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What’s new in Cisco CCNA certification 2024
Over the years, Cisco has been looking for changes to keep up with the market.
In 2022 and 2024, Cisco made a complete change to its certification process, eliminating many areas of expertise such as Cisco CCNA voice and security, and controversially molding some CCIE courses, resulting in many experts in areas such as voice and collaboration no longer being certified!
Reading the chart entries for service providers and CCNAs, you’ll see that as of today (April 15, 2024), there aren’t any announcements yet, and the bottom tab of the CCNA shows that nothing will change this year, so you can safely assume it will remain as it is until the end of 2024.
You can try here first, free Cisco 200-301 CCNA exam questions, practice below.
The Cisco CCNA (200-301) exam is 120 minutes long and consists of 100-120 questions. Questions can be multiple-choice, drag-and-drop, mock, and other types.
Pick up where you shared last time (200-301 exam questions Q1-Q15) and share 15 more latest exam questions (total questions 1450)
Question 16:
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the hostname on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
A. password Password
B. crypto key generates rsa modulus 1024
C. ip domain-name domain
D. ip ssh authentication-retries 2
Correct Answer: C
Question 17:
Which command must be entered so that the default gateway is automatically distributed when DHCP is configured on a router?
A. DNS-server
B. default-router
C. ip helper-address
D. default-gateway
Correct Answer: B
Question 18:
Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?
A. to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit
B. to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment
C. to prevent loops in a network
D. to protect against default gateway failures
Correct Answer: D
Question 19:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:
From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228).
We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0. So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case, we don’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.
Let\’s take another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 -> The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28. (228 + the increment number).0 or
172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.
Question 20:
What is the expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
A. A distributed management plane must be used.
B. Software upgrades are performed from a central controller
C. Complexity increases when new device configurations are added
D. Custom applications are needed to configure network devices
Correct Answer: B
Question 21:
Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)
A. FF02::0001:FF00:0000/104
B. ff06:bb43:cc13:dd16:1bb:ff14:7545:234d
C. 2002::512:1204b:1111::1/64
D. 2001:701:104b:1111::1/64
E. ::ffff:10.14.101.1/96
Correct Answer: DE
the IPv6 address “::ffff:10.14.101.1/96” is a valid representation of an IPv6 address with an embedded IPv4 address. This format is known as an IPv4-mapped IPv6 address.
In this case, “::ffff:10.14.101.1” represents the IPv4 address “10.14.101.1” embedded within an IPv6 address. The “::ffff:” prefix indicates that the following part of the address is an IPv4 address. The “/96” suffix indicates the network prefix length, specifying that the first 96 bits represent the network portion of the address.
Question 22:
What is a DHCP client?
A. a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address
B. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically
C. a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.
D. a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.
Correct Answer: B
Question 23:
Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
Correct Answer: BCD
The “network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has:
Therefore all interfaces in the range of this network will join OSPF.
Question 24:
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration
B. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords
C. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch
D. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established
Correct Answer: A
Question 25:
Refer to the exhibit.
All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and IP OSPF network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A. R14# interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf priority 255 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.14 network 10.10.1.14 0.0.0.0 area 0 network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0
R86#
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252
ip mtu 1400
router ospf 10
router-id 10.10.1.86
network 10.10.1.86 0.0.0.0 area 0
network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0
B. R14# interface Loopback0 ip ospf 10 area 0 interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf 10 area 0 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 ip ospf priority 255 router-id 10.10.1.14
R86#
interface Loopback0
ip ospf 10 area 0
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252
ip ospf 10 area 0
ip mtu 1500
router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.86
C. R14# interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf priority 0 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.14 network 10.10.1.14 0.0.0.0 area 0 network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0
R86#
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252
ip mtu 1500
router ospf 10
router-id 10.10.1.86
network 10.10.1.86 0.0.0.0 area 0
network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0
D. R14# interface Loopback0 ip ospf 10 area 0 interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252
ip ospf priority 255
ip ospf 10 area 0
ip mtu 1500
router ospf 10
router-id 10.10.1.14
R86#
interface Loopback0
ip ospf 10 area 0
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252
ip ospf 10 area 0
ip mtu 1500
router ospf 10
router-id 10.10.1.86
Correct Answer: D
A router with “priority 0” and another with “priority default (1)” formed adjacency and exchanged LSAs and LSDBs normally (I tested it in P.Trace and OSPF dynamic routing works normally), the difference is that there will not be a DR Backup in case fail (that\’s all). One will be DR Other (neighbor Full/DR) and one DR (neighbor Full/DROther), and BDR appears written that it does not exist because priority 0 cannot be either DR or BDR.
(Observation: “point-to-point type” is recommended for this type of connection.)
However, the exercise asks them to act as a central point for exchanging information, in this case, “it gives the impression” that he asked us to select a “DR”. Letter “D” would be the most correct because using “ip ospf priority 255” (in the interface) we define R14 as DR.
Question 26:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
A. lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
B. ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10
Correct Answer: D
Question 27:
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?
A. the path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110
B. the path through R2. because the IBGP administrative distance is 200
C. the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20
D. the path through R3. because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and BGP
Correct Answer: C
Question 28:
In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?
A. traffic policing
B. round-robin scheduling
C. low-latency queuing
D. expedited forwarding
Correct Answer: D
Question 29:
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two.)
A. It supports protocol discovery.
B. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets.
C. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity.
D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.
E. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.
Correct Answer: DE
Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) is just a congestion avoidance mechanism. WRED drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Edge routers assign IP precedences to packets as they enter the network. When a packet arrives, the following events occur:
1. The average queue size is calculated.
2. If the average is less than the minimum queue threshold, the arriving packet is queued.
3. If the average is between the minimum queue threshold for that type of traffic and the maximum threshold for the interface, the packet is either dropped or queued, depending on the packet drop probability for that type of traffic.
4. If the average queue size is greater than the maximum threshold, the packet is dropped.
WRED reduces the chances of tail drop (when the queue is full, the packet is dropped) by selectively dropping packets when the output interface begins to show signs of congestion (thus it can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up).
By dropping some packets early rather than waiting until the queue is full, WRED avoids dropping large numbers of packets at once and minimizes the chances of global synchronization. Thus, WRED allows the transmission line to be used fully at all times.
WRED generally drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Packets with a higher IP precedence are less likely to be dropped than packets with a lower precedence. Thus, the higher the priority of a packet, the higher the probability that the packet will be delivered
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
A. Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.
B. Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.
C. Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.
D. Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.
Correct Answer: C
If a Layer 2 LAN port is connected to a DHCP server, configure the port as trusted by entering the ip dhcp snooping trust interface configuration command. https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/general/Test/dwerblo/broken_guide/snoodhcp.html#wp1073367
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Q16:
Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service?
A. Consolidation of multiple providers
B. Directory synchronization
C. Web-based login
D. Automated account management
Correct Answer: D
Q17:
Which software-defined networking (SDN) architectural component is responsible for translating network requirements?
A. SDN Application
B. SDN Data path
C. SDN Controller
D. SDN Northbound Interfaces
Correct Answer: C
Q18:
Directive controls are a form of change management policy and procedures. Which of the following subsections are recommended as part of the change management process?
A. Build and test
B. Implement security controls
C. Categorize Information System (IS)
D. Select security controls
Correct Answer: A
Q19:
Which of the following is the MOST significant key management problem due to the number of keys created?
A. Keys are more difficult to provision and
B. Storage of the keys requires increased security
C. Exponential growth when using asymmetric keys
D. Exponential growth when using symmetric keys
Correct Answer: B
Q20:
What are the steps of a risk assessment?
A. identification, analysis, evaluation
B. analysis, evaluation, mitigation
C. classification, identification, risk management
D. identification, evaluation, mitigation
Correct Answer: A
Q21:
Which of the following should be included in a hardware retention policy?
A. The use of encryption technology to encrypt sensitive data before retention
B. Retention of data for only one week and outsourcing the retention to a third-party vendor
C. Retention of all sensitive data on media and hardware
D. A plan to retain data required only for business purposes and a retention schedule
Correct Answer: A
Q22:
Place the following information classification steps in sequential order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q23:
Which of the following is the BEST method to assess the effectiveness of an organization\’s vulnerability management program?
A. Review automated patch deployment reports
B. Periodic third-party vulnerability assessment
C. Automated vulnerability scanning
D. Perform vulnerability scan by the security team
Correct Answer: B
Q24:
Which of the following addresses the requirements of security assessments during software acquisition?
A. Software configuration management (SCM)
B. Data loss prevention (DLP) policy
C. Continuous monitoring
D. Software assurance policy
Correct Answer: A
Q25:
What is the document that describes the measures that have been implemented or planned to correct any deficiencies noted during the assessment of the security controls?
A. Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
B. Security Assessment Report (SAR)
C. Plan of Action and Milestones {POAandM)
D. Security Assessment Plan (SAP)
Correct Answer: C
Q26:
Which of the following MOST accurately describes the Security Target (ST) in the Common Criteria framework?
A. The set of rules that define how resources or assets are managed and protected
B. A product independent set of security criteria for a class of products
C. The product and documentation to be evaluated
D. A document that includes a product-specific set of security criteria
In a multi-tenant cloud environment, what approach will secure logical access to assets?
A. Hybrid cloud
B. Transparency/Auditability of administrative access
C. Controlled configuration management (CM)
D. Virtual private cloud (VPC)
Correct Answer: D
Q28:
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.
The security program can be considered effective when
A. vulnerabilities are proactively identified.
B. audits are regularly performed and reviewed.
C. backups are regularly performed and validated.
D. risk is lowered to an acceptable level.
Correct Answer: D
Q29:
Which layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is reliant on other layers and is concerned with the structure, interpretation, and handling of information?
A. Presentation Layer
B. Session Layer
C. Application Layer
D. Transport Layer
Correct Answer: C
The application (s) layer relies on everything before it.
Q30:
Which is the BEST control to meet the Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements 18 (SSAE-18) confidentiality category?
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An administrator wants to simplify remote access without asking users to provide user credentials. Which access control method provides this solution”?
A. SSL VPN
B. B. ZTNA full mode
C. L2TP
D. ZTNA IP/MAC filtering mode
Correct Answer: B
Question 2:
Refer to the exhibits
Which shows the Zero Trust Tag Monitor and the FortiClient GUI status.
Remote-Client is tagged as Remote-Users on the FortiClient EMS Zero Trust Tag Monitor.
What must an administrator do to show the tag on the FortiClient GUI?
A. Update tagging rule logic to enable tag visibility
B. B. Change the FortiClient system settings to enable tag visibility
C. Change the endpoint control setting to enable tag visibility
D. Change the user identity settings to enable tag visibility
Correct Answer: B
Question 3:
Which statement about FortiClient comprehensive endpoint protection is true?
A. It helps to safeguard systems from email spam
B. It helps to safeguard systems from data loss.
C. It helps to safeguard systems from DDoS.
D. lt helps to safeguard systems from advanced security threats, such as malware.
Correct Answer: D
Question 4:
What does FortiClient do as a fabric agent? (Choose two.)
A. Provides IOC verdicts
B. C. Automates Responses
C. Creates dynamic policies
Correct Answer: AC
Question 5:
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the FortiClient log details shown in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. B. The file status is Quarantined
B. The filename is sent to ForuSandbox for further inspection.
C. The file location IS \??\D:\Users\.
Correct Answer: AB
Question 6:
Which two benefits are the benefits of using multi-tenancy mode on FortiClient EMS? (Choose two.)
A. The fabric connector must use an IP address to connect to FortiClient EMS
B. B. It provides granular access and segmentation.
C. Licenses are shared among sites.
D. D. Separate host servers manage each site.
Correct Answer: BD
Question 7:
Which statement about the FortiClient enterprise management server is true?
A. It provides centralized management of FortiGate devices.
B. lt provides centralized management of multiple endpoints running FortiClient software.
C. It provides centralized management of FortiClient Android endpoints only.
D. It provides centralized management of Chromebooks running real-time protection
Correct Answer: B
Question 8:
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the settings shown in the exhibit, which action will FortiClient take when users try to access www.facebook.com?
A. FortiClient will monitor only the user\’s web access to the Facebook website
B. FortiClient will block access to Facebook and its subdomains.
C. FortiClient will prompt a warning message to warn the user before they can access the Facebook website
Correct Answer: A
Question 9:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which shows the output of the ZTNA traffic log on FortiGate. What can you conclude from the log message?
A. The remote user connection does not match the explicit proxy policy.
B. The remote user connection does not match the ZTNA server configuration.
C. C. The remote user connection does not match the ZTNA rule configuration.
D. The remote user connection does not match the ZTNA firewall policy
Correct Answer: C
Question 10:
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the Security Fabric automation settings, what action will be taken on compromised endpoints?
A. Endpoints will be quarantined through EMS
B. Endpoints will be banned on FortiGate
C. An email notification will be sent for compromised endpoints
D. Endpoints will be quarantined through FortiSwitch
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
Which security fabric component sends a notification to quarantine an endpoint after IOC detection in the automation process?
A. FortiAnalyzer
B. FortiClient
C. ForbClient EMS
D. D. Forti Gate
Correct Answer: D
Question 12:
Which two statements are true about the ZTNA rule? (Choose two. )
A. It redirects the client request to the access proxy
B. It defines the access proxy
C. It applies security profiles to protect traffic
Correct Answer: A
Question 13:
Why does FortiGate need the root CA certificate of FortiClient EMS?
A. To sign FortiClient CSR requests
B. To revoke FortiClient client certificates
C. C. To trust certificates issued by FortiClient EMS
D. To update FortiClient client certificates
Correct Answer: C
Question 14:
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the CLI output from FortiGate. which statement is true?
A. FortiGate is configured to pull user groups from FortiClient EMS
B. FortiGate is configured with a local user group
C. FortiGate is configured to pull user groups from FortiAuthenticator
D. FortiGate is configured to pull user groups from the AD Server.
Correct Answer: A
Question 15:
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the logs shown in the exhibit, why did FortiClient EMS fail to install FortiClient on the endpoint?
A. The remote registry service is not running B. The Windows installer service is not running
C. C. The task scheduler service is not running.
D. The FortiClient antivirus service is not running
Correct Answer: C
…
Summary:
Fortinet NSE5_FCT-7.0 Candidates are expected to apply knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:
1. Set up FortiClient EMS
Install and perform the initial configuration of FortiClient EMS
l Configure Chromebooks and FortiClient endpoints
l Configure FortiClient EMS features
2. Provision and deploy FortiClient devices
Deploy FortiClient on Windows, macOS, iOS, and Android endpoints
l Configure endpoint profiles to provision FortiClient devices
3. Security Fabric integration
Configure security fabric integration with FortiClient EMS
l Configure automatic quarantine of compromised endpoints
l Deploy the full ZTNA solution
l Apply IP/MAC ZTNA filtering to check the security posture of endpoints
4. Diagnostics
Analyze diagnostic information to troubleshoot FortiClient EMS and FortiClient issues
l Resolve common FortiClient deployment and implementation issues
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A company needs to store its accounting records in Amazon S3. The records must be immediately accessible for 1 year and then must be archived for an additional 9 years.
No one at the company, including administrative users and root users, can be able to delete the records during the entire 10-year period. The records must be stored with maximum resiliency.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Store the records in S3 Glacier for the entire 10-year period. Use an access control policy to deny deletion of the records for a period of 10 years.
B. Store the records by using S3 Intelligent Tiering. Use an IAM policy to deny deletion of the records. After 10 years, change the IAM policy to allow deletion.
C. Use an S3 Lifecycle policy to transition the records from S3 Standard to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 1 year. Use S3 Object Lock in compliance mode for a period of 10 years.
D. Use an S3 Lifecycle policy to transition the records from S3 Standard to S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA) after 1 year. Use S3 Object Lock in governance mode for a period of 10 years.
Correct Answer: C
TOPIC QUESTION 2:
A company is preparing to deploy a new serverless workload. A solutions architect must use the principle of least privilege to configure permissions that will be used to run an AWS Lambda function. An Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule will invoke the function.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Add an execution role to the function with lambda: InvokeFunction as the action and * as the principal.
B. Add an execution role to the function with lambda: InvokeFunction as the action and Service:amazonaws.com as the principal.
C. Add a resource-based policy to the function with lambda:\’* as the action and Service:events.amazonaws.com as the principal.
D. Add a resource-based policy to the function with lambda: InvokeFunction as the action and Service:events.amazonaws.com as the principal.
A company wants to run applications in containers in the AWS Cloud. These applications are stateless and can tolerate disruptions within the underlying infrastructure. The company needs a solution that minimizes cost and operational overhead.
What should a solutions architect do to meet these requirements?
A. Use Spot Instances in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group to run the application containers.
B. Use Spot Instances in an Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) managed node group.
C. Use On-Demand Instances in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group to run the application containers.
D. Use On-Demand Instances in an Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) managed node group.
A company hosts three applications on Amazon EC2 instances in a single Availability Zone. The web application uses a self-managed MySQL database that is hosted on EC2 instances to store data in an Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume.
The MySQL database currently uses a 1 TB Provisioned IOPS SSD (io2) EBS volume. The company expects traffic of 1,000 IOPS for both reads and writes at peak traffic.
The company wants to minimize any disruptions, stabilize performance, and reduce costs while retaining the capacity for double the IOPS. The company wants to move the database tier to a fully managed solution that is highly available and fault tolerant.
Which solution will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?
A. Use a Multi-AZ deployment of an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance with an io2 Block Express EBS volume.
B. Use a Multi-AZ deployment of an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance with a General Purpose SSD (gp2) EBS volume.
C. Use Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering access tiers.
D. Use two large EC2 instances to host the database in active-passive mode.
Correct Answer: A
TOPIC QUESTION 5:
A company hosts a web application on multiple Amazon EC2 instances The EC2 instances are in an Auto Scaling group that scales in response to user demand The company wants to optimize cost savings without making a long-term commitment Which EC2 instance purchasing option should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements\’?
A. Dedicated Instances only
B. On-Demand Instances only
C. A mix of On-Demand instances and Spot Instances
D. A mix of On-Demand instances and Reserved instances
Correct Answer: A
TOPIC QUESTION 6:
An application running on an Amazon EC2 instance in VPC-A needs to access files in another EC2 instance in VPC-B.
Both VPCs are in separate AWS accounts. The network administrator needs to design a solution to configure secure access to EC2 instances in VPC-B from VPC-A. The connectivity should not have a single point of failure or bandwidth concerns.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Set up a VPC peering connection between VPC-A and VPC-B.
B. Set up VPC gateway endpoints for the EC2 instance running in VPC-B.
C. Attach a virtual private gateway to VPC-B and set up routing from VPC-A.
D. Create a private virtual interface (VIF) for the EC2 instance running in VPC-B and add appropriate routes from VPC-A.
Correct Answer: A
AWS uses the existing infrastructure of a VPC to create a VPC peering connection; it is neither a gateway nor a VPN connection and does not rely on a separate piece of physical hardware. There is no single point of failure for communication or a bandwidth bottleneck.
A company has a serverless website with millions of objects in an Amazon S3 bucket. The company uses the S3 bucket as the origin for an Amazon CloudFront distribution.
The company did not set encryption on the S3 bucket before the objects were loaded. A solutions architect needs to enable encryption for all existing objects and for all objects that are added to the S3 bucket in the future.
Which solution will meet these requirements with the LEAST amount of effort?
A. Create a new S3 bucket. Turn on the default encryption settings for the new S3 bucket. Download all existing objects to temporary local storage. Upload the objects to the new S3 bucket.
B. Turn on the default encryption settings for the S3 bucket. Use the S3 Inventory feature to create a .csv file that lists the unencrypted objects. Run an S3 Batch Operations job that uses the copy command to encrypt those objects.
C. Create a new encryption key by using AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS). Change the settings on the S3 bucket to use server-side encryption with AWS KMS-managed encryption keys (SSE-KMS). Turn on versioning for the S3 bucket.
D. Navigate to Amazon S3 in the AWS Management Console. Browse the S3 bucket\’s objects. Sort by the encryption field. Select each unencrypted object. Use the Modify button to apply default encryption settings to every unencrypted object in the S3 bucket.
A company needs to keep user transaction data in an Amazon DynamoDB table.
The company must retain the data for 7 years.
What is the MOST operationally efficient solution that meets these requirements?
A. Use DynamoDB point-in-time recovery to back up the table continuously.
B. Use AWS Backup to create backup schedules and retention policies for the table.
C. Create an on-demand backup of the table by using the DynamoDB console. Store the backup in an Amazon S3 bucket. Set an S3 Lifecycle configuration for the S3 bucket.
D. Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to invoke an AWS Lambda function. Configure the Lambda function to back up the table and store the backup in an Amazon S3 bucket. Set an S3 Lifecycle configuration for the S3 bucket.
Correct Answer: C
TOPIC QUESTION 9:
A payment processing company records all voice communication with its customers and stores the audio files in an Amazon S3 bucket. The company needs to capture the text from the audio files. The company must remove from the text any personally identifiable information (Pll) that belongs to customers.
What should a solutions architect do to meet these requirements?
A. Process the audio files by using Amazon Kinesis Video Streams. Use an AWS Lambda function to scan for known Pll patterns.
B. When an audio file is uploaded to the S3 bucket, invoke an AWS Lambda function to start an Amazon Textract task to analyze the call recordings.
C. Configure an Amazon Transcribe transcription job with Pll redaction turned on. When an audio file is uploaded to the S3 bucket, invoke an AWS Lambda function to start the transcription job. Store the output in a separate S3 bucket.
D. Create an Amazon Connect contact flow that ingests the audio files with transcription turned on. Embed an AWS Lambda function to scan for known Pll patterns. Use Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) to start the contact flow when an audio file is uploaded to the S3 bucket.
Correct Answer: C
TOPIC QUESTION 10:
A company uses NFS to store large video files in on-premises network attached storage. Each video file ranges in size from 1MB to 500 GB. The total storage is 70 TB and is no longer growing. The company decides to migrate the video files to Amazon S3. The company must migrate the video files as soon as possible while using the least possible network bandwidth.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Create an S3 bucket Create an IAM role that has permission to write to the S3 bucket. Use the AWS CLI to copy all files locally to the S3 bucket.
B. Create an AWS Snowball Edge job. Receive a Snowball Edge device on the premises. Use the Snowball Edge client to transfer data to the device. Return the device so that AWS can import the data into Amazon S3.
C. Deploy an S3 File Gateway on-premises. Create a public service endpoint to connect to the S3 File Gateway Create an S3 bucket Create a new NFS file share on the S3 File Gateway Point the new file share to the S3 bucket. Transfer the data from the existing NFS file share to the S3 File Gateway.
D. Set up an AWS Direct Connect connection between the on-premises network and AWS. Deploy an S3 File Gateway on-premises. Create a public virtual interlace (VIF) to connect to the S3 File Gateway. Create an S3 bucket. Create a new NFS file share on the S3 File Gateway. Point the new file share to the S3 bucket. Transfer the data from the existing NFS file share to the S3 File Gateway.
Correct Answer: B
TOPIC QUESTION 11:
A company has an on-premises MySQL database used by the global sales team with infrequent access patterns. The sales team requires the database to have minimal downtime. A database administrate wants to migrate this database to AWS without selecting a particular instance type in anticipation of more users In the future.
Which service should a solutions architect recommend?
A. Amazon Aurora MySQL
B. Amazon Aurora Serverless tor MySQL
C. Amazon Redshift Spectrum
D. Amazon RDS for MySQL
Correct Answer: B
TOPIC QUESTION 12:
A company wants to run its critical applications in containers to meet requirements for scalability and availability The company prefers to focus on maintenance of the critical applications The company does not want to be responsible for provisioning and managing the underlying infrastructure that runs the containerized workload
What should a solutions architect do to meet those requirements?
A. Use Amazon EC2 Instances, and Install Docker on the Instances
B. Use Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) on Amazon EC2 worker nodes
C. Use Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) on AWS Fargate
D. Use Amazon EC2 instances from an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)-op6mized Amazon Machine Image (AMI).
Correct Answer: C
using AWS ECS on AWS Fargate since the requirements are for scalability and availability without having to provision and manage the underlying infrastructure to run the containerized workload.
A social media company allows users to upload images to its website. The website runs on Amazon EC2 instances.
During upload requests, the website resizes the images to a standard size and stores the resized images in Amazon S3.
Users are experiencing slow upload requests to the website.
The company needs to reduce coupling within the application and improve website performance. A solutions architect must design the most operationally efficient process for image uploads.
Which combination of actions should the solutions architect take to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the application to upload images to S3 Glacier.
B. Configure the webserver to upload the original images to Amazon S3.
C. Configure the application to upload images directly from each user\’s browser to Amazon S3 through the use of a pre-signed URL.
D. Configure S3 Event Notifications to invoke an AWS Lambda function when an image is uploaded. Use the function to resize the image
E. Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that invokes an AWS Lambda function on a schedule to resize uploaded images.
Correct Answer: BD
…
AWS Certified Associate exam solution
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate (SAA-C03) exam is intended for individuals who perform in a solutions architect role. The exam validates a candidate’s ability to use AWS technologies to design solutions based on the AWS Well-Architected Framework. The exam also validates a candidate’s ability to complete the following tasks:
Design solutions that incorporate AWS services to meet current business requirements and future projected needs
Design architectures that are secure, resilient, high-performing, and cost-optimized
Review existing solutions and determine improvements
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Question 1:
Which access control feature does MAB provide?
A. user access based on IP address
B. allows devices to bypass authenticate*
C. network access based on the physical address of a device
D. simultaneous user and device authentication
Correct Answer: C
Question 2:
What does the Cisco DNA Center use to enable the delivery of applications through a network and to yield analytics for innovation?
A. process adapters
B. Command Runner
C. intent-based APIs
D. domain adapters
Correct Answer: C
The Cisco DNA Center open platform for intent-based networking provides 360- degree extensibility across multiple components, including:
+ Intent-based APIs leverage the controller to enable business and IT applications to deliver intent to the network and to reap network analytics and insights for IT and business innovation. These enable APIs that allow Cisco DNA Center to
receive input from a variety of sources, both internal to IT and from line-of-business applications, related to application policy, provisioning, software image management, and assurance.
A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0.
Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?
A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point
B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
Correct Answer: A
Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR while Point-to-point/multipoint do not elect DR/BDR. Therefore we have to set the two Gi0/0 interfaces to a point-to-point or point-to-multipoint network to ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur.
Question 5:
Which of the following are the three components of the three-tier hierarchical networking model used in the classical Cisco networks design? (Choose three.)
A. Distribution
B. Core
C. Access
D. Leaf
E. Spine
Correct Answer: ABC
Question 6:
In Cisco DNA Center, what is the integration API?
A. southbound consumer-facing RESTful API. which enables network discovery and configuration management
B. westbound interface, which allows the exchange of data to be used by ITSM. IPAM and reporting
C. an interface between the controller and the network devices, which enables network discovery and configuration management
D. northbound consumer-facing RESTful API, which enables network discovery and configuration management
In a Cisco SD-Access fabric architecture, which of the following are valid device roles (Choose three.)
A. Control Plane Node
B. Access routing device
C. Edge Node
D. Border Node
E. Distributed Node
Correct Answer: ACD
Question 8:
When is an external antenna used inside a building?
A. only when using Mobility Express
B. when it provides the required coverage
C. only when using 2 4 GHz
D. only when using 5 GHz
Correct Answer: B
Question 9:
You have configured router R1 with multiple VRFs \’s in order to support multiple customer VPN networks. If you wanted to see the best path for the 10.2.1.0.24 route in VRF Green, what command would you use?
A. show ip route vrf Green 10.2.1.0
B. show ip route 10.2.1.0 vrf Green
C. show route all 10.2.1.0
D. show ip route 10.2.1.0 Green
Correct Answer: A
#show ip route vrf mgmt 10.100.10.1 % IP routing table vrf mgmt does not exist
Question 10:
A firewall address of 192 166.1.101 can be pinged from a router but, when running a traceroute to It, this output is received.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The firewall blocks ICMP traceroute traffic.
B. The firewall rule that allows ICMP traffic does not function correctly
C. The firewall blocks ICMP traffic.
D. The firewall blocks UDP traffic
Correct Answer: D
Question 11:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to create an EEM script that adds an entry to a locally stored text file with a timestamp when a configuration change is made. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 12:
A customer deploys a new wireless network to perform location-based services using Cisco DNA Spaces The customer has a single WLC located on-premises in a secure data center. The security team does not want to expose the WLC to the public Internet.
Which solution allows the customer to securely send RSSI updates to Cisco DNA Spaces?
A. Implement Cisco Mobility Services Engine
B. Replace the WLC with a cloud-based controller.
C. Perform tethering with Cisco DNA Center.
D. Deploy a Cisco DNA Spaces connector as a VM.
Correct Answer: D
Question 13:
A customer wants to use a single SSID to authenticate loT devices using different passwords. Which Layer 2 security type must be configured in conjunction with Cisco ISE to achieve this requirement?
A. Fast Transition
B. Central Web Authentication
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management
D. Identity PSK
Correct Answer: D
With the advent of the Internet of things, the number of devices that connect to the Internet is increased multifold. Not all of these devices support 802.1x supplicant and need an alternate mechanism to connect to the internet.
One of the security mechanisms, WPA-PSK could be considered as an alternative. With the current configuration, the pre-shared key is the same for all clients that connect to the same WLAN.
In certain deployments such as Educational Institutions, this results in the key being shared with unauthorized users resulting in security breaches. Therefore, above mentioned and other requirements lead to the need for provisioning unique pre-shared keys for different clients on a large scale.
Identity PSKs are unique pre-shared keys created for individuals or groups of users on the same SSID.
No complex configuration is required for clients. The same simplicity of PSK makes it ideal for IoT, BYOD, and guest deployments.
Supported on most devices, where 802.1X may not, enabling stronger security for IoT.
Easily revoke access, for a single device or individual, without affecting everyone else.
Thousands of keys can easily be managed and distributed via the AAA server.
Question 14:
How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?
A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate.
B. It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate.
C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery.
D. It drops packets randomly from lower-priority queues.
Correct Answer: B
Traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time. The result of traffic shaping is a smoothed packet output rate.
