
D. The router is not exchanging frames with the ISDN switch.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which two of the following events will occur when the router command backup load 60 5 is used? (Choose two.)
A. The backup link activates when the primary link exceeds 60 percent of bandwidth
B. The backup link activates when the primary link exceeds 60 kbps.
C. The backup link deactivates when the primary link falls to 5 percent bandwidth.
D. The backup link deactivates when the combined load falls to 5 percent bandwidth.
E. The backup link deactivates when the combined load falls to 5 kbps.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from noise or other signals.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Which two commands are used to verify and troubleshoot a PPP session? (Choose two.)
A. show interfaces
B. show PPP
C. debug PPP negotiation
D. debug PPP session
E. debug ppp dialer
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which type of remote-user VPN has users dial in to an Internet service provider (ISP) where an ISP-owned device establishes a secure tunnel to the users’ enterprise network?
A. client initiated VPN
B. network access server (NAS) initiated VPN
C. intranet VPN
D. extranet VPN
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which of the following statements is correct based on the Cisco router output of the show isdn status command?
Router#show isdn status Global ISDN Switchtype=basic-ni ISDN BRI0 interface dsl 0, interface ISDN Switchtype=basic-ni Layer 1 Status: ACTIVE Layer 2 Status: TEI=73, Ces=2, SAPI=0, State=TEI_ASSIGNED TEI=74, Ces=1, SAPI=0, State=TEI_ASSIGNED Layer 3 Status : 0 Active Layer 3 Call(s)
A. Layer 1, 2, and 3 status is active.
B. TEI values assigned are not a valid numbers.
C. Layers 1 and 2 status is active but Layer 3 status indicates lost connectivity.
D. Layer 1 status is active but Layer 2 status indicates lost connectivity.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Based on the above configuration, which statement is true?
A. The backup interface will be used when traffic reaches 80 kbps on the primary interface
B. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 10%.
C. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 80 kbps.
D. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 10%.
E. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 80 kbps.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
When radius authentication is being configured on a router, which commands will allow a user to telnet successfully into the router?
Router(config)# radius-server host 192.168.1.23 Router(config)# radius-server key CISCO Router(config)# aaa new-model
A. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication AAA
B. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication CISCO
C. Router(config)# aaa authentication login default group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication AAA
D. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication default
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
Which two statements are true about the use of the backup load 65 10 command on a router? (Choose two.)
A. The secondary line will terminate when the load of the primary line drops to 10% of the bandwidth of the primary line.
B. The secondary line will terminate when the aggregate load of the primary and backup lines drops to 10% of the primary line bandwidth.
C. The secondary line will come up 10 seconds after traffic on the primary line reaches 65% of the bandwidth of the primary line
D. The secondary line will come up when the traffic on the primary line reaches 65% of the bandwidth of the primary line.
E. The backup interface will come up 65 seconds after the primary link goes down.
F. The secondary interface will terminate the connection 10 seconds after the primary link comes up.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the show frame-relay pvc output?
A. Traffic shaping is enabled.
B. The remote connection is not working correctly.
C. The local connection is not working correctly
D. LMIs are not being received
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which timer is reset to the maximum configured value every time an interesting packet is forwarded across the link?
A. wait for carrier timer
B. dialer idle timer
C. dialer enable timer
D. busy timer
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
lab question Please refer to Question 22, but take notice you wil use the same command in this questions, but some paramters like IP address will be different.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Given the partial IPSEC datagram, which provides both authentication and confidentiality, identify the header marked as 2.
A. AH header
B. ESP header
C. MPLS VPN header
D. SA header
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which traffic queuing method gives a low-volume traffic stream preferential service?
A. FIFO
B. Priority
C. Custom
D. Weighted Fair
E. Low Latency
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
What are two advantages to the use of RFC 1483 to encapsulate IP data over ATM? (Choose two.)
A. multiprotocol support
B. inherently more secure because of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
C. the CPE in bridge mode performs routing functions
D. ideal for single-user Internet access
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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