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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of these is a reason for using groups to administer Agents?
A. to link similar devices together
B. to complete configuration changes on groups instead of hosts
C. to complete the same configuration on like items
D. to apply the same policy to hosts with similar security requirements
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which three items make up rules? (Choose three.)
A. variables
B. applications
C. application classes
D. rule modules
E. policies
F. actions
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which action do you take when you are ready to deploy your CSA configuration to systems?
A. select
B. clone
C. deploy
D. generate rules
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which one of the five phases of an attack attempts to become resident on a target?
A. probe phase
B. penetrate phase
C. persist phase
D. propagate phase
E. paralyze phase
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the Audit Trail function?
A. to generate a report listing events matching certain criteria, sorted by event severity
B. to generate a report listing events matching certain criteria, sorted by group
C. to generate a report showing detailed information for selected groups
D. to display a detailed history of configuration changes
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
In which type of rules are network address sets used?
A. COM component access control rules
B. connection rate limit rules
C. network access control rules
D. file control rules
E. file access control rules
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which three of these does the buffer overflow rule detect on a UNIX operating system, based on the type of memory space involved? (Choose three.)
A. location space
B. stack space
C. slot space
D. data space
E. heap space
F. file space
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
When should you use preconfigured application classes for application deployment investigation?
A. never
B. always
C. only for specific applications
D. only when applications require detailed analysis
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 10
Which systems with specific operating systems are automatically placed into mandatory groups containing rules for that operating system? (Choose three.)
A. OS2
B. HPUX
C. Solaris
D. Mac OS
E. Linux
F. Windows
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Certkiller chose the Cisco CSA product to protect the network against the newest attacks. Cisco Security Agent provides Day Zero attack prevention by using which of these methods?
A. Using signatures to enforce security policies
B. Using API control to enforce security policies
C. Using stateful packet filtering to enforce security policies
D. Using algorithms that compare application calls for system resources to the security policies
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Because Cisco Security Agent analyzes behavior rather than relying on signature matching, it never needs updating to stop a new attack. This zero-update architecture provides protection with reduced operational costs and can identify so-called “Day Zero” threats.” At a high level, Cisco(r) Security Agent is straightforward. It intercepts system calls between applications and the operating system, correlates them, compares the correlated system calls against a set of behavioral rules, and then makes an “allow” or”deny” decision based on the results of its comparison. This process is called INCORE, which stands for intercept, correlate, rules engine. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/secursw/ps5057/products_white_paper0900aecd8020f448.shtml
QUESTION 2
Certkiller has implemented the CSA product to provide security for all of their devices. For which layers of the OSI reference model does CSA enforce security?
A. Layer 1 through Layer 4
B. Layer 1 through Layer 7
C. Layer 2 through Layer 4
D. Layer 3 through Layer 7
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Cisco Security Agent provides threat protection for server and desktop computing systems, also known as endpoints. It helps to reduce operational costs by identifying, preventing, and eliminating known and unknown security threats. The Cisco Security Agent consolidates endpoint security functions in a single agent, providing:
1.
Host intrusion prevention
2.
Spyware/adware protection
3.
Protection against buffer overflow attacks
4.
Distributed firewall capabilities
5.
Malicious mobile code protection
6.
Operating-system integrity assurance
7.
Application inventory
8.
Audit log-consolidation
This provides security for endpoints at the network layer (layer 3) through the application layer (layer 7).
QUESTION 3
The CSA architecture model is made up of three major components. Which three are they? (Choose three)
A. Cisco Trust Agent
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Security Agent Management Center
D. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
E. An administrative workstation
F. A syslog server
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The CSA MC architecture model consists of a central management center which maintains a database of policies and system nodes, all of which have Cisco Security Agent software installed on their desktops and servers. The agents themselves, and an administrative workstations, combined with the Management Center, comprise the three aspects of the CSA architecture. Agents register with CSA MC. CSA MC checks its configuration database for a record of the system. When the system is found and authenticated, CSA MC deploys a configured policy for that particular system or grouping of systems.
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
When using an Inline-Power enabled Catalyst Switch, which pins are used to supply Inline-Power to an IP Phone?
A. Pins 1, 2, 3, and 6
B. Pins 1, 2, 5, and 6
C. Pins 2, 4, 6, and 8
D. Pins 3, 4, 7, and 8
E. Pins 4, 5, 7, and 8
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
When using a Cisco Inline-Power Patch-Panel, which pins are used to supply Inline-Power to the IP Phone?
A. Pins 1, 2, 3, and 6
B. Pins 1, 2, 5, and 6
C. Pins 2, 4, 6, and 8
D. Pins 3, 4, 7, and 8
E. Pins 4, 5, 7, and 8
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what protocol IP Phone uses to learn the Voice VLAN ID it should use for Voice traffic.
What will your reply be?
A. Skinny Station Protocol
B. 802.1q
C. LLQ
D. VTP
E. CDP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what MailStore options are supported in Unity version 2.4.6.
What will your reply be?
A. MS Mail
B. Domino
C. Exchange 2000
D. Exchange 5.5
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Certkiller has a Unity3.0/ and Exchange 2000 system. Which of the following attributes will be stored in Active Directory? (Choose three.)
A. Transfer Type (Supervised, Release to switch)
B. Location ID
C. Alternate Extensions
D. Recorded Name
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 6
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what Network Management Server (NMS) application she can use to monitor Voice quality by polling the SNMP MIB for MQC.
What will your reply be?
A. Voice Health Monitor
B. Quality of Service Policy Manager
C. Internetwork Performance Monitor
D. Resource Manager Essentials
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . The Certkiller network and the complete MPLS router QoS configuration is shown in the following exhibit:
The LAN switches (and any other equipment in the cloud) do not mark or remark the packets.
With regard to the QoS configuration in the exhibit, when IP Phone A calls IP Phone B, how will the voice and signalling packets be marked by the time they arrive at IP Phone B?
A. Voice: IP Precedence 5: Signaling 3
B. Voice: DSCP AF ; Signaling : DSCP EF31
C. Voice: IP Precedence 5; Signaling 3: 0
D. Voice: DSCP EF; Signaling : DSCP EF31
E. Voice: DSCP EF; Signaling : 0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what protocol an IP Phone uses to learn the IP Address of its TFTP Server.
What will your reply be?
A. CDP
B. OSPF
C. HSRP
D. EIGRP
E. DHCP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
With regard to jitter, which of the following statements are true?
A. Jitter is the variation from the time that a packet is expected to be received and when it is actually received. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playout buffer to accept voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
B. Jitter is the actual delay from the time that a packet is expected to be transmitted and when it actually is transmitted. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playin buffer to play back voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
C. Jitter is the actual delay from the time that a packet is expected to be transmitted and when it actually is transmitted. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playout buffer to play back voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
D. Jitter is the variation from the time that a packet is expected to be received and when it is actually received. Voice devices have to compensate for jitter by setting up a playin buffer to accept voice in a smooth fashion and avoid discontinuity in the voice stream.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the differences between Type of Service (ToS) and Class of Service (CoS) are.
What will your reply be? (Choose two.)
A. CoS allows a class based access to the media, but ToS prioritizes this access according to the precedence bit.
B. CoS is a field in the IP header, but ToS is evaluated by the routing protocol.
C. CoS is a Layer 2 mechanism, but ToS is a Layer 3 mechanism.
Correct Answer: AC
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