Month: July 2016
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QUESTION 67
You have a fully-loaded, top-end, NBX V3000 with full licensing. You discover the NBX V3000 internal disk drive is nearly full. Which three are ways the NBX administrator can manage the available disk space on an NBX V3000 system? (Choose three.)
A. Limit the number of NBX users
B. Limit the maximum length of any message
C. Use a network server to supplement the NBX V3000 internal disk drive
D. Limit the number of messages an individual user can have at any one time
E. Replace the NBX V3000 20Gb internal disk drive with a larger capacity disk
F. Have the system remove messages more quickly by reducing the message retention period
G. Increase the NBX V3000 disk drive “Free Space” setting which automatically removes the oldest voice messages when the Free Space threshold is exceeded
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 68
Which NBX system(s) supports software version R4.4?
A. NBX 100
B. NBX V3000
C. SuperStack 3 NBX
D. All NBX Systems
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
Which two NBX V3000 system components are field upgradeable or field replaceable? (Choose two.)
A. Disk drive
B. Power supply
C. Memory module
D. Analog port module
E. Analog Terminal Card
F. T1/E1 Digital Line module
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 70
Which four are NBX V3000 system R4.4 paging capabilities? (Choose four.)
A. Up to nine (9) paging zones can be created
B. Users can disable paging on their individual phones
C. Any device within a paging group can initiate a page
D. There is no limit on the number of users in a page zone
E. A device or extension can belong to only one paging zone
F. Must page all internal devices, all external devices or both
G. Page users through telephone speakers and/or external Public Address system
Correct Answer: ACDG
QUESTION 71
Which two are NBX system R4.3 paging capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Up to nine (9) paging zones can be created
B. Users can disable paging on their individual phones
C. There is no limit on the number of users in a page zone
D. Must page all internal devices, all external devices or both
E. Page users through telephone speakers and/or external Public Address system
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 72
All NBX Basic and Business Telephones can initiate and/or receive a page.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
Which three devices can initiate an NBX page but cannot receive a page? (Choose three.)
A. WAV device
B. NBX Basic telephone
C. NBX Digital Line Card
D. Polycom Speakerphone
E. NBX Analog Terminal Card
F. NBX Analog Terminal Adapter (ATA)
Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 74
How does an NBX telephone or pcXset user send a page?
A. Pick up handset and dial the page zone extension; caller speaks sending page to receivers terminate call
B. Pick up handset;press feature button;dail the page zone extension; caller speks sending page to receivers ;terminate call
C. Pick up handset; press feature button; dail the page zone extension; caller waits until LCD displays-“Paging ready”;caller speaks sending page to receivers; terminate call
D. Pickup the handset; press feature button and dial the page zone extension;caller waits until LCD displays-“paging ready”;caller speaks sending page to receivers; terminate call
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which four steps should the NBX administrator perform to set up a new Page Zone that includes an external broadcast over a public address (PA) system? (Choose four.)
A. Specify the MAC or IP address of PA system
B. Checkbox “Add External Page” to include PA system
C. Specify the Page Zone name and associated zone extension
D. Add new members by clicking on members in the “Member” list
E. Add new members to the page zone by typing in their extension or name
F. Select User Configuration / Page Zones / Add to create a new page zone
G. Select Device Configuration / Telephone Groups / Page Zones to create a new page zone.
Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 76
Which three steps should the NBX administrator perform to add new members to an existing Page Zone? (Choose three.)
A. Select user Configuration / Page Zones
B. Select the new members from the “Non-Members” list and click the “<<” button
C. Select User Configuration / Page Zones and add users
D. Select the existing Page Zone to be updated from the list of zones and choose “Modify”
E. Select User Configuration/page zone;enter the page name and extension;and click “Modify”
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 77
What is the function of the NBX Configurable Operator?
A. Allows the NBX administrator to setup system operators available to inbound callers who reach voice mail
B. Allows an NBX user to setup multiple Auto Attendant destinations so inbound callers can direct their call to a specific person in their department
C. Allows the NBX administrator and NBX users to setup a System and/or Personal Operator available to inbound callers who reach a user’s voice mail
D. Allows the NBX administrator to setup multiple Auto Attendant destinations so inbound callers can direct their call to a specific department in the company
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
What should the NBX administrator do to allow users to create their own Personal Operator?
A. Ensure that 3rd-party messaging is enabled
B. Using NetSet, select User Configuration / Class of Service and enable Personal Operator
C. Using NetSet, select NBX Messaging / Personal Operator and enable the Operator functions
D. Using NetSet, select User Configuration / Class of Service and enable System and Personal Operators
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 61
The 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless LAN Workgroup Bridge enables a laptop, PC or printer without built-in wireless capability to connect to a wireless LAN.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
Which three are concerns facing companies deploying Voice Wi-Fi (VoWi-Fi) network solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Low level of security
B. Multi-building campus environments
C. Roaming from access point (AP) to AP
D. Bandwidth capacity of access points (APs)
E. Quality of Service (QoS)
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 63
An advantage of using radio frequency (RF) signals for a Wireless LAN (WLAN) is that an RF signal can pass through any object without interference (i.e., walls, concrete, steel, etc.).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 64
Drag each 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point (AP) model to the set of features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 65
Match each 3Com OfficeConnect wireless product with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 66
Choose the three features supported by the 11g 54Mbps Wireless LAN Outdoor Building-to-Building Bridge. (Choose three.)
A. Wireless Distribution System (WDS) Bridging
B. Multiple antenna options
C. Weatherproof enclosure
D. Built-in 18dBi directional antenna
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 67
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 68
How can the network administrator set the IP address and administrator password on a 3Com Access Point?
A. Type the follow CLI commands “Set IPaddress <x.x.x.x>” and “Set user <name> password <p/w> admin”
B. Use the Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) IP command
C. Use the Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) configure command
D. Type the follow CLI command “Set user <name> password <p/w> admin”
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
Which procedure allows the network administrator to set up a Wireless LAN Access Point (AP) 8750 to support RADIUS Authentication?
A. Use the Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) to choose the AP from the list, click on the “RADIUS” hyperlink and configure the RADIUS settings
B. Use a web browser to navigate to the RADIUS Authentication server, click on “Configure new device,” choose the AP from the list and configure the RADIUS settings
C. Use the 3Com Web Configuration Management System to login to the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/ Switch, choose the AP from the list and configure the RADIUS settings
D. Use the 3Com Web Configuration Management System to login to the AP, click on the “RADIUS” hyperlink and configure the RADIUS settings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 70
Which best describes the features of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch WX1200?
A. Centrally manages/controls up to 24 Managed Access Points (MAPs), improving wireless roaming, security and management
B. Centrally manages/controls up to six Managed Access Points (MAPs), improving security and management
C. Centrally manages/controls up to 24 Managed Access Points (MAPs), improving security and management
D. Centrally manages/controls up to 12 Managed Access Points (MAPs), improving wireless roaming, security and management
E. Centrally manages/controls up to 12 Managed Access Points (MAPs), improving security and management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Which three are features of a Wireless Distribution System (WDS)? (Choose three.)
A. Operates only in Extended Service Set (ESS)
B. Makes a wireless network a Layer 3 network
C. Can bridge traffic between access points
D. Uses Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) to manage redundant wireless paths
E. Supported on the Wireless LAN Access Point 7250 and Wireless LAN Access Point 8xx0 family
F. Access points must be configured with unique Service Set ID (SSID)
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 72
Which parameters must be completed to set up a 3Com access point (AP) as a non-restrictive Virtual Access Point (VAP)?
A. VLAN ID and radio channels
B. Service Set ID (SSID) and Wi-Fi settings
C. Service Set ID (SSID) and VLAN ID
D. Bridging mode and radio channels
E. MAC address and Service Set ID (SSID)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 74
Which command in Windows XP would you use to begin the setup process for a wireless NIC?
A. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Configure
B. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Properties
C. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Install
D. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Load
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
Which best describes the purpose of the Wireless LAN Switch/Controller “quickstart” command?
A. It is the command that allows the administrator to perform basic system configuration,
B. e., IP address, date/time, etc.
C. It is the command that first deletes any configuration on the device, then allows the administrator to perform basic system configuration, i.e., IP address, date/time, etc.
D. It is the command that allows the administrator to perform advanced system configuration
E. It begins the configuration process that automatically assigns the IP address and configures the device for basic operations
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 76
Many access points (APs) are set up with a default configuration, known as “open system” or “open system authentication,” so any station can associate and connect.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 77
Which three are standards/limitations when you are creating a mobility domain on the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller (WX)? (Choose three.)
A. Can define only one seed WX per mobility domain
B. Each WX must have a system IP address
C. Each IP address on the WX must belong to the same subnet
D. Each VLAN must be locally configured on at least one WX
E. Mobility domains are limited to a single IP subnet or network
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 78
Which RF obstacle-planning functions are supported by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)?
A. Create objects that may absorb RF signals and assign each object an attenuation factor
B. Assign an attenuation factor to all objects from an imported GIF floor plan
C. Assign an attenuation factor to all objects from an imported JPEG floor plan
D. Remove unnecessary layers from imported JPEG floor plans
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which 3Com Web Configuration Management System Advanced Settings software screen allows the network administrator to configure the authentication, encryption and key management parameters for an access point (AP)?
A. Wi-Fi settings
B. WEP settings
C. Radio settings
D. Security settings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
What is required before the network administer can connect to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller via telnet?
A. Create a user/password on the device and set the console port authentication
B. Enable privilege mode, create a user/password on the device and set the console port authentication
C. Assign a master password to the device and set the console port authentication
D. Enable telnet services, create an admin user/password on the device and assign the device an IP address
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 81
What is the #1 concern for Wireless LAN (WLAN) enterprise customers?
A. Network bandwidth capacity
B. Wireless coverage
C. Management
D. Security
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
Which three are 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) network planning functions? (Choose three.)
A. Generate a work order
B. Define the RF model and the coverage areas for the floor
C. Define the connection speeds for wired devices on a floor
D. Launch countermeasures against rogue access points
E. Define the geographical area for the wireless network
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 83
Which 5 GHz IEEE 802.11 WLAN band is best suited for building-to-building wireless communications?
A. 5.0 – 5.1 GHz
B. 5.3 GHz
C. 5.7 – 5.8 GHz
D. 5.2 GHz
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
Which best describes the information provided with the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) work order?
A. Information for the physical installation of Managed Access Points (MAPs)
B. Information for the physical installation of Managed Access Points (MAPs), 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/Switch initial setup configuration information and projected RSSI information of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System
C. Information for the physical installation of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System
D. Information for the physical installation and software parameters, i.e., IP addresses, VLANs, channel assignments, etc., of Managed Access Points (MAPs)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
What is displayed by the 3Com Launcher/3Com Wireless LAN Manager if the antenna is retracted on a 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless PC Card with XJACK Antenna?
A. A picture with a green line connecting the PC and AP
B. A picture with a yellow line connecting the PC and AP
C. A picture with a red line connecting the PC and AP
D. A picture with multiple curved lines showing the single strength between the PC and AP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 86
Which three Wireless LAN Access Point 8750 parameters are set using the 3Com Web Configuration Management System “Advanced Setup Radio Setting” window? (Choose three.)
A. IP address and subnet mask
B. VLAN IDs
C. Maximum number of client associations
D. Device name and type
E. Administrator password
F. Service Set ID (SSID)
Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 87
What does the IEEE 802.11d standard specify?
A. Defines MAC-based Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism
B. Defines encryption using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. Defines the ability to fine tune Wireless LAN configuration at the Physical (PHY) Layer to comply with country-specific rules
D. Defines Inter Access Point Protocol (IAPP)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
Match each 3Com OfficeConnect wireless client product with its features.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 89
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) IP service with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 90
Which wireless building-to-building bridge distance-related parameter must be set to ensure each wireless bridge waits the appropriate period for a response from other wireless bridges?
A. Acknowledgement Delay Timeout (ACK)
B. Request to Send/Clear to Send (RTS/CTS)
C. Broadcast Service Set Identifier (SSID)
D. Basic Rate Set
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 60
Which three are features of Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing? (Choose three)
A. 15 maximum router hops
B. Uses a path cost routing metric
C. Updates routing tables when network topology changes occur
D. By default, peridoc updates are sent every 30 seconds between routers
E. Maximum hops are limited only by the size of the routing tables within routers
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 61
Which class of IP addresses is reserved for IP multicasting?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Any class of IP address may be used for IP multicasting
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
Which LAN technology provides both incremental bandwidth and redundancy between devices?
A. Resilient Links
B. Aggregated Links
C. IEEE 802.3 1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
E. IEEE 802.3 1W Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Your Maluti University (MU) data center design uses a single Switch 8814 to support the campus backbone, the server farm and the wiring-closet connections in Building 9. Which four current Switch 8800 features address Maluti Univerisity (MU) network requirements? (Choose four)
A. With no single point of failure, the switch creates a reliable, high-availablity solution
B. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
C. Support integrated Services (IntServ) and RSVP to provide flow-based, fine-grain control over network traffic.
D. With the load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric, the switch has a maximum aggregated throughput of more than 400 Mpps
E. Multiple priority features will ensure key applications receive the best network response, i.e; eight priority queues per port, Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) queuing and DiffServ support.
F. IEEE 802.1X network Login and Authentication, Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by establishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 64
Which 3Com solution would you recommend for the Maluti University (MU) data center in Building 9 to create the highly-redundant campus backbone connecting the four distribution buildings?
A. Option A -One Switch 7700 8-Slot Chassis Starter Kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) Eight 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CGBIC91)
B. Option B -One Switch 8810 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) Eight 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CGBIC92)
C. Option C -One Switch 8814 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) Eight 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) -One Switch 8800 360 Gbps Fabric Module (3C17508)
D. Option D -One Switch 8814 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) -Eight 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) -Two Switch 8800 360 Gbps Fabric Modules (3C17508)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65
If you recommended the 3Com Switch 8800 for Maluti University (MU) data center solution in Building 9, which Switch 8800 interface-module solution would you use to connect the Satellite Buildings to the data center switch?
A. One 24-port 10/100/1000BASE-T Module (3C17516)
B. Multiple 2-port 10 GBASE-X modules (3C17512) with 10GBASE-ER XENPAK transceivers
C. One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17513) with multiple 1000BASE-LH SFP Transceivers (3CSFP97)
D. One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17513) with multiple 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
You recommended a 1000BASE-X campus-backbone solution to Maluti University (MU) to connect the four distribution buildings to the data center MU is concerned that the 1000BASE-X campus backbone will not provide enough network bandwidth to support its combined data/voice network traffic. Which solution would you recommend to MU to alleviate this concern?
A. Use VLAN segmentation to reduce the traffic that traverses the campus backbone.
B. Distribute the 28 servers, currently located in Building 9 data center, throughout the network to reduce campus-backbone traffic.
C. Use the Switch 8800 in the data center and the Switch 4070 in the distribution centers with 10-Gig Ethernet connections between the switches
D. Use the Switch 8800 in the data center and the Switch 7700 in the distribution centers with 10-Gig Ethernet connections between the switches
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67
If you recommended the 3Com Switch 8800 for Maluti University (MU) data center solution in Building 9, which Switch 8800 interface-module solution would you use to connect the wiring-closet switches in Building 9 to the data center switch?
A. The 12-or 24-Port 1000BASE-X module
B. The 24-port 10/100/1000BASE-T Module (3C17516)
C. The 12- or 24-Port 1000BASE-X module with multiple 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers ( 3CSFP91)
D. The 12- or 24-port 1000BASE-X module with multiple 1000BASE-LHSFP Transceivers (3CSFP97)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Which solution would you recommend to the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) to support its wiring closet, end-user switch requirements?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 FX
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 SE with a 1000BASE-SX Module
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 24/48-Port with 1000BASE-T Module
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 24/48-Port with 1000BASE-SX Module
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
Which two 3Com solution would you recommend for the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) Building 9 data center to support both the campus/building backbone and the server farm with a single switch? (Choose two)
A. One Switch 4070
B. One Switch 7700 7-Slot Chassis
C. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis
D. One Switch 8807
E. One Switch 8810
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 70
Which three Switch 8800 features address the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center’s backbone-core requirements? (Choose three)
A. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
B. Load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric provides higher data throughput and increased network reliability
C. With four prioritization queues per port, the switch has the QoS support required for network telephony
D. Reliability features reduce network outages, i.e, hot-swappable I/O modules, power supplies fans, Switch Fabric and VRRP support.
E. Resilient Links used in combination with Link Aggregation creates hih-speed, redundant links from the data center to the four distribution buildings.
F. IEEE 802.1X network Login and Authentication, Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by establishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 71
If you chose either the 3Com Switch 8810 or Switch 8814 for Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center solution, which interface Modules would you use to connect the four distribution centers and the nine satellite buildings?
A. Option A -One 24-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17514) with -Four 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) to connect the distribution centers -Nine 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the satellite buildings
B. Option B -Two 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514) with -26 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the distribution centers and the satellite buildings
C. Option C -One 12-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17513) and One 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514) with -26 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the distribution centers and the satellite buildings
D. Option D -One 12-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17513) One 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514)with Eight 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) to connect the distribution centers -18 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the satellite buildings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which two 3 Com solutions would you recommend to Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) for each of the four distribution centers in Buildings 16,20,35 and 38, to connect them to the campus backbone? (Choose two)
A. Option A -Two Switch 4050 each with -One 1000BASE-SX GBIC
B. Option B -Two Switch 4060 each with -One 1000BASE-LX GBIC
C. Option C -One switch 7700 7-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Two 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CBIC91)
D. Option D -One switch 7700R 8-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Two 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CBIC92)
E. Option E -One switch 7700 R 8-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Four 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CBIC92)
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 73
Which three Switch 8800 features address the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center’s backbone-core requirements? (Choose three)
A. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
B. Load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric provides higher data throughput and increased network reliability
C. With four prioritization queues per port, the switch has the QoS support required for network telephony
D. Reliability features reduces network outages, i,e hot -swappable I/O modules, power supplies fans, Switch Fabric and VRRP support
E. Resilient Links used in combination with Link Aggreation creates high-speed, redundant links from the data center to the four distribution buildings
F. IEEE802.1Xnetwork Login and Authentication Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by eastablishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 74
Which two 3Com solutions would you recommend for the Da Silva Research Fundation (DRF) Building 9 data center to support both the campus/building backbone and the server farm with a single switch? (Choose two)
A. One Switch 4070
B. One Switch 7700 7-Slot Chassis
C. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis
D. One Switch 8807
E. One Switch 8810
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 75
Which solution would you recommend as the distribution-layer switch for each of the Bantry Bay four main buildings that connect to the data center and to the smaller buildings on campus?
A. Two Switch 4050
B. Two Switch 4060
C. Two SuperStack 3 Switch 4924
D. Two SuperStake 3 Switch 4950
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
If you choose two Switch 4060s for each of the Bantry Bay distribution layer buildings, which three would you recommend to the customer to provide maximum resiliency and throughput? (Choose three)
A. Redundant internal power supplies
B. Resilient Links to maximize backbone redundancy
C. SuperStack 3 Advanced Redundant Power System
D. XRN Interconnect Kit to connect the two distribution-layer switches
E. IEEE802.3 ad Link Aggregation to maximize backbone bandwidth and reliability
F. SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 1000BASE-T module to connect the two distribution-layer switches
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 77
If you choose the SuperStack 3 Switch 4924 to support the Bantry Bay server farm, which three customer benefits are attained from using an XRN interconnection Kit with the two SuperStack 3 Switch 4924 server-farm switches? (Choose three)
A. The Fabric Interconnect has an 8-Gbps (16-Gbps full duplex)switching limit
B. The two switches would share one IP address and be managed as a single entity
C. Any number of ports can join a Link Aggregation trunk with all ports active and transporting data
D. XRN Distributed Resilient Routing (DDR) uses a “Master Router” to perform all the routing across the Fabric.
E. XRN Distributed Resilient Routing (DDR) allows switches in the Fabric to act as a single logical router, which provides router resiliency in the event of a unit failure in the Fabric
F. XRN Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA) guarantees high levels of resiliency, because a failure in one of the member links results in automatic redistribution of traffic across the remaining links
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 78
If you reocommend a single Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis to create the hihly-resilient backbone, which three switch components would Bantry Bay require for the data center’s backbone-core switch? (Choose three)
A. One Switch 7700R Starter Kit (3C16852)
B. One Switch 7700 AC Power Supply (3C 16854)
C. Three Switch 7700 AC Power Supplies (3C 16854)
D. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Fan Assembly (3C 16855)
E. One Switch 7700R Gigabit Ethernet Redundant Switching Fabric (3C 16857R)
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 79
Which two 3Com solutions would you recommend for the Bantry Bay data center, backbone core? (Choose two)
A. Two Router 6040
B. One Router 6080
C. Two Switch 7700 4-Slot Chassis
D. Two switch 7700 7-s;ot chassis
E. One switch 7700R 8-slot Chassis
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 80
If you recommend a Switch 7700 for the data center backbone-core solution, which three modules/ interfaces would the customer require for each of the two data center backbone-core switches? (Choose three)
A. Eight 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CGBIC91)
B. Eight 1000BASE-LH70 GBICs (3CGBIC97)
C. One Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T module (3C16859)
D. One Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858)
E. Two Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T module (3C16859)
F. Two Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858)
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 81
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 82
Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 83
What is the maximum number of Link Aggregation load-balancing group supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Which two Switch Fabric Engine LED conditions indicate there is a problem with the Switch 7700? (Choose two)
A. ALMLED is off
B. ALMLED is blinking
C. RUN LED is solid green
D. RUN LED is blinking green
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 85
If you choose two Switch 4060s for each of the Bantry Bay distribution layer buildings, which three would you recommend to the customer to provide maximum resiliency and throughput? (Choose three)
A. Redundant internal power supplies
B. Resilient Links to maximize backbone redundancy
C. SuperStack 3 Advanced Redundant Power System
D. XRN Interconnect Kit to connect the two distribution-layer switches
E. IEEE802.3 ad Link Aggregation to maximize backbone bandwidth and reliability
F. SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 1000BASE-T module to connect the two distribution-layer switches
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 86
The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface
Module? (Choose three)
A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 88
Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three) A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or Switch 40×0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40×0 family that provides additional levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure
Correct Answer: BCD
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QUESTION 81
How does the button Get Address, found on the Host Node Object > General Properties page retrieve the address?
A. Route Table
B. Address resolution (ARP, RARP)
C. Name resolution (hosts file, DNS, cache)
D. SNMP Get
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 82
Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?
A. Network
B. Security Management object
C. Host
D. Security Gateway
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 83
Spoofing is a method of:
A. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.
B. Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.
C. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins.
D. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 84
How can you activate the SNMP daemon on a Check Point Security Management Server?
A. Using the command line, enter snmp_install.
B. Any of these options will work.
C. in SmartDashboard, right-click a Check Point object and select Activate SNMP.
D. From cpconfig, select SNMP extension.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 85
Which of the following describes the default behavior of an R76 Security Gateway?
A. Traffic is filtered using controlled port scanning.
B. IP protocol types listed as secure are allowed by default, i.e. ICMP, TCP, UDP sessions are inspected.
C. All traffic is expressly permitted via explicit rules.
D. Traffic not explicitly permitted is dropped. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 86
When you use the Global Properties’ default settings on R76, which type of traffic will be dropped if NO explicit rule allows the traffic?
A. Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange information
B. RIP traffic
C. Outgoing traffic originating from the Security Gateway
D. SmartUpdate connections
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
You have installed a R76 Security Gateway on GAiA. To manage the Gateway from the enterprise Security Management Server, you create a new Gateway object and Security Policy. When you install the new Policy from the Policy menu, the Gateway object does not appear in the Install Policy window as a target. What is the problem?
A. The new Gateway’s temporary license has expired.
B. The object was created with Node > Gateway.
C. The Gateway object is not specified in the first policy rule column Install On.
D. No Masters file is created for the new Gateway.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
Certificates for Security Gateways are created during a simple initialization from _____________.
A. The ICA management tool
B. SmartUpdate
C. sysconfig
D. SmartDashboard
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 89
Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?
A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset.
B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig and type a new activation key.
C. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.
D. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
You installed security management server in a computer using SecurePlatform in the Mega corp home
office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the security Gateway on a second secure platform
computer, which you plan to ship to an other administrator at a mega corp Hub office. What is in the
correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?
1) Run cpconfig on the gateway, set secure internal communication, enter the activation key and reconfirm.
2) Initialize internal certificate authority (ICA) on the security Management server.
3) Confirm the gateway object with the host name and IP address for the remote site.
4) Click the communication button in the gateway object’s general screen, enter the activation key, and
click initialize and ok.
5) Install the security policy.
A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
B. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
C. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
Although SIC was already established and running, Joe reset SIC between the Security Management Server and a remote Gateway. He set a new activation key on the Gateway’s side with the command cpconfig and put in the same activation key in the Gateway’s object on the Security Management Server. Unfortunately, SIC cannot be established. What is a possible reason for the problem?
A. Joe forgot to exit from cpconfig.
B. The installed policy blocks the communication.
C. The old Gateway object should have been deleted and recreated.
D. Joe forgot to reboot the Gateway.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
You want to reset SIC between smberlin and sgosaka.
In SmartDashboard, you choose sgosaka, Communication, Reset. On sgosaka, you start cpconfig, choose Secure Internal Communication and enter the new SIC Activation Key. The screen reads The SIC was successfully initialized and jumps back to the cpconfig menu. When trying to establish a connection, instead of a working connection, you receive this error message: What is the reason for this behavior?
A. The Gateway was not rebooted, which is necessary to change the SIC key.
B. The Check Point services on the Gateway were not restarted because you are still in the cpconfig utility.
C. You must first initialize the Gateway object in SmartDashboard (i.e., right-click on the object, choose Basic Setup > Initialize).
D. The activation key contains letters that are on different keys on localized keyboards. Therefore, the activation can not be typed in a matching fashion.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
John is the Security Administrator in his company. He installs a new R76 Security Management Server and a new R76 Gateway. He now wants to establish SIC between them. After entering the activation key, he gets the following message in SmartDashboard –
“Trust established”
SIC still does not seem to work because the policy won’t install and interface fetching does not work. What might be a reason for this?
A. It always works when the trust is established
B. This must be a human error.
C. SIC does not function over the network.
D. The Gateway’s time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 94
The SIC certificate is stored in the directory _______________.
A. $CPDIR/conf
B. $FWDIR/database
C. $CPDIR/registry
D. $FWDIR/conf
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
You run cpconfig to reset SIC on the Security Gateway. After the SIC reset operation is complete, the policy that will be installed is the:
A. Default filter.
B. Last policy that was installed.
C. Standard policy.
D. Initial policy.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 96
Chris has lost SIC communication with his Security Gateway and he needs to re-establish SIC.
What would be the correct order of steps needed to perform this task?
A. 3, 1, 4, 2
B. 2, 3, 1, 4
C. 5, 1, 2, 4
D. 5, 1, 4, 2
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 97
Which rule position in the Rule Base should hold the Cleanup Rule? Why?
A. Last. It explicitly drops otherwise accepted traffic.
B. First. It explicitly accepts otherwise dropped traffic.
C. Last. It serves a logging function before the implicit drop.
D. Before last followed by the Stealth Rule.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 98
The ____________ and ____________ Rules are the two basic rules which should be used by all Security Administrators?
A. Cleanup; Stealth
B. Administrator Access; Stealth
C. Cleanup; Administrator Access
D. Network Traffic; Stealth
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 99
Which item below in a Security Policy would be enforced first?
A. Network Address Translation
B. Security Policy First rule
C. Administrator-defined Rule Base
D. IP spoofing / IP options
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 100
When you hide a rule in a Rule Base, how can you then disable the rule?
A. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and uncheck Hide, then right-click and select Disable Rule(s); re-hide the rule.
B. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and select Disable Rule(s).
C. Use the search utility in SmartDashboard to view all hidden rules. Select the relevant rule and click Disable Rule(s).
D. Hidden rules are already effectively disabled from Security Gateway enforcement.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 101
A Cleanup rule.
A. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be dropped and logged by default.
B. logs connections that would otherwise be accepted without logging by default.
C. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be accepted and logged by default.
D. logs connections that would otherwise be dropped without logging by default.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
Which statement is TRUE about implicit rules?
A. You create them in SmartDashboard.
B. The Gateway enforces implicit rules that enable outgoing packets only.
C. Changes to the Security Gateway’s default settings do not affect implicit rules.
D. They are derived from Global Properties and explicit object properties.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
You have included the Cleanup Rule in your Rule Base. Where in the Rule Base should the Accept ICMP Requests implied rule have no effect?
A. After Stealth Rule
B. First
C. Before Last
D. Last
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 104
All of the following are Security Gateway control connections defined by default implied rules, EXCEPT:
A. Exclusion of specific services for reporting purposes.
B. Specific traffic that facilitates functionality, such as logging, management, and key exchange.
C. Acceptance of IKE and RDP traffic for communication and encryption purposes.
D. Communication with server types, such as RADIUS, CVP, UFP, TACACS, and LDAP.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 105
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed all default check boxes from the Policy > Global Properties > Firewall tab. In order for the Security Gateway to send logs to the Security Management Server, an explicit rule must be created to allow the Security Gateway to communicate to the Security Management Server on port ______.
A. 257
B. 256
C. 259
D. 900
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 51
How can you view cpinfo on a SecurePlatform machine?
A. tcpdump
B. snoop i
C. infotab
D. Text editor, such as vi
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
How is wear on the flash storage device mitigated on appliance diskless platforms?
A. A RAM drive reduces the swap file thrashing which causes fast wear on the device.
B. The external PCMCIA-based flash extension has the swap file mapped to it, allowing easy replacement.
C. Issue FW-1 bases its package structure on the Security Management Server, dynamically loading when the firewall is booted.
D. PRAM flash devices are used, eliminating the longevity.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
In previous versions, the full TCP three-way handshake was sent to the firewall kernel for inspection. How is this improved in the current version of IPSO Flows/SecureXL?
A. Only the initial SYN packet is inspected. The rest are handled by IPSO.
B. Packets are offloaded to a third-party hardware card for near-line inspection.
C. Packets are virtualized to a RAM drive-based FW VM.
D. Resources are proactively assigned using predictive algorithmic techniques.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Certificates. SIC Certificates:
A. Increase network security by securing administrative communication with a two-factor challenge response authentication.
B. Uniquely identify machines installed with Check Point software only. They have the same function as RSA Authentication Certificates.
C. Are for Security Gateways created during the Security Management Server installation.
D. Can be used for securing internal network communications between the Security Gateway and an OPSEC device.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 55
Which of the following statements regarding SecureXL and CoreXL is TRUE?
A. SecureXL is an application for accelerating connections.
B. CoreXL enables multi-core processing for program interfaces.
C. SecureXL is only available in R75.
D. CoreXL is included in SecureXL.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
Beginning with R75, Software Blades were introduced. One of the Software Blades is the IPS Software Blade as a replacement for SmartDefense. When buying or upgrading to a bundle, some blades are included, e.g. FW, VPN, IPS in SG103. Which statement is NOT true?
A. The license price includes IPS Updates for the first year.
B. The IPS Software Blade can be used for an unlimited time.
C. There is no need to renew the service contract after one year.
D. After one year, it is mandatory to renew the service contract for the IPS Software Blade because it has been bundled with the license when purchased.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 57
John is the Security Administrator in his company. He needs to maintain the highest level of security on the firewalls he manages. He is using Check Point R75. Does he need the IPS Software Blade for achieving this goal?
A. No, all IPS protections are active, but can’t be uploaded without the license like SmartDefense.
B. Yes, otherwise no protections can be enabled.
C. Yes, otherwise the firewall will pass all traffic unfiltered and unchecked.
D. No, the Gateway will always be protected and the IPS checks can’t be managed without a license.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 58
Which command allows you to view the contents of an R75 table?
A. fw tab -x <tablename>
B. fw tab -a <tablename>
C. fw tab -s <tablename>
D. fw tab -t <tablename>
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 59
Your R75 enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows 2003 Server. You decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to try keeping the critical Security Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security Policies, databases, SIC, licensing etc.) What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep its critical configuration?
A. 1) Run the latest upgrade_export utility to export the configuration 2) Leave the exported – tgz file in %FWDIR\bin. 3) Install the primary security Management Server on top of the current installation 4) Run upgrade_import to Import the configuration.
B. 1) Insert the R75 CD-ROM. and select the option to export the configuration into a . tgz file 2) Skip any upgrade verification warnings since you are not upgrading. 3) Transfer the. tgz file to another networked machine. 4) Download and run the cpclean utility and reboot. 5) Use the R75 CD_ROM to select the upgrade__import option to import the c
C. 1) Download the latest upgrade_export utility and run it from a \ temp directory to export the Configuration. 2) Perform any requested upgrade verification suggested steps. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 33 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam 3) Uninstall all R75 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot 4) Use smartUpdate to reinstall the Security Management server and reboot 5) Transfer the .tgz file back to the local \ temp. 6) Run upgrade_import to import the configuration.
D. 1) Download the latest upgrade_export utility and run it from a \ temp directory to export the Configuration. 2) Transferee .tgz file to another network machine 3) Uninstall all R75 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot 4) Install again using the R75 CD ROM as a primary security management server 5) Reboot and than transfer the .tgz file back to the local\ tem p 6) Run upgcade_import to import the configuration.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
You need to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration information from your R75 SecurePlatform Security Gateway. Which backup-and-restore solution do you use?
A. SecurePlatform backup utilities
B. upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands
C. Database Revision Control
D. Manual copies of the $FWDIR/conf directory
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Your R75 primary Security Management Server is installed on SecurePlatform. You plan to schedule the Security Management Server to run fw logswitch automatically every 48 hours.
How do you create this schedule?
A. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the primary Security Management Server object’s Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.
B. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the Security Gateway object’s Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.
C. Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Select that time object’s Global Properties > Logs and Masters window, to schedule a logswitch.
D. On a SecurePlatform Security Management Server, this can only be accomplished by configuring the fw logswitch command via the cron utility.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Which of the following commands can provide the most complete restoration of an R75 configuration?
A. Cpconfig
B. Upgrade_import
C. fwm dbimport -p
D. cpinfo -recover
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 63
When restoring R75 using the command upgrade > Port. Which of the following items is NOT restored?
A. Licenses
B. Global properties
C. SIC Certificates
D. Route tables
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 64
Your company is running Security Management Server R75 on SecurePlatform, which has been migrated through each version starting from Check Point 4.1. How do you add a new administrator account?
A. Using SmartDashboard, under Users, select Add New Administrator
B. Using the Web console on SecurePlatform under Product configuration, select Administrators
C. Using SmartDashboard or cpconf ig
D. Using cpconftg on the Security Management Server, choose Administrators
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R75 configuration report?
A. ethereal
B. cpinfo
C. licview
D. infoview
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 66
What information is provided from the options in this screenshot?
(i)Whether a SIC certificate was generated for the Gateway
(ii)Whether the operating system is SecurePlatform or SecurePlatform Pro
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 38 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam (iii)Whether this is a standalone or distributed installation
A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (i) and (ii)
D. (ii) and (iii)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67
Peter is your new Security Administrator. On his first working day, he is very nervous and sets the wrong password three times. His account is locked. What can be done to unlock Peter’s account? Give the BEST answer.
A. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Gateway.
B. It is not possible to unlock Peter’s account. You have to install the firewall once again or abstain from Peter’s help.
C. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm lock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server.
D. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Which CLI command verifies the number of cores on your firewall machine?
A. fw ctl pstat
B. fw ctl core stat
C. fw ctl multik stat
D. cpstat fw -f core
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
John currently administers a network using single CPU single core servers for the Security Gateways and is running R75. His company is now going to implement VOIP and needs more performance on the Gateways. He is now adding more memory to the systems and also upgrades the CPU to a modern quad core CPU in the server. He wants to use CoreXL technology to benefit from the new performance benchmarks of this technology. How can he achieve this?
A. Nothing needs to be done. SecurePlatform recognized the change during reboot and adjusted all the settings automatically.
B. He just needs to go to cpconfig on the CLI and enable CoreXL. Only a restart of the firewall is required to benefit from CoreXL technology.
C. He needs to reinstall the Gateways because during the initial installation, it was a single-core CPU but the wrong Linux kernel was installed. There is no other upgrade path available.
D. He just needs to go to cpconfig on the CLI and enable CoreXL. After the required reboot he will benefit from the new technology.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 70
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam You are running a R75 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform. In case of a hardware failure, you have a server with the exact same hardware and firewall version installed. What backup method could be used to quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A. upgrade_export
B. manual backup
C. snapshot
D. backup
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
Before upgrading SecurePlatform, you should create a backup. To save time, many administrators use the command backup. This creates a backup of the Check Point configuration as well as the system configuration.
An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problem after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex static routing configuration. The Check Point configuration has not been changed. Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing?
A. The restore can be done easily by the command restore and selecting the appropriate backup file.
B. A backup cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.
C. The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version).
D. The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the boot menu of SecurePlatform.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R65 to R75. Prior to upgrading, you want to backup the Gateway should there be any problems with the upgrade. Which of the following allows for the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time?
A. Backup
B. Snapshot
C. Upgrade_export
D. Database_revision
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
Your network is experiencing connectivity problems and you want to verify if routing problems are present. You need to disable the firewall process but still allow routing to pass through the Gateway running on an IP Appliance running IPSO. What command do you need to run after stopping the firewall service?
A. fw fwd routing
B. ipsofwd on admin
C. fw load routed
D. ipsofwd slowpath
Correct Answer: B
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