Month: July 2016
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QUESTION 90 If a helpdesk user is logged in to webRH and you decide to remove his account, when will the user be notified?
A. Immediately, since he will be thrown off the system when his account is removed
B. When his session times out and he tries to re-authenticate
C. When he reboots his machine
D. Never, it is not possible to remove accounts from webRH
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91 What are the names of the Pointsec processes and services that run on a workstation after Pointsec has been installed?
A. Pointsec.exe, psadmin.exe and decrypt.exe
B. Prot_srv.exe, p95tray.exe and pstartsr.exe
C. Pssogina.exe, pointsec.exe and p95tray.exe
D. Decrypt.exe, protect.exe and pssogina.exe, pagents.exe
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
How many authorized users must log in to uninstall Pointsec for PC?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
What does Removable Media Manager do?
A. Manages what media can be exported to Removable Media
B. Automatically formats and encrypts devices
C. Automatically scans and digitally signs devices
D. Creates a black / white list of what devices can be used on the network
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 94
Which application can you run to configure webRH settings post installation?
A. webRHconfig.exe
B. addtoken.exe
C. admin.exe
D. none of the above
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 110
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are IPv6 BGP peers that have been configured to support a neighbor relationship over an IPv4 internetwork. Which three neighbor IP addresses are valid choices to use in the highlighted section of the exhibit? (Choose three.)
A. ::0A43:0002
B. 0A43:0002::
C. ::10.67.0.2
D. 10.67.0.2::
E. 0:0:0:0:0:0:10.67.0.2
F. 10.67.0.2:0:0:0:0:0:0
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Refer to the exhibit. BGP has been configured on the routers in the network.
However, the IBGP peers in autonomous system 65200 have not converged. In addition, this console
message was generated on router R2:
*Mar 1 03:09:07.729: %TCP-6-BADAUTH No MD5 digest from 10.10.23.2(179) to 10.10.23.3(11002)
On the basis of the information that is provided, what is the cause of the problem?
A. BGP authentication can be used on eBGP peers only.
B. The password that is used for BGP authentication on both BGP peers in autonomous system 65200 must be the same.
C. BGP authentication can be used on iBGP peers when the connection is configured between the loopback interfaces.
D. OSPF must be configured with the same MD5 authentication.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit diagram and configuration. RTB is summarizing its networks from AS 64100 with the aggregate-address command. However, the show ip route command on RTA reveals the RTB individual networks as well as its summary route. Which option would ensure that only the summary route would appear in the routing table of RTA?
A. Delete the four network statements and leave only the aggregate-address statement in the BGP configuration.
B. Add the keyword summary-only to the aggregate-address command.
C. Add a static route with a prefix of 192.168.24.0 255.255.252.0 pointing to the null0 interface.
D. Create a route map permitting only the summary address.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Router RTA is configured as follows:
RTA (config)#router rip RTA(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 RTA(config-router)#distribute-list 44 in interface BRI0 RTA(config-router)#exit RTA(config)#access-list 44 deny 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 RTA(config)#access-list 44 permit any
What are the effects of this RIP configuration on router RTA? (Choose two.)
A. no routing updates will be sent from router RTA on interface BRI0 to router RTX
B. router RTA will not advertise the 10.0.0.0 network to router RTX
C. the route to network 172.16.1.0 will not be entered into the routing table on router RTA
D. user traffic from the 172.16.1.0 network is denied by access-list 44
E. the routing table on router RTA will be updated with the route to router RTW
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
During the redistribution process configured on RTA, some of the EIGRP routes, such as 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.2.2.0/24, are not being redistributed into the OSPF routing domain.
Which two items could be a solution to this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Change the metric-type to 2 in the redistribute command.
B. Configure the redistribute command under router eigrp 1 instead.
C. Change the EIGRP AS number from 100 to 1 in the redistribute command.
D. Add the subnets option to the redistribute command.
E. Change the metric to an EIGRP compatible metric value (bandwidth, delay, reliability, load, MTUs) in the redistribute command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Which IS-IS router is equivalent to an ABR in OSPF?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 2
D. Level 3
E. Level 1-2
F. Level 2-3
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task?
A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Hotspot
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Refer to the exhibit. Given the exhibited router output, which command sequence can be added to R1 to generate a default route into the OSPF domain?
A. default-router
B. ip default-network
C. default-information originate always
D. ip default-gateway
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. During the process of configuring a virtual link to connect area 2 with the backbone area, the network administrator received this console message on R3:
*Mar 1 00:25:01.084: %OSPF-4-ERRRCV: Received invalid packet: mismatch area ID, from backbone area must be virtual link but not found from 20.20.20.1, Serial 0
How should the virtual link be configured on the OSPF routers to establish full connectivity between the areas?
A. R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 30.30.30.3 R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 20.20.20.1
B. R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 20.20.20.2 R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 30.30.30.2
C. R1(config-router)# area 0 virtual-link 1.1.1.1 R3(config-router)# area 2 virtual-link 3.3.3.3
D. R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 3.3.3.3 R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 1.1.1.1
E. R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 2.2.2.2 R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 2.2.2.2
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
LAB
A. Portland# conf t Portland(config)# router ospf 1 Portland(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Portland(config-router)# area 1 stub Portland(config-router)# end Portland# copy run start Indianapolis# conf t Indianapolis(config)# router ospf 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary Indianapolis(config-router)# end Indianapolis# copy run start
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
The command bgp always-compare-med is added to a router configuration.
What will this command accomplish?
A. forces the router to compare metrics of routes from different autonomous systems
B. forces the router to compare the local preference of routes from different autonomous systems
C. forces the router to compare the weight of routes from different autonomous systems
D. forces the router to compare the communities of routes from different autonomous systems
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
An administrator is redistributing OSPF into RIP. RIP is routing the 128.103.36.0/24 network. OSPF is routing the 128.103.35.32/28 network. Users in the RIP domain cannot reach devices in the OSPF domain. Which two tasks must be done to enable RIP to advertise the routes learned from OSPF into the RIP domain? (Choose two.)
A. Add a static route that points to the RIP domain address space with a /24 network mask and a next hop of 128.103.36.2.
B. Add a static route that points to the OSPF domain address space with a /24 network mask with a next hop of null0.
C. Tune the OSPF default metrics to allow seamless redistribution into RIP.
D. Redistribute configured static routes into RIP.
E. Use a route map statement inserted into a distribute list to control routing updates.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
Which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A. L1 IS
B. L1 ES
C. L2 IS
D. L2 ES
E. L1/L2 IS
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. All routers have Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled interfaces. On the basis of the configuration provided on routers R1 and R2, which router will take on the function of rendezvous point (RP) for the multicast network?
A. router R1
B. router R2
C. both routers R1 and R2
D. none of the routers since they are not configured with static RP
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is shown? (Choose two.)
A. The first DHCP client to connect to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface will receive the IP address 10.0.0.6.
B. The first DHCP client to connect to the FastEthernet 0/1 interface will receive the IP address 10.10.0.1.
C. The first DHCP client to connect to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface will receive the IP address 10.0.0.1
D. Hosts connected to the FastEthernet0/1 interface will not receive DHCP replies from the router.
E. DHCP requests received on the FastEthernet 0/1 interface will be forwarded to 10.0.0.2.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task?
A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
Hotspot
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is enabled on all routers on the network. What additional configuration is required for the routers connected over the Frame Relay multipoint interfaces to compensate for a low-speed NBMA connection?
A. Configure the EIGRP hello interval on all Frame Relay interfaces to 5 seconds.
B. Configure the EIGRP hello interval on all Frame Relay interfaces to 60 seconds.
C. Configure the EIGRP hold time on all Frame Relay interfaces to 15 seconds.
D. Configure the EIGRP hold time on all Frame Relay interfaces to 180 seconds.
E. Configure the bandwidth on all EIGRP Frame Relay interfaces to the committed information rate (CIR).
F. Configure the bandwidth on all EIGRP Frame Relay interfaces to the lowest CIR multiplied by the number of PVCs for the multipoint connection.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Which show command will display the two values used in the calculation of the EIGRP metric?
A. show protocol
B. show ip eigrp interface
C. show interface
D. show ip eigrp neighbor
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast configuration changes have been made on several routers. However, the IP multicast table displayed in the exhibit still does not reflect the changes.
What should be done to display the new routing table information?
A. Issue the no ip mroute-cache privileged EXEC command.
B. Issue the clear ip igmp group privileged EXEC command.
C. Issue the clear ip mroute privileged EXEC command.
D. Issue the clear ip route * privileged EXEC command.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible successors? (Choose three.)
A. A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a non-successor route to the feasible distance of the best route.
B. If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of best route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
C. If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately without recalculating for a lost route.
D. The feasible successor can be found in the routing table.
E. Traffic will be load balanced between feasible successors with the same advertised distance.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 133
What are three kinds of OSPF areas? (Choose three.)
A. stub
B. active
C. remote
D. backbone
E. ordinary or standard
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Based on the show ip bgp summary output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The BGP session to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor is established.
B. The BGP session to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor is established.
C. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established.
D. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
E. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established, but the router has not received any BGP routing updates from the 10.3.3.3 neighbor.
F. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.2.2.2 neighbor.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 101
Which three statements are correct about the differences in IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. IS-IS LSP contains TLV fields and OSPF LSU contains the LSAs.
B. New additions to the protocol are easily implemented in OSPF but not with IS-IS.
C. For greater fine tuning there are more IS-IS timers.
D. OSPF has more area types than does IS-IS.
E. IS-IS is more CPU-intensive than is OSPF.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 102
What is the purpose of the eigrp stub configuration command?
A. to increase scalability by limiting the EIGRP query range
B. to reduce the size of the routing table by blocking the D EX (External EIGRP) routes into the EIGRP stub router
C. to reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to propagate the EIGRP queries from the EIGRP hub router
D. to reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to also perform query requests to the EIGRP hub router
Correct Answer: A Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Which configuration commands will enable RTA to advertise all local interfaces over OSPF?
A. RTA(config)# router ospf 1RTA(config-router)# default-information originate
B. RTA(config)# router ospf 1RTA(config-router)# network 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255
C. RTA(config)# router ospf 1RTA(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0
D. RTA(config)# router ospf 1RTA(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
E. RTA(config)# router ospf 1RTA(config-router)# redistribute static
F. RTA(config)# router ospf 1RTA(config-router)# redistribute connected
Correct Answer: F Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Which command lists the system IDs of all known IS-IS routers?
A. show clns neighbors
B. show isis database
C. show isis topology
D. show clns neighbors detail
E. show is-is neighbors detail
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The eigrp stub command prevents queries from being sent from R2 to R1.
B. The eigrp stub command will automatically enable summarization of routes on R2.
C. The eigrp stub command prevents all routes except a default route from being advertised to R1.
D. Router R1 will advertise connected and summary routes only.
E. Router R1 will advertise connected and static routes. The sending of summary routes will not be permitted.
F. Router R1 is configured as a receive-only neighbor and will not send any connected, static, or summary routes.
Correct Answer: AD Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
A network administrator would like to configure an EIGRP router as a stub router that advertises directly connected and summary routes only. What command must the administrator issue to accomplish this?
A. eigrp stub
B. eigrp stub connected
C. eigrp stub summary
D. eigrp stub connected static
E. eigrp stub receive-only
Correct Answer: A Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Refer to the exhibit diagram and configuration. RTB is summarizing its networks from AS 64100 with the aggregate-address command. However, the show ip route command on RTA reveals the RTB individual networks as well as its summary route. Which option would ensure that only the summary route would appear in the routing table of RTA?
A. Delete the four network statements and leave only the aggregate-address statement in the BGP configuration.
B. Add the keyword summary-only to the aggregate-address command.
C. Add a static route with a prefix of 192.168.24.0 255.255.252.0 pointing to the null0 interface.
D. Create a route map permitting only the summary address.
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 109
Which type of IGMP message is sent when a network client wants to join a multicast group?
A. host membership query
B. host membership report
C. host membership status
D. host membership notification
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
When an IPv6 enabled host boots, it sends a router solicitation (RS) message. An IPv6 router responds with a router advertisement (RA). Which two items are contained in the RA? (Choose two.)
A. IPv6 address for the host
B. lifetime of the prefix
C. prefixes for the link
D. keepalive timers
E. request for the local host IP address
F. any route advertisements it has received
Correct Answer: BC Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Which statement is true concerning 6to4 tunneling?
A. IPv4 traffic is encapsulated with an IPv6 header.
B. The edge routers can use any locally configured IPv6 address.
C. Hosts and routers inside a 6to4 site will need a special code.
D. An edge router must use IPv6 address of 2002::/16 in its prefix.
Correct Answer: D Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Observe the exhibit. If the command variance 3 were added to RTE, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic to network X?
A. E-B-A
B. E-B-A and E-C-A
C. E-C-A and E-D-A
D. E-B-A, E-C-A and E-D-A
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Refer to the exhibit. What happens when the router stops receiving advertisements for the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
A. The summary route will be removed from the table.
B. The summary route will remain in the table.
C. The more specific routes will be advertised from the table.
D. 10.1.2.0/24 will still be advertised but packets destined for it will be dropped when they reach this router.
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Questions
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which statement is true about EBGP?
A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.
B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. EBGP requires a full mesh.
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the distribute-list command in the R1 configuration?
A. R1 will filter only the 172.24.1.0/24 route from the R2 RIP updates.
B. R1 will permit only the 10.0.0.0/24 route in the R2 RIP updates.
C. R1 will filter the 10.1.0.0/24 and the 172.24.1.0/24 routes from the R2 RIP updates.
D. R1 will not filter any routes because there is no exact prefix match.
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
Based on the information in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. RTC will be able to access the 10.0.0.0 network.
B. RTC will not have the 10.0.0.0 network in its routing table.
C. RTC will not have the 192.168.10.0 network in its routing table.
D. RTB will not have the 10.0.0.0 network in its routing table.
E. RTB and RTC will not have the 10.0.0.0 network in their routing tables.
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 87
Which two configurations are required on the Cisco ASAs so that the return traffic from the
10.10.10.100 outside server back to the 10.20.10.100 inside client can be rerouted from the Active Ctx B context in ASA Two to the Active Ctx A context in ASA One? (Choose two.)
A. stateful active/active failover
B. dynamic routing (EIGRP or OSPF or RIP)
C. ASR-group
D. no NAT-control
E. policy-based routing
F. TCP/UDP connections replication
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which two statements about the class maps are true? (Choose two.)
A. These class maps are referenced within the global policy by default for HTTP inspection.
B. These class maps are all type inspect http class maps.
C. These class maps classify traffic using regular expressions.
D. These class maps are Layer 3/4 class maps.
E. These class maps are used within the inspection_default class map for matching the default inspection traffic.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which three Cisco ASA configuration commands are used to enable the Cisco ASA to log only the debug output to syslog? (Choose three.)
A. logging list test message 711001
B. logging debug-trace
C. logging trap debugging
D. logging message 711001 level 7
E. logging trap test
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Which five options are valid logging destinations for the Cisco ASA? (Choose five.)
A. AAA server
B. Cisco ASDM
C. buffer
D. SNMP traps
E. LDAP server
F. email
G. TCP-based secure syslog server
Correct Answer: BCDFG Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
When configuring security contexts on the Cisco ASA, which three resource class limits can be set using a rate limit? (Choose three.)
A. address translation rate
B. Cisco ASDM session rate
C. connections rate
D. MAC-address learning rate (when in transparent mode)
E. syslog messages rate
F. stateful packet inspections rate
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which two statements about Cisco ASA redundant interface configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. Each redundant interface can have up to four physical interfaces as its member.
B. When the standby interface becomes active, the Cisco ASA sends gratuitous ARP out on the standby interface.
C. Interface duplex and speed configurations are configured under the redundant interface.
D. Redundant interfaces use MAC address-based load balancing to load share traffic across multiple physical interfaces.
E. Each Cisco ASA supports up to eight redundant interfaces.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
The Cisco ASA must support dynamic routing and terminating VPN traffic. Which three Cisco ASA options will not support these requirements? (Choose three.)
A. transparent mode
B. multiple context mode
C. active/standby failover mode
D. active/active failover mode
E. routed mode
F. no NAT-control
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which two functions will the Set ASDM Defined User Roles perform? (Choose two.)
A. enables role based privilege levels to most Cisco ASA commands
B. enables the Cisco ASDM user to assign privilege levels manually to individual commands or groups of commands
C. enables command authorization with a remote TACACS+ server
D. enables three predefined user account privileges (Admin=Priv 15, Read Only=Priv 5, Monitor Only=Priv 3)
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
Which two statements about Cisco ASA failover troubleshooting are true? (Choose two.)
A. With active/active failover, failover link troubleshooting should be done in the system execution space.
B. With active/active failover, ASR groups must be enabled.
C. With active/active failover, user data passing interfaces troubleshooting should be done within the context execution space.
D. The failed interface threshold is set to 1. Using the show monitor-interfacecommand, if one of the monitored interfaces on both the primary and secondary Cisco ASA appliances is in the unknown state, a failover should occur.
E. Syslog level 1 messages will be generated on the standby unit only if the logging standbycommand is used.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
When troubleshooting a Cisco ASA that is operating in multiple context mode, which two verification steps should be performed if a user context does not pass user traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Verify the interface status in the system execution space.
B. Verify the mac-address-table on the Cisco ASA.
C. Verify that unique MAC addresses are configured if the contexts are using nonshared interfaces.
D. Verify the interface status in the user context.
E. Verify the resource classes configuration by accessing the admin context.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
On Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3 and later, which two sets of CLI configuration commands result from this Cisco ASDM configuration? (Choose two.)
A. nat (inside) 1 10.1.1.10 global (outside) 1 192.168.1.1
B. nat (outside) 1 192.168.1.1 global (inside 1 10.1.1.10
C. static(inside,outside) 192.168.1.1 10.1.1.10 netmask 255.255.255.255 tcp 0 0 udp 0
D. static(inside,outside) tcp 192.168.1.1 80 10.1.1.10 80
E. object network 192.168.1.1 nat (inside,outside) static 10.1.1.10
F. object network 10.1.1.10 nat (inside,outside) static 192.168.1.1
G. access-list outside_access_in line 1 extended permit tcp any object 10.1.1.10 eq http access-group outside_access_in in interface outside
H. access-list outside_access_in line 1 extended permit tcp any object 192.168.1.1 eq http access-group outside_access_in in interface outside
Correct Answer: FG Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
On the Cisco ASA Software Version 8.4.1, which three parameters can be configured using the set connection command within a policy map? (Choose three.)
A. per-client TCP and/or UDP idle timeout
B. per-client TCP and/or UDP maximum session time
C. TCP sequence number randomization
D. maximum number of simultaneous embryonic connections
E. maximum number of simultaneous TCP and/or UDP connections
F. fragments reassembly options
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
On Cisco ASA Software Version 8.4.1, which four inspections are enabled by default in the global policy? (Choose four.)
A. HTTP
B. ESMTP
C. SKINNY
D. ICMP
E. TFTP
F. SIP
Correct Answer: BCEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Which two statements about traffic shaping capability on the Cisco ASA appliance are true? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic shaping can be applied to all outgoing traffic on a physical interface or, in the case of the Cisco ASA 5505 appliance, on a VLAN.
B. Traffic shaping can be applied in the input or output direction.
C. Traffic shaping can cause jitter and delay.
D. You can configure traffic shaping and priority queuing on the same interface.
E. With traffic shaping, when traffic exceeds the maximum rate, the security appliance drops the excess traffic.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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1.1 Current Citrix Environment
Soler Healthcare does not have an existing Citnx Infrastructure. Soler Healthcare is interested in desktop virtualization. A desktop virtualization Proof-of-Concept (POC) environment was recently built for Soler Healthcare. After several demonstrations, management has decided to replace the current desktop and application delivery model with a Citrix virtualized infrastructure
1.2 Key Project Findings
After an onsite assessment of the Soler Healthcare infrastructure and a demonstration of the POC environment, the following statements indicate the status of Soler Healthcare’s IT needs and plans: The CIO of Soler Healthcare has been charged with the responsibility of using the upcoming desktop refresh window, during which all user office computer equipment will be evaluated and upgraded where necessary, to move to a virtualized desktop and application model. Soler Healthcare is interested in desktop and application virtualization to address several problems, including the following.
1.
Providing secure remote access to select users who need to access their data from remote locations outside of the corporate network.
2.
Reducing overall general IT and storage costs
1.3 Next Steps
Following the infrastructure assessment of Soler Healthcare’s IT environment, this report recommends that Soler Healthcare takes the following actions: Replace the physical servers and desktops with virtual servers and desktops and update the Operating System platforms to Windows Server 2012 and Windows 8 Provide secure remote access from any device to users in the HR, Doctors, Management, IT, the Emergency Response and Offsite Contractors groups Implement a virtualization infrastructure with shared storage to support a new virtual server and desktop infrastructure. Integrate disaster recovery solutions into the new architecture
Users
The Soler Healthcare environment consists of a diverse group of users. Call center staff use thin client devices to access corporate
resources, while most of the other user groups access corporate resources from corporate-issued workstations and laptops. Over the
last few years, users at Soler Healthcare have gradually begun to access corporate resources from tablet and smartphone devices.
Users are frustrated with the IT team difficulty rolling out new operating systems and applications, the lack of a remote access strategy,
and the overall lack of flexibility in the environment. In both formal and informal settings, the CIO has presented the concept of virtualizing applications and
desktops, and users have responded favorably. Thus, the management at Soler Healthcare has instructed the IT team to assess, design, and build a virtual
desktop solution, creating appropriate solutions for employees based on their job requirements.
Client Devices
All Call Center employees access applications from thin-client terminals. These terminals are used to connect to a legacy mainframe environment using a terminal emulator. The legacy mainframe environment will be replaced with a Windows-based solution.
With the exception of the Call Center, the majority of the other users in the environment have laptops and desktops with single-core processors and 1GB of RAM on which they run Windows XP. Some have newer computers running Windows 7. Currently users’ data is not backed up and the company does not have a disaster recovery strategy.
Some employees have handheld devices, such as a tablets and smartphones. Tablets and smartphones are currently not officially supported by the IT department at Soler Healthcare; only “best effort” support is provided. Extending support to tablets and smartphones is being considered. Current breakdown of client devices at Soler Healthcare:
Applications
The HR applications suite named PositivelyPeople is a front-end application that provides access to various modules, including payroll,
time sheets, vacation requests, new hire procedures and information on former employees. The sensitive data in the PositivelyPeople
application must be treated with strict confidentiality and must only be accessible to members of the HR user group. Distribution of the
data must be prevented. The output of the modules can be in either Microsoft Word or Excel file format, or Adobe PDF; so these
applications are currently co-located with PositivelyPeople on the HR users’ desktops.
Installation of PositivelyPeople is performed manually based on a thoroughly documented process.
The Finance team, which consists of the billing and collections team, also accesses the main finance application named
PositivelyFinance, from their desktops PositivelyFinance is not available from devices outside of the Finance’s team vLAN.
The application is only accessible to members of the Finance team Users of the PositivelyFinance application should not be able to move or copy application data from the corporate network to any non-corporate issued devices or any devices that are not connected to the Finance’s team vLAN The vendor for PositivelyPeople and PositivelyFinance has tested and certified the applications to run on Windows Server 2012. The IT group at Soler Healthcare needs to ensure that these applications are always available.
Several months ago, Soler Healthcare sponsored a XenDesktop POC centered on mobilizing Windows applications for the Emergency Response Team. The POC focused on the Emergency Planning application named PositivelyResponse. The POC was considered successful.
Breakdown of all user groups and their application requirements:
Application Access
With the exception of Call Center users, all users currently access their required applications locally on their desktops or laptops. The recently conducted XenDesktop POC has increased interest in desktop virtualization. Members of the Management team who attended the demonstration are excited about the possibilities of having secure remote access to the corporate network, centralized management of applications, and a host of other features they like. The POC was successful and has gained the support of many of the decision makers at Soler Healthcare.
In the new environment, users in the HR, Doctors, Management, IT, the Emergency Response and Offsite Contractors groups should have remote access to their applications and/or desktops at all times including when at a Soler Healthcare facility or outside of one (over the Internet from other networks). All other users should have access to their applications and/or desktops only from the internal network Access to email in particular should be available to all users regardless of their location (internally and externally),
Virtualized Desktops
Soler Healthcare is new to the concept of desktop visualization and has recently begun to explore the possibility of visualization applications, desktops, and server workloads. Soler Healthcare plans to move to a virtualized desktop and application model for users based on what is deemed most appropriate following the successful POC of XenDesktop in their environment. On Soler Healthcare’s desktops and applications visualization wish list, management would also like for the IT team to implement high availability within the desktop and application solution.
Databases
SQL Server 2008 is currently implemented in the Soler Healthcare environment A team of database administrators maintains the SQL database infrastructure. A full backup is performed on a nightly basis as part of the regular maintenance program All databases are currently stored on a storage area network (SAN).
The backend database for the PositivelyPeople, PositivelyFinance and PositivelyResponse applications are also housed on this SQL Server 2008. Soler Healthcare is moving all databases to SQL Server 2008 R2 with the most recent service pack and patches based on robust new hardware and virtualized servers. The PositivelyFinance database needs to be transitioned to this new platform as soon as reasonably possible.
Windows Server and Active Directory
The Soler Healthcare server infrastructure is based on Windows 2008 R2 servers. Windows 2012 has been tested successfully for all applications, and Windows Server 2012 will be implemented as the server operating system platform in new virtual environment. The environment consists of a single forest which contains several domains, one for each country in which Soler Healthcare operates and maintains a facility. Each of these domains includes all of Soler Healthcare facilities in that country.
A Remote Desktop Services (RDS) License Server is hosted on a single domain controller within each domain, with 100 Client Access Licenses (CALs) on each RDS license server. The IT staff at Soler Healthcare built all of the servers and desktops in the current environment using a manual build process. Servers at Soler Healthcare have been in service for three years with no significant changes, so the process of building or rebuilding a server has not been a regular part of maintenance tasks. However the CIO is requiring an automated, easy-to-use server provisioning process be incorporated as part of the new IT infrastructure.
Logon scripts are not enabled for users as Soler Healthcare abandoned logon scripts last year in favor of Group Policy Objects. Soler Healthcare applies a minimal set of Group Policy Objects (GPOs) to domain-joined servers and workstations. Only one GPO, which configures Internet Explorer and Windows Update settings, is applied to domain-joined servers and workstations.
Roaming profiles were implemented previously, but they caused issues with one of the PositivelyFinance modules. Instead, local profiles are being used and administrators must manually delete the profiles when necessary No Remote Desktop Services-specific home drives have been implemented, as they have been deemed unnecessary.
Network Architecture
The site layout of Soler Healthcare
Site Layout
Soler Healthcare is a worldwide organization comprised of three data centers in New York London and Hong Kong with numerous regional hospitals connected by a private wide area network to their local datacenter. Additionally, users work from home and on the road Approximately 20% of all users work from home offices or travel part of the time. This is likely to increase significantly due to a new flexible working policy for administrative and managerial users. Because of this, reliability of remote access will be very important The CIO has emphasized that internal WAN traffic between sites must be kept to a minimum. As such, each user has a home” datacenter, to which he or she primarily connects; if there is a failure, virtualized desktops and applications should fail over to the secondary datacenter Based on this architecture, the datacenters are designed to support specific regions.
Enterprise Storage
User data is currently stored on an aging iSCSI SAN Soler Healthcare plans to roll out a new global storage solution for the three main datacenters, and the new storage solution will provide a total capacity of more than 1PB. Components of the solution will be physically located at the three datacenters. Initially, only about 200TB of space will be used at each data center, and a administrative project to delete obsolete and old files has been started.
Soler Healthcare plans to upgrade its storage solution in order to incorporate redundancy, high availability, and replication between the primary and backup datacenters, for each site.
Server Hardware
Characteristics of all physical servers associated with the Soler Healthcare environment.
Soler Healthcare is planning to purchase new hardware to support the planned virtualization environment. This capital expenditure has received preliminary budgeting approval; however, where feasible and reasonable, server virtualization should be incorporated in order to maximize the efficiency of datacenter operations.
Security
Active Directory is used to authenticate users in the Soler Healthcare environment Due to the sensitive nature of the PositivelyFinance application, shadowing of this application should be prohibited. Shadowing of all other applications and desktops in the environment should only be allowed by Level-3 support personnel.
In the future, the company will require two-factor authentication when accessing the environment remotely.
Disaster Recovery
The mobile workforce is not incorporated into the disaster recovery plan at present. As such, the mobile workforce must be included in any disaster recovery plan. The CIO has confirmed the use of the London datacenter for disaster recovery purposes.
QUESTION 1
Based on the assessment of the current company infrastructure, which design option is best for remote access?
A. Deploy six NetScaler appliances: two in New York, two in Hong Kong, and two in London.
B. Deploy three NetScaler appliances: one in each datacenter.
C. Deploy two NetScaler appliances: one in London and one in New York.
D. Deploy one pair of NetScaler appliances in the London failover datacenter.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
How can the architect implement high availability?
A. Configure three high-availability pairs: one pair in New York, one pair in London, and one pair in Hong Kong.
B. Configure three high-availability pairs: one pair between New York and London, one pair between New York and Hong Kong, and one pair between Hong Kong and London.
C. Configure two high-availability pairs: one pair for New York and London, and one pair for London and Hong Kong.
D. Configure one cluster instance containing all six appliances.]]>
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
How should the architect recommend the NetScalers be implemented to increase site resiliency?
A. Configure GSLB for user connectivity
B. Create a cluster instance that includes all three appliances.
C. Configure a backup vServer.
D. Configure failover sites within the NetScaler. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
How should the architect configure the virtual servers on the two appliances?
A. Create one virtual server for each appliance and on each appliance bind a session policy to its virtual server, which is configured in ICA Proxy mode using the datacenter StoreFront server.
B. Create one virtual server for each appliance and on each appliance bind a redirection policy to its virtual server, which is configured in ICA redirection mode using the datacenter StoreFront server.
C. Create two virtual servers for each appliance and on each appliance bind a redirection policy to the virtual server(s), which is configured in ICA redirection mode using the datacenter StoreFront server.
D. Create four virtual servers for each appliance and on each appliance bind a session policy to the virtual servers, which are configured in ICA redirection mode using the datacenter StoreFront server.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
How should the architect configure the virtual servers on the appliance?
A. Create one virtual server and bind it to a session policy that is configured in ICA Proxy mode using the datacenter StoreFront server.
B. Create two virtual servers and bind them to a redirection policy that is configured in ICA Proxy mode using the datacenter StoreFront server.
C. Create three virtual servers configured with the subnets of the three sites and bind them to redirection policies that are configured in ICA Proxy mode using the StoreFront server of that subnet.
D. Create six virtual servers in high-availability pairs configured with the subnets of the three sites and bind them to redirection policies that are configured in ICA Proxy mode using the StoreFront server of that subnet.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Why is this design the best remote access design for the environment?
A. This design provides intra-site redundancy in case of appliance failures and connects users to their home datacenter while minimizing internal WAN traffic.
B. This design provides redundancy in case of site failures and connects users to their home datacenter while optimizing external WAN traffic.
C. This design protects against WAN failures and connects users to their home datacenter.
D. This design will allow for the expected expansion of remote access usage and provides SSL VPN functionality for future needs.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Why is this design the best remote access design for the environment?
A. This design provides redundancy in case of appliance failures and minimizes internal WAN traffic.
B. This design provides redundancy in case of site failures and optimizing external WAN traffic.
C. This design protects against WAN failures.
D. This design will allow for the expected expansion of remote access usage. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
Why is configuring GSLB the best remote access design for the environment?
A. This design provides redundancy in case of site failures and connects users to their backup datacenter in case of primary site failure.
B. This design provides redundancy in case of appliance failures and connects users to their home datacenter using external WAN traffic
C. This design provides redundancy in case of appliance failures and connects users to their home datacenter using external WAN traffic
D. This design will allow for the expected expansion of remote access usage and provides SSL VPN functionality for future needs.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 1
Users must be able to connect remotely from their own mobile devices. What should the architect consider to increase the security of the current authentication solution?
A. Adding a second authentication factor
B. Placing domain controllers in the DMZ for remote users
C. Shortening the Active Directory password expiration period
D. Populating the RDS user profile path in the Active Directory user accounts
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which aspect of the new storage system’s performance requirements is critical to the success of the project and should be determined before any purchase takes place?
A. Whether it supports automatic tiering
B. The number of SSD drives it will hold
C. Whether 8Gb/s Fibre Channel or 10Gb/s Ethernet technology provides more storage bandwidth
D. The number of IOPS it must support to host the required amount of pooled and dedicated virtual desktops
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
The architect needs to evaluate the options for replicating user profiles across all sites. Which two pieces of information should the architect collect to analyze the options? (Choose two.)
A. WAN traffic
B. License requirements
C. Storage infrastructure
D. Database configuration
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
What are two potential risks in the existing environment that the architect must address in the proposed virtual solution? (Choose two.)
A. Local profiles are used and administrators manually delete them when necessary.
B. Installation of PositivelyPeople is performed manually based on a thoroughly documented process.
C. No logon scripts are enabled for users because the company abandoned logon scripts last year in favor of GPOs.
D. Users log on to the company environment based on Active Directory credentials, but the PositivelyFinance application requires secondary credentials.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5
Which solution meets the criteria for reducing the general IT costs for the Research and Training user group to access their applications?
A. VM Hosted applications
B. Streamed server OS machines
C. Dedicated desktop OS machines
D. Pooled desktop OS machine with Personal vDisk
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Scenario: Users from a remote research lab have very limited WAN bandwidth to their nearest datacenter. The users need to print over the WAN. What should an architect recommend to optimize printer bandwidth?
A. Optimize WAN traffic through CloudBridge.
B. Increase the WAN bandwidth through a WAN link upgrade.
C. Restrict overall session bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.
D. Restrict printer redirection bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The architect recommended pooled desktop OS machines with Personal vDisks for the Nurses, Imaging, and Radiology user group. How should an engineer implement antivirus software on these desktop OS machines?
A. Install the antivirus software into the base image.
B. Deploy the antivirus package as an App-V application.
C. Deploy the antivirus software through a Group Policy startup script.
D. Install the antivirus software in the master Personal vDisk as a user-installed application.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which endpoint devices must be replaced to support the Streamed VHD method of desktop delivery?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows XP
C. Linux thin clients
D. PCs running Internet Explorer 7
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
The company plans to reduce their storage requirement by using thin provisioning with XenServer hosts. Which storage option should the architect verify for capability in the current environment?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which consideration is unnecessary for the PositivelyPeople application in the new environment?
A. File security
B. Secure remote access
C. Access to legacy mainframe
D. Support for secured print jobs
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Given the current desktop build process, what should an architect recommend on the new virtual platform for this environment while minimizing the number of required management servers?
A. Continue with current process
B. Use Ghost to clone a master image
C. Use Machine Creation Services to clone a master image
D. Use Provisioning Services servers to create a master target device
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which two budgetary items should the architect consider to meet the needs of remote users in the new environment? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft licenses
B. NetScaler infrastructure
C. Additional mobile devices
D. Two-factor authentication solution
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13
Some management staff print large documents over WAN connections. What must the architect consider to optimize printing to a local printer from laptops?
A. Configure session printers
B. Configure Universal Print Server
C. Disable ‘Direct connection to print servers’
D. Allow mapping to all client printers to session
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which two options should the architect recommend to enable two-factor authentication for remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Citrix Single Sign-On.
B. Configure LDAP authentication on NetScaler.
C. Configure RADIUS authentication on NetScaler.
D. Configure ‘Username and Password’ in StoreFront.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 15
Which two business drivers are critical for the Contractors user group? (Choose two.)
A. Printing security
B. Secure remote access
C. Granular security policies
D. Support for mobile devices
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 16
Scenario: Legacy GPO policies should NOT be applied to users in the new environment. New GPOs should be configured to ensure maximum performance
across all virtual applications and desktops.
Which two actions should the architect recommend to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Enable loopback processing in Merge mode.
B. Enable loopback processing in Replace mode.
C. Apply the policy to the OUs containing the user accounts.
D. Apply the policy to the domain root with a WMI filter excluding the Windows XP OS type.
E. Apply the policy to the domain root with a deny ACL on the OU containing legacy machines.
F. Apply the policy to the OUs containing the desktop OS machines’ and server OS machines’ computer accounts.
QUESTION 17
Which three user groups require remote access? (Choose three.)
A. IT
B. Call Center
C. Human Resources
D. Emergency Response Team
E. Nurses, Imaging, and Radiology
Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 18
An architect is assessing the existing backup strategy and recommending changes to suit the new virtual desktop environment.
Which two critical components should the architect recommend for nightly backup, as they cannot be easily recreated in the event of a disaster? (Choose two.)
A. User’s Personal vDisks
B. Pooled desktop master image
C. Servers hosting StoreFront roles
D. Servers hosting Delivery Controller roles
E. SQL Server hosting the XenDesktop database
Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 19
Which current infrastructure limitation prevents doctors in London from working remotely if the London datacenter shuts down unexpectedly?
A. There are no roaming user profiles.
B. There is no failover datacenter for London.
C. There are no backups of the SQL Server databases.
D. There is no disaster recovery plan for the mobile workforce. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
Contractors need a consistent environment to perform quality assurance testing of applications. Which two types of solutions should the architect recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Random server OS machines
B. Pooled desktop OS machines
C. Dedicated desktop OS machines
D. Pooled desktop OS machines with Personal vDisk Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 21
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